DNA damage and repair

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60 Terms

1
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Why is the stability of DNA essential for cell survival?

It encodes the genetic instructions for the development and functioning of all known living organisms.

2
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Which biological macromolecule is unique in its ability to undergo repair?

DNA.

3
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What are the two primary consequences of DNA damage in proliferating cells?

Cell death or mutation.

4
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The accumulation of mutations in proliferating cells can lead to the development of _.

Cancer

5
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What is a primary consequence of DNA damage in non-dividing cells regarding gene expression?

The blocking of transcription.

6
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In non-dividing cells, a decline in tissue repair caused by DNA damage leads to _.

Aging

7
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How is 'endogenous DNA damage' defined?

Damage occurring spontaneously within the cell.

8
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Identify three sources of endogenous DNA damage.

Hydrolysis, oxygen species, and by-products of metabolism.

9
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How is 'exogenous DNA damage' defined?

Damage caused by reactions with molecules from outside the cell.

10
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Identify three external factors that serve as exogenous sources of DNA damage.

UV light, X-rays, and carcinogens (or chemotherapeutics).

11
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Why is DNA damage more critical than damage to proteins or lipids?

DNA contains genetic information and cannot be replaced, unlike proteins or lipids.

12
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Which chemical bond is susceptible to hydrolysis during depurination?

The N-glycosidic bond connecting the purine to the deoxyribose sugar.

13
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What is the result of a depurination event in the DNA helix?

An abasic site.

14
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Approximately how many depurination events occur per human genome per day?

18,000.00

15
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What are the potential mutagenic outcomes of an abasic site?

Deletion mutations, substitution mutations, or strand breakage.

16
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The removal of amino acids from DNA bases by hydrolysis is known as _.

Deamination

17
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What base is created when cytosine undergoes deamination?

Uracil.

18
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Why are transition mutations more likely to occur than transversions?

Substituting a double ring structure for another double ring is more likely than substituting it for a single ring.

19
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What type of protein is generated as a result of a frameshift mutation?

Missense proteins.

20
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Which specific DNA lesion is induced by exposure to UV light?

Pyrimidine dimers.

21
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How do pyrimidine dimers physically affect the DNA helix?

They cause distortion and prevent the DNA from being flexible.

22
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Besides dimers, what other toxic lesions can UV light induce?

Interstrand DNA crosslinks and DNA-protein crosslinks.

23
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Why are DNA crosslinks considered highly toxic to the cell?

They block both replication and transcription.

24
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Which enzyme scans DNA and flips bases out of the helix to identify damage in Base Excision Repair (BER)?

Uracil glycosylase.

25
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In BER, what is the role of uracil glycosylase once a damaged base is identified?

It cleaves the bond between the base and the sugar to leave an abasic site.

26
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Which enzyme cuts the phosphodiester backbone at the 5' side of an abasic site during BER?

AP endonuclease.

27
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What is the function of phosphodiesterase in the BER pathway?

It removes the leftover sugar-phosphate residue after the backbone is cut.

28
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Which enzyme adds the correct new nucleotide to the gap during Base Excision Repair?

DNA polymerase.

29
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In BER, which enzyme is responsible for sealing the final nick in the sugar-phosphate backbone?

DNA ligase.

30
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Which enzyme identifies helix distortions in the Nucleotide Excision Repair (NER) pathway?

Excision nuclease.

31
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How does excision nuclease initiate the repair process in NER?

It makes two cuts in the sugar-phosphate backbone, one on either side of the damage.

32
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What is the role of DNA helicase in Nucleotide Excision Repair?

It unwinds the DNA to peel away the damaged single-stranded segment.

33
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What does DNA polymerase use as a template to fill the gap during NER?

The healthy opposite strand.

34
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When does a cell employ Translesion Synthesis (TLS)?

As a last resort to bypass major DNA lesions that stall replication.

35
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What occurs when a replicative polymerase encounters a bulky lesion?

It stops because it cannot fit the damaged bases into its active site.

36
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Which chemical 'flags' signal the replicative polymerase to release the DNA during a stall?

Covalent modifications to the sliding clamp.

37
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How do the active sites of translesion DNA polymerases differ from replicative polymerases?

They are much larger to accommodate distorted or damaged bases.

38
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What is the primary genetic risk associated with translesion synthesis?

It lacks precision in template recognition and substrate base choice.

39
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Why are translesion polymerases unable to fix mistakes made during synthesis?

They lack proof-reading activity.

40
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Which types of mutations are most frequently caused by translesion synthesis?

Base substitutions and single nucleotide deletions.

41
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What allows high-fidelity replicative DNA polymerase to reload after translesion synthesis?

The removal of covalent modifications from the sliding clamp.

42
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Which protein complex binds to DNA ends and recruits DNA-PKcs in Non-Homologous End Joining (NHEJ)?

Ku70/8.

43
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What is the role of Artemis in the NHEJ pathway?

It trims nucleotides at messy or mismatched DNA ends to make them ligatable.

44
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Which complex catalyses the formation of new phosphodiester bonds to close a break in NHEJ?

The XRCC4-DNA ligase IV complex.

45
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What is the major disadvantage of Non-Homologous End Joining?

Genetic information is often lost due to the loss of nucleotides surrounding the break site.

46
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How does the MRN complex initiate Homologous Recombination (HR)?

It trims the 5' ends of broken DNA to create single-stranded DNA tails.

47
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What is the function of Replication Protein A (RPA) in Homologous Recombination?

It coats single-stranded DNA tails to prevent them from tangling or degrading.

48
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Which proteins facilitate 'strand invasion' during Homologous Recombination?

Rad51, Rad52, Rad54, and tumour suppressors BRCA1 and BRCA2.

49
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In HR, what term describes the point where broken DNA is physically linked to its template sister chromatid?

Holiday junction.

50
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Why is Homologous Recombination considered more accurate than NHEJ?

It uses the sister chromatid as a guide to restore missing information without loss.

51
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Identify the three points in the cell cycle where DNA damage is detected.

G1, entry to S-phase, and entry into mitosis.

52
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Which kinases associate with the site of DNA damage to block the cell cycle?

ATM/ATR.

53
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How does p53 contribute to cell cycle arrest after DNA damage?

It is stabilised and activates the expression of p21.

54
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What is the specific function of p21 in the cell cycle checkpoint?

It renders the G1/S-CDK complex inactive to prevent cycle progression.

55
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What is the cellular fate if DNA damage cannot be successfully repaired?

Apoptosis.

56
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What is the inheritance pattern of Xeroderma pigmentosum?

Autosomal recessive.

57
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Patients with Xeroderma pigmentosum have a 2000-fold increased risk of which condition?

Skin cancer.

58
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Which tumour suppressor genes are specifically associated with inherited breast cancers?

BRCA1 and BRCA2.

59
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What allows cancer cells to grow very fast despite DNA damage?

They are able to replicate in the presence of damage.

60
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Define the concept of 'synthetic lethality'.

A combination of two specific genetic defects leads to cell death, even though either defect alone does not.