CHEM FINAL

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1
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A sample of oxygen occupies 47.2 liters under a pressure of 1240 torr at 25oC. What volume would it occupy at 25oC if the pressure were decreased to 730 torr?
(a) 27.8 L
(b) 29.3 L
(c) 32.3 L
(d) 80.2 L

(d) 80.2 L

2
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A sample of nitrogen occupies 5.50 liters under a pressure of 900 torr at 25oC. At what temperature will it occupy 10.0 liters at the same pressure?
(a) 32oC
(b) -109oC
(c) 154oC
(d) 269oC

(d) 269oC

3
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Which statement is false?
(a) The density of a gas is constant as long as its temperature remains constant.
(b) Gases can be expanded without limit.
(c) Gases diffuse into each other and mix almost immediately when put into the same container.
(d) The molecular weight of a gaseous compound is a non-variable quantity.

(a) The density of a gas is constant as long as its temperature remains constant.

4
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Under conditions of fixed temperature and amount of gas, Boyle's law requires that
P1V1= P2V2
PV = constant
P1/P2= V2/V1
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) III only
(d) I, II, and III

(d) I, II, and III

5
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The volume of a sample of nitrogen is 6.00 liters at 35oC and 740 torr. What volume will it occupy at STP?
(a) 6.59 L
(b) 5.46 L
(c) 6.95 L
(d) 5.18 L

(d) 5.18 L

6
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The density of chlorine gas at STP, in grams per liter, is approximately:
(a) 6.2
(b) 3.2
(c) 3.9
(d) 4.5

(b) 3.2

7
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What pressure (in atm) would be exerted by 76 g of fluorine gas in a 1.50 liter vessel at -37oC?
(a) 26 atm
(b) 4.1 atm
(c) 19,600 atm
(d) 84 atm

(a) 26 atm

8
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What is the density of ammonia gas at 2.00 atm pressure and a temperature of 25.0oC?
(a) 0.720 g/L
(b) 0.980 g/L
(c) 1.39 g/L
(d) 16.6 g/L

(c) 1.39 g/L

9
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A container with volume 71.9 mL contains water vapor at a pressure of 10.4 atm and a temperature of 465oC. How many grams of the gas are in the container?
(a) 0.421 g
(b) 0.183 g
(c) 0.129 g
(d) 0.222 g

(d) 0.222 g

10
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What is the molecular weight of a pure gaseous compound having a density of 4.95 g/L at -35 oC and 1020 torr?
(a) 24
(b) 11
(c) 72
(d) 120

(c) 72

11
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A vessel contained N2, Ar, He, and Ne. The total pressure in the vessel was 987 torr. The partial pressures of nitrogen, argon, and helium were 44.0, 486, and 218 torr, respectively. The partial pressure of neon in the vessel was __________ torr.
A) 42.4
B) 521
C) 19.4
D) 239

D) 239

12
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What happens to the volume of a gas during compression?
(A) The volume increases
(B) The volume decreases
(C) The volume remains constant
(D) It is impossible to tell because all gases are different

(B) The volume decreases

13
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A sample of gas (24.2 g) initially at 4.00 atm was compressed from 8.00 L to 2.00 L at constant temperature. After the compression, the gas pressure was __________ atm
A) 4.00
B) 2.00
C) 1.00
D) 16.0

D) 16.0

14
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At a temperature of __________ °C, 0.444 mol of CO gas occupies 11.8 L at 889 torr.
A) 379
B) 73
C) 14
D) 106

D) 106

15
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The molar volume of a gas at STP is _________ L.
A) 0.08206
B) 62.36
C) 1.00
D) 22.4

D) 22.4

16
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Which of the following is not part of the kinetic-molecular theory?
A) Atoms are neither created nor destroyed by ordinary chemical reactions.
B) Attractive and repulsive forces between gas molecules are negligible.
C) Gases consist of molecules in continuous, random motion.
D) Collisions between gas molecules do not result in the loss of energy.

A) Atoms are neither created nor destroyed by ordinary chemical reactions.

17
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Of the following gases, ___ will have the greatest rate of effusion at a given temperature.
A) NH3
B) CH4
C) Ar
D) HBr

B) CH4

18
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Which of the following gases would have the highest average molecular speed at 25°C?
A) O2
B) N2
C) CO2
D) CH4

D) CH4

19
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An ideal gas differs from a real gas in that the molecules of an ideal gas _______.
A) have no attraction for one another
B) have appreciable molecular volumes
C) have a molecular weight of zero
D) have no kinetic energy

A) have no attraction for one another

20
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True or False: The effusion rate of a gas is proportional to the square root of its molar mass.

FALSE

21
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Choose the molecule that is incorrectly matched with the electronic geometry about the central atom.
(a) CF4 - tetrahedral
(b) BeBr2 - linear
(c) H2O - tetrahedral
(d) PF3 - pyramidal

(d) PF3 - pyramidal

22
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Choose the species that is incorrectly matched with the electronic geometry about the central atom.
(a) NO2- - trigonal planar
(b) ClO4- - tetrahedral
(c) SO32- - pyramidal
(d) ClO3- - tetrahedral

(c) SO32- - pyramidal

23
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Which of the following pairs of molecules and their molecular geometries is WRONG?
(a) NF3 - trigonal planar
(b) H2O - bent
(c) BF3 - trigonal planar
(d) AsF5 - trigonal bipyramidal

(a) NF3 - trigonal planar

24
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Which molecule has a linear arrangement of all component atoms?
(a) CH4
(b) H2O
(c) CO2
(d) NH3

(c) CO2

25
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A π (pi) bond is the result of the

(a) overlap of two s orbitals.
(b) overlap of an s and a p orbital.
(c) overlap of two p orbitals along their axes.
(d) sidewise overlap of two parallel p orbitals.

(d) sidewise overlap of two parallel p orbitals.

26
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The F-S-F bond angles in SF6 are ______.
(a) 109o28'
(b) 120o only
(c) 90o and 120o
(d) 90o and 180o

(d) 90o and 180o

27
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Which molecule is nonpolar?
(a) H2Se
(b) BeH2
(c) PF3
(d) CHCl3

b) BeH2

28
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What hybridization is predicted for sulfur in the HSO3- ion?
(a) sp
(b) sp2
(c) sp3
(d) sp3d

(c) sp3

29
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For a molecule with the formula AB2 the molecular shape is __________.
A) linear or bent
B) linear or trigonal planar
C) linear or T-shaped
D) T-shaped

A) linear or bent

30
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According to VSEPR theory, if there are five electron domains in the valence shell of an atom, they will be arranged in a(n) __________ geometry.
A) octahedral
B) trigonal bipyramidal
C) tetrahedral
D) trigonal planar

B) trigonal bipyramidal

31
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The molecular geometry of __________ is square planar.
A) CCl4
B) XeF4
C) PH3
D) XeF2

B) XeF4

32
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According to valence bond theory, which orbitals on bromine atoms overlap in the formation of the bond in Br2?
A) 3s
B) 3p
C) 4s
D) 4p

D) 4p

33
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In order to produce sp3 hybrid orbitals, __________ s atomic orbital(s) and __________ p atomic orbital(s) must be mixed.
A) one, two
B) one, three
C) one, one
D) two, two

B) one, three

34
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The angles between sp2 orbitals are __________.
A) 45°
B) 180°
C) 90°
D) 120°

D) 120°

35
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There are __________ σ and __________ π bonds in the H2C=C=CH2 molecule.
A) 4, 2
B) 6, 4
C) 2, 2
D) 6, 2

D) 6, 2

36
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The basis of the VSEPR model of molecular bonding is __________.
A) regions of electron density on an atom will organize themselves so as to maximize s-character
B) regions of electron density in the valence shell of an atom will arrange themselves so as to maximize overlap
C) atomic orbitals of the bonding atoms must overlap for a bond to form
D) electron domains in the valence shell of an atom will arrange themselves so as to minimize repulsions

D) electron domains in the valence shell of an atom will arrange themselves so as to minimize repulsions

37
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In counting the electron domains around the central atom in VSEPR theory, a __________ is not included.
A) nonbonding pair of electrons
B) single covalent bond
C) core level electron pair
D) double covalent bond

C) core level electron pair

38
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The central iodine atom in IF5 has __________ unbonded electron pairs and __________ bonded electron pairs in its valence shell.
A) 1, 5
B) 0, 5
C) 5, 1
D) 4, 1

A) 1, 5

39
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The electron-domain geometry and the molecular geometry of a molecule of the general formula ABn are __________.
A) never the same
B) always the same
C) sometimes the same
D) not related

C) sometimes the same

40
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Of the molecules below, only __________ is nonpolar.
A) CO2
B) H2O
C) NH3
D) HCl

A) CO2

41
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Which of the following compounds has the largest lattice energy?
1) NaCl
2)RbCl
3)CaCl2
4)MgCl2

4)MgCl2

42
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Which of these elements is mostly to form ions with a 2+ charge?
1) Ca
2) P
3) O
4) Li

1) Ca

43
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Which of the following statements about ionic bonding is false?
1) The attraction between cations and anions increases as the charges on the ions increase.
2) Ionic bonds are found in compounds formed from metals combined with nonmetals.
3) The attraction between cations and anions increases as the radii of the ions increase.
4) Lattice energy is the energy needed to break an ionic compound into gaseous ions.

3) The attraction between cations and anions increases as the radii of the ions increase.

44
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What is the expected electron configuration of a Co3+ ion?
1) [Ar] 4s2 3d4
2) [Ar] 3d6
3) [Ar] 4s1 3d5
4) [Ar] 4s2 3d7

2) [Ar] 3d6

45
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Which of the following statements about multiple bonds is false?
1)The formation of multiple bonds allows atoms to satisfy the octet rule.
2)A triple bond involves the sharing of three electrons between the two atoms.
3)A double bond is shorter than a single bond.
4)A molecule can have more than one multiple bonds in it.

2)A triple bond involves the sharing of three electrons between the two atoms.

46
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Arrange following bonds in order of increasing polarity: B-Cl, P-S, Al-F, Br-Br
1)P-S < Br-Br < Al-F < B-Cl
2)Br-Br < P-S < B-Cl < Al-F
3)B-Cl < Br-Br < P-S < Al-F
4)Br-Br < P-S < Al-F < B-Cl

2)Br-Br < P-S < B-Cl < Al-F

47
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Which of these molecules has a Lewis structure with a central atom having no nonbonding electron pairs?
1)CO2
2)PF3
3)Both CO2 and H2S
4)H2S

1)CO2

48
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The SO2 molecule, which has a central S atom bonded to two O atoms, has ___ equivalent resonance structures, and the two S-O bonds are _____.
1)One, different lengths
2)Two, the same length
3)One, the same length
4)Two, different length

2)Two, the same length

49
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For how many of the following molecules is it not possible to write a Lewis Structure that Satisfies the octet rule: NH4+, NO, NO2, N2O?
a) 2
b) 1
c) 3
d) 4

a) 2

50
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How many of the following molecules are hypervalent: PF3, PF5, XeF2, XeF4?
a) 4
b) 3
c) 2
d) 1

b) 3

51
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C-O bond length is minimum in
(a) CO2
(b) CO32-
(c) HCOO-
(d) CO

(d) CO

52
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Find the molecule with the maximum dipole moment
(a) CH4
(b) NH3
(c) CO2
(d) NF3

(b) NH3

53
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MX6 is a molecule with octahedral geometry. How many X - M - X bonds are at 180°?
(a) four
(b) two
(c) three
(d) six

(c) three

54
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Which of the molecules does not have a permanent dipole moment?
(a) SO3
(b) SO2
(c) H2S
(d) CS2

(d) CS2

55
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The valence electrons of representative elements are
(a) in s orbitals only.
(b) located in the outermost occupied major energy level.
(c) located closest to the nucleus.
(d) located in d orbitals.

(b) located in the outermost occupied major energy level.

56
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Which one of the following violates the octet rule?
(a) PCl3
(b) CBr4
(c) NF3
(d) AsF5

(d) AsF5

57
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Which one of the compounds below is most likely to be ionic?
(a) GaAs
(b) ScCl3
(c) NO2
(d) CCl4

(b) ScCl3

58
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Draw one of the resonance structures of SO3. The formal charge of S is
(a) +2
(b) +1
(c) 0
(d) -1

(a) +2

59
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In the Lewis structure for the OF2 molecule, the number of lone pairs of electrons around the central oxygen atom is
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 3

(c) 2

60
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What is the total number of electrons in the correct Lewis dot formula of the sulfite ion?
(a) 8
(b) 24
(c) 26
(d) 30

(c) 26

61
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The effective nuclear charge is ____ for electrons in an atom that are _____ the nucleus.
1)Largest, closest to
2)Smallest, closest to
3)The same, anywhere with respect to
4)largest, away from

1)Largest, closest to

62
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Arrange these electrons in order of decreasing effective nuclear charge: a 1s electron in carbon, a 3s electron in silicon, a 3s electron in germanium, and a 1s electron in tin.
1)Sn 1s > Ge 3s > Si 3s > C 1s
2)Sn 1s > Ge 3s > C 1s > Si 3s
3)Ge 3s > Si 3s > Sn 1s > C 1s
4)C 1s > Si 3s > Ge 3s > Sn 1s

2)Sn 1s > Ge 3s > C 1s > Si 3s

63
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As you go from left to right across a row in the periodic table, atomic size_____ and atomic number____.
1)Increases, decreases
2)Increases, increases
3)Decreases, increases
4)Decreases, decreases

3)Decreases, increases

64
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Which ionic compound consists of ions with the most extreme difference in ionic size?
1)NaF
2)KCl
3)RbBr
4)CsF

4)CsF

65
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As you go ______ in the periodic table, ______ decreases.
1)From bottom to top up a column, the charge of most common ion for each element
2)From left to right across a row, atomic size
3)More than one of a, b, c, d
4)From left to right across a row, radius of most common ion for each element

2)From left to right across a row, atomic size

66
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A typical bond length is approximately how long?
a) 1 x 10-6 m
b) 1 x 10-12 m
c) 1 x 10-10 m
d) 1 x 10-8 m

c) 1 x 10-10 m

67
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Which process corresponds to the second ionization energy of generic element A?
a) A+ (g) ⟶A2+ (g) + e
b) A (g) ⟶ A2+ (g) + 2e
c) 2A (g) ⟶ A22+ (g) + 2e
d) A (g)⟶ A+ (g) + e

a) A+ (g) ⟶A2+ (g) + e

68
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Which of these statements about first ionization energy is true?
1)Magnesium has a smaller first ionization energy than calcium.
2)The alkali metals have relatively large first ionization energies.
3)In comparing "early" (left of Fe/Ru/Os) transition metals to "late" (right of Fe/Ru/Os) transition metals, we would predict that the first ionization energy of the early transition metals is smaller than those of the late transition metals in the same period.
4)The noble gases have relatively low first ionization energies.

3)In comparing "early" (left of Fe/Ru/Os) transition metals to "late" (right of Fe/Ru/Os) transition metals, we would predict that the first ionization energy of the early transition metals is smaller than those of the late transition metals in the same period.

69
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Which of the following ions has an electron configuration that differs from the others?
1)S2-
2)Ca2+
3)K+
4)Mg2+

4)Mg2+

70
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The electron affinity for an element is written as _____, which is generally an ____ process.
a) X(g) + e ⟶ X-(g) , endothermic
b) X(g) ⟶ X+(g) + e, exothermic
c) X(g) ⟶X+(g) + e, endothermic
d) X(g) + e ⟶ X-(g) , exothermic

d) X(g) + e ⟶ X-(g) , exothermic

71
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Which of these isoelectronic species has the smallest radius?
(a) Br-
(b) Sr2+
(c) Rb+
(d) Se2-

(b) Sr2+

72
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Select the term best describing the series of elements: Mn, Fe, Co, Ni, Cu.
(a) d-transition metals
(b) representative elements
(c) metalloids
(d) alkaline earth metals

(a) d-transition metals

73
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Which element has the largest atomic radius?
(a) Li
(b) Na
(c) Rb
(d) F

(c) Rb

74
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The species that contains 24 protons, 26 neutrons and 22 electrons would be represented by the symbol:
(a) 50V3+
(b) 26Cr2+
(c) 50Cr2+
(d) 50Mn2+

(c) 50Cr2+

75
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Which element has the highest first ionization energy?
a) B
b) C
c) N
d) O

c) N

76
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How many element groups are there?
A) 7
B) 11
C) 16
D) 18

D) 18

77
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What is the symbol for tin?
A) Sn
B) Se
C) Sg
D) Sr

A) Sn

78
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The horizontal lines in the modern periodic table are called—
A) Metal
B) Group
C) Period
D) None of the above

C) Period

79
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When an electron is added in valence shell then
A) Energy is absorbed
B) Energy is released
C) Energy remains same
D) Force of attraction increases

B) Energy is released

80
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As we go from left to right across period, electron affinity
A) Increases
B) Decreases
C) Remains same
D) None of above

A) Increases

81
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Which of the following statements is true?
1)Microwaves have a higher frequency than X-rays.
2)Microwaves have a longer wavelength than X-rays.
3)Microwaves travel through a vacuum faster than X-rays.
4)All the above are correct.

2)Microwaves have a longer wavelength than X-rays.

82
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In the Bohr model of the hydrogen atom, which of the following quantities decreases as the value of the principal quantum number of the electron increases?
Given: E=(-2.18 x 10-18 J) (1/n2)
1)The energy of the electron
2)The energy required to ionize (remove an electron) the atom
3)The distance from the electron to the nucleus
4)The frequency of the photon emitted when the electron relaxes back to the ground state

2)The energy required to ionize (remove an electron) the atom

83
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The resolution of a microscope is limited to approximately one-half the wavelength of the light source. Because of this limitation, microscopes capable of obtaining atomic scale images use electrons instead of visible light of illuminate samples. To distinguish atoms separated by a few hundred picometers, as they are in most solids, the electron wavelength should be less than or equal to approximately 200 pm. To what speed must the electron be accelerated to attain this wavelength?
Given: Planck constant=6.626 × 10-34 J/s
a) 3.6 x 10-6 m/s
b) 3.6 x 106 m/s
c) 36 x 10-6 m/s
d) 36 x 106 m/s

b) 3.6 x 106 m/s

84
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The average speed of an N2 gas molecule is a container with a temperature of 100 °C is 500 m/s. If the uncertainty in our measurement of the molecule's velocity is 1% (5 m/s), what is the lower limit on the uncertainty with which we can measure its position?Given: Planck constant=6.626 × 10-34 J/s
a) 3.8 x 10-37 m
b) 2.3 x 10-13 m
c) 2.3 x 10-10 m
d) 2.3 x 10-11 m

c) 2.3 x 10-10 m

85
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An orbital has n=4 and m1=-1. What are the possible values of l for this orbital?Given= Planck constant=6.626 × 10-34 J/s
a) 0, 1, 2, 3
b) 1, 2, 3
c) -3, -2, -1, 0, 1, 2, 3
d) -2, 0, 1, 2

c) -3, -2, -1, 0, 1, 2, 3

86
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How many orbitals are in fourth electron shell?
a) 4
b) 8
c) 32
d) 16

d) 16

87
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Which of the following statements about the 3d orbital of a hydrogen atom is false?
a) The orbitals in this subshell can hold a maximum of five electrons.
b) All orbitals in this subshell have l =2
c) The orbitals in this subshell are at the same energy as those in the 3p subshell.
d) none

c) The orbitals in this subshell are at the same energy as those in the 3p subshell.

88
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A 3s orbital has ____ radial nodes and _____ nodal planes.
a) 2, 2
b) 2, 0
c) 0, 0
d) 3, 2

b) 2, 0

89
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If two electrons in a multielectron atom are in degenerate orbitals, which quantum numbers must be the same?
a) l
b) n
c) n, l, m
d) n, l

d) n, l

90
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How many of the elements in the second row of the periodic table (Li through Ne) will have at least one unpaired electron in their electron configuration?
a) 3
b) 5
c) 6
d) 7

c) 6

91
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Based on the structure of the periodic table, which becomes occupied first, the 6s orbitals or 5d orbitals?
a) 6s
b) 5d
c) both at same time
d) none

a) 6s

92
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In which column of the periodic table would you find an atom with a valance electron configuration of ns2 np3?
a) Group 2A
b) Group 7A
c) Group 3A
d) Group 5A

d) Group 5A

93
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What is the full electron configuration for Ti?
a) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d2
b) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2
c) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d4
d) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 4p2

a) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d2

94
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In which part of the periodic table would you expect to find the elements with the largest number of unpaired electrons?
1)The transition elements
2)The representative elements
3)The rare earth elements
4)None of above

3)The rare earth elements

95
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What is the frequency of light having a wavelength of 4.50 x 10-6 cm?
(a) 2.84 x 10-12 s-1
(b) 2.10 x 104 s-1
(c) 4.29 x 1014 s-1
(d) 6.67 x 1015 s-1

(d) 6.67 x 1015 s-1

96
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The Heisenberg Principle states that _____________.
(a) no two electrons in the same atom can have the same set of four quantum numbers.
(b) two atoms of the same element must have the same number of protons.
(c) it is impossible to determine accurately both the position and momentum of an electron simultaneously.
(d) electrons of atoms in their ground states enter energetically equivalent sets of orbitals singly before they pair up in any orbital of the set.

(c) it is impossible to determine accurately both the position and momentum of an electron simultaneously.

97
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The maximum number of electrons that can be accommodated in a sublevel for which l = 3 is:
(a) 2
(b) 10
(c) 6
(d) 14

(d) 14

98
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How many p electrons are there in an atom of rubidium?
(a) 12
(b) 18
(c) 24
(d) 9

(b) 18

99
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In the ground state of a cobalt atom there are _____ unpaired electrons and the atom is _____.
(a) 3, paramagnetic
(b) 5, paramagnetic
(c) 2, diamagnetic
(d) 0, diamagnetic

(a) 3, paramagnetic

100
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The outer electronic configuration ns2np4 corresponds to which one of the following elements in its ground state?
(a) S
(b) Ca
(c) Cr
(d) Br

(a) S