Psych Module 2 Questions

To find the best route to work, Vlad identified all routes and eliminated options one-by-one. Which of the following did Vlad use?

A. Incubation

B. Divergent thinking

C. Expertise

D. Convergent thinking

D: Convergent thinking involves narrowing down multiple options to find the best solution, which is what Vlad did by eliminating routes one by one to find the best route to work.

When asked to think of a ball, Carlos quickly thought of images of baseballs, basketballs, and footballs. Which psychological concept best applies to this scenario?

A. Prototypes

B. Convergent thinking

C. Creativity

D. Venturesome personality

A: Prototypes are mental representations of the most typical examples of a category. In this case, when Carlos thought of a ball, he quickly thought of common examples like baseballs, basketballs, and footballs, which are prototypes of the category "ball."

Dr. Yamlak discovered that there was only a 3 percent chance of error in his finding that people who produce new and valuable ideas also tend to earn more money. Which of the following statements provides the most accurate interpretation of these results?

A. Dr. Yamlak's result that creativity relates to income is statistically significant.

B. Dr. Yamlak's result that convergent thinking relates to income is statistically significant.

C. Dr. Yamlak's result that creativity relates to income is not statistically significant.

D. Dr. Yamlak's result that accommodation relates to income is not statistically significant.

A: A 3 percent chance of error (p-value of 0.03) indicates that the results are statistically significant, meaning that there is strong evidence to support the relationship between creativity and income.

Your teacher asks how many uses you can think of for a pencil. She is testing your

A. convergent thinking.

B. intrinsic motivation.

C. divergent thinking.

D. prototypes.

C: Divergent thinking involves generating multiple ideas or solutions to a problem, often in creative or unconventional ways. Being asked to think of as many uses as possible for a pencil is a test of divergent thinking.

Dr. Jablonski conducted a study in which she measured the amount of time it took for participants to categorize one of two actions as discrimination: (1) failing to hire someone who appeared to be White or (2) failing to hire someone who appeared to be Black. The median amount of time it took participants to categorize action 1 as discrimination was 3 seconds, and the median amount of time it took participants to categorize action 2 as discrimination was 1 second.

Which psychological concept is Dr. Jablonski most likely interested in measuring in this scenario?

A. Creativity

B. Prototypes

C. Divergent thinking

D. Convergent thinking

B: Dr. Jablonski is likely interested in measuring how quickly participants can identify actions as discrimination based on their mental prototypes of what constitutes discrimination. The faster response time for the scenario involving someone who appeared to be Black suggests that participants may have a stronger or more readily accessible prototype for discrimination against Black individuals.

Caitlin, a fifth grader, is asked to remember her second-grade teacher's name. What measure of retention will Caitlin use to answer this question?

A. Storage

B. Recognition

C. Relearning

D. Recall

D: To remember her second-grade teacher's name, Caitlin would need to retrieve the information from her memory without any cues, which is an example of recall.

In history class, James is effortfully and actively thinking about how various events connect with one another, connecting the new material to what he has learned in the past. This making of connections in the moment best describes James'

A. sensory memory.

B. working memory.

C. relearning information.

D. long-term memory.

B: James is actively thinking about and connecting new information with what he has already learned, which involves the use of working memory. Working memory is where information is temporarily held and manipulated as we process and connect ideas.

Which of the following is a logical and objective conclusion that one can make regarding the three measures of retention?

A. Many students find short-answer tests easier than multiple-choice tests.

B. Many students find the process of encoding easier than storage.

C. Many students find multiple-choice tests easier than short-answer tests.

D. Many students find the process of retrieval easier than encoding.

C: This is a logical and objective conclusion because multiple-choice tests rely on recognition, which is generally easier than recall, the process required in short-answer tests. Recognition provides cues, making it easier to identify the correct answer, whereas recall requires retrieving information without any prompts.

Dr. Quarqortog is conducting a replication of a study on the role of neurotransmitters in memory. Which of the following neurotransmitters would this researcher most likely use to demonstrate support for past research that showed how particular neurotransmitters improve memory?

A. GABA

B. Endorphins

C. Serotonin

D. Norepinephrine

C: Serotonin is a neurotransmitter, a chemical messenger in the brain, that plays a key role in regulating mood, sleep, appetite, and other bodily functions. It is often associated with feelings of well-being and happiness.

Dr. Wallobee wants to conduct a study demonstrating that damage to the hippocampus causes people to have difficulty forming explicit memories.

Which of the following reasons best explains why it would be unethical to use human research participants for this work?

A. It would be unethical to ask participants to disclose their traumatic brain injuries for the sake of memory research.

B. It would be unethical to use human research participants because it is less invasive to conduct brain imaging studies with nonhuman research participants.

C. It would be unethical to subject some human research participants to hippocampal damage in the study.

D. It would be unethical to observe human research participants in their natural environments after they have encountered traumatic brain injury.

C: Intentionally causing harm to human participants. It would be unethical to deliberately damage the hippocampus of human participants to study its effects on memory, as this would cause significant and irreversible harm. Ethics in research requires that participants are protected from intentional harm, especially when the harm is as severe as brain damage.

Which of the following would be the most appropriate operational definition for Dr. Wallobee's dependent variable in this study?

A. Remembering the steps for baking a cake

B. Remembering how to ride a bicycle

C. Remembering a recent vacation

D. Remembering that thunder and lightning go together

C: Since it involves explicit memory, which is the type of memory the hippocampus is crucial for forming. Explicit memories are conscious, intentional recollections of factual information, previous experiences, and concepts. Remembering a recent vacation requires recalling specific details from a personal experience, which directly aligns with the type of memory that would be impaired by hippocampal damage.

To solve calculus problems, Ridge always uses the same logical and methodical rule that guarantees a solution. Ridge uses a(n)

A. heuristic.

B. algorithm.

C. insight.

D. mental set.

B: An algorithm is a step-by-step logical and methodical procedure that guarantees a correct solution to a problem, as Ridge uses for solving calculus problems.

Thom believes that his congresswoman is an honest woman. He looks for examples of her giving to charity and ignores her ethics violations, which have recently been in the news. Even after she is arrested and sent to jail, Thom still believes that the congresswoman is an honest person.

When Thom looks for examples of his congresswoman giving to charity, while ignoring her ethics violations, he is being affected by

A. confirmation bias.

B. intuition.

C. the sunk-cost fallacy.

D. the availability heuristic.

A: Confirmation bias occurs when people favor information that confirms their preexisting beliefs or attitudes while ignoring evidence that contradicts them. In this case, Thom focuses on positive examples of the congresswoman's actions while disregarding evidence of her ethics violations, which aligns with confirmation bias.

Thom believes that his congresswoman is an honest woman. He looks for examples of her giving to charity and ignores her ethics violations, which have recently been in the news. Even after she is arrested and sent to jail, Thom still believes that the congresswoman is an honest person.

When Thom continues to believe that his congresswoman is an honest person even after she is sent to jail, Thom is experiencing

A. framing.

B. intuition.

C. belief perseverance.

D. confirmation bias.

C: Belief perseverance is the tendency to hold on to one's beliefs even in the face of contradictory evidence. Thom's continued belief in his congresswoman's honesty despite her arrest and the evidence of her ethics violations demonstrates belief perseverance.

Jarvis has found himself purchasing meat labeled as "80 percent lean" more often than meat labeled as "20 percent fat," even though the meat is the same. Which psychological concept best applies to this scenario?

A. Intuition

B. Insight

C. Framing

D. Overconfidence

C: Framing refers to the way information is presented or "framed," which can influence decision-making and perceptions. In this case, Jarvis is more likely to purchase meat labeled as "80 percent lean" rather than "20 percent fat," even though the information is equivalent. The positive framing of "80 percent lean" makes the meat seem more appealing.

After seeing a news story about a kidnapping, Odessa felt more afraid that her children would be kidnapped, even though it is a very rare occurrence. Which of the following psychological concepts best applies to this scenario?

A. Intuition

B. Belief perseverance

C. Mental set

D. Availability heuristic

D: The availability heuristic is a mental shortcut where people assess the probability of an event based on how easily examples come to mind. In Odessa's case, the news story about the kidnapping makes the event seem more common and likely, even though it is rare, leading her to feel more afraid.

Bre generates, organizes, plans, and implements goal-directed behavior to complete her homework on time. What are these cognitive skills called?

A. Heuristics

B. Intuition

C. Executive functions

D. Stereotypes

C: Executive functions are cognitive skills that involve generating, organizing, planning, and implementing goal-directed behavior. They are essential for tasks such as completing homework on time.

Janelle had been working on a chemistry problem for some time when all of a sudden the answer came to her in a single moment. What cognitive process did Janelle experience?

A. Insight

B. Fixation

C. Framing

D. Creativity

A: Insight is the sudden realization of a solution to a problem, often occurring after a period of contemplation. Janelle's experience of the answer coming to her in a single moment is a classic example of insight.

Many students underestimate the time it will take to complete an assignment because they succumb to the planning fallacy. This fallacy is rooted in which cognitive bias?

A. Fixation

B. Overconfidence

C. Mental set

D. Belief perseverance

B: The planning fallacy is a cognitive bias where individuals underestimate the time or resources needed to complete a task, often due to overconfidence in their abilities and the assumption that things will go more smoothly than they typically do.

Meloni's boss gave her the phone number, including the area code, of a client she needed to call. As Meloni goes to enter the number into the contacts list on her phone, she finds that she cannot remember all the numbers in the right order. Which of the following is the best explanation for this failure?

A. Being 10 digits long, the number is beyond Miller's working memory capacity.

B. Meloni lacks echoic memory.

C. Because the number was so short, Meloni did not pay enough attention to it.

D. Meloni's iconic memory disrupted her encoding of the number.

A: Miller's law suggests that the average capacity of working memory is about 7±2 items. A 10-digit phone number exceeds this typical capacity, making it challenging to hold the entire sequence in working memory at once.

Which of the following is most likely to be encoded automatically?

A. The side-angle-side geometry theorem

B. The names of the last 10 presidents of the United States

C. What you ate for breakfast this morning

D. The license plate of your new car

C: Automatic encoding refers to the process of effortlessly encoding information without conscious effort or attention. Routine or frequent experiences, like what you ate for breakfast, are often encoded automatically.

Which of the following is most likely to lead to semantic encoding of a list of words?

A. Thinking about how the words relate to your own life

B. Practicing the words for a single extended period

C. Breaking up the practice into several relatively short sessions

D. Focusing on the number of vowels and consonants in the words

A: Semantic encoding involves processing information based on its meaning and how it relates to existing knowledge, which improves memory retention. Thinking about how the words relate to your own life enhances their meaning and aids in semantic encoding.

Dr. Tamir conducted a study on echoic memory with a sample of college students, finding that the mean length of echoic memory was 3.47 seconds. Which of the following statements accurately interprets this value?

A. The most frequent length of time for which the college students remembered visual information was 3.47 seconds.

B. The most frequent length of time for which the college students remembered auditory information was 3.47 seconds.

C. The average length of time for which the college students remembered visual information was 3.47 seconds.

D. The average length of time for which the college students remembered auditory information was 3.47 seconds.

D: Echoic memory refers to the sensory memory for auditory information, and a mean length of 3.47 seconds indicates the average duration for which the college students could recall auditory information.

Dr. Gusdaw conducted a memory experiment that examined the brain regions associated with forming implicit memories. Which of the following would be the best choice for his independent variable?

A. Activation in the frontal lobes

B. Activation in the hippocampus

C. Activation in the cerebellum

D. Activation in the occipital lobes

C: Implicit memory, which includes skills and habits, is strongly associated with the cerebellum, a brain region involved in motor control and coordination. In contrast, the hippocampus is more closely associated with explicit memory (e.g., facts and events), and the frontal and occipital lobes are involved in various cognitive and visual processing functions.

Which of the following is an example of a flashbulb memory?

A. Barry remembers an especially bright sunrise, because he was by the ocean and the sunlight reflected off the water.

B. Roberto remembers that correlation does not prove a cause-effect relationship because his teacher emphasized this fact over and over again.

C. Anna remembers when her father returned from an overseas military deployment, because the day was very emotional for her.

D. Kristof more clearly remembers second grade than third grade because his second-grade teacher has the same name as his neighbor.

C: A flashbulb memory is a vivid, detailed memory of an emotionally significant event. Anna's memory of her father's return, which was an emotionally charged event, exemplifies this type of memory.

While reading about the results of a study on memory, imagine that you read this statement: "After observing hundreds of participants across their lives, researchers found that this type of memory is nearly limitless and lasts, at times, for a lifetime." Which variable is most likely being discussed in this description?

A. Sensory memory

B. Long-term memory

C. Short-term memory

D. Working memory

B: Long-term memory is characterized by its capacity to store a vast amount of information and its potential to last for a lifetime. The description of memory being "nearly limitless" and "lasting, at times, for a lifetime" aligns with the characteristics of long-term memory.

Dr. Pygmal investigates how people group similar concepts together based on their interrelations. What does Dr. Pygmal study?

A. Infantile amnesia

B. Semantic networks

C. Semantic memory

D. Episodic memory

B: Semantic networks involve studying how concepts are organized and interconnected in the brain. Dr. Pygmal's focus on how people group similar concepts based on their interrelations aligns with the study of semantic networks.

Researchers conducted a study in which they first taught 30 new vocabulary words to a group of participants. That evening, the researchers tracked the number of hours the participants slept and the number of new vocabulary words the participants remembered the next day, finding that there was a statistically significant and positive relationship between hours slept and words remembered. Which of the following provides the most accurate interpretation of these results?

A. There is a low likelihood that sleep's effect on memory consolidation was due to chance or error.

B. There is a high likelihood that sleep's effect on semantic network formation was due to chance or error.

C. There is a low likelihood that sleep's effect on episodic memory was due to chance or error.

D. There is a high likelihood that sleep's effect on implicit memory was due to chance or error.

A: The statistically significant and positive relationship between hours of sleep and the number of vocabulary words remembered suggests that sleep has a meaningful effect on memory consolidation, and the likelihood that this effect is due to chance or error is low.

John has noticed that he does better on his chemistry exams when he takes them in the same seat in which he sits during class than when he sits in a different seat for exams. Assuming that John is properly prepared for exams, what psychological concept best explains the difference in his scores?

A. Recall

B. Context-dependent memory

C. Explicit memory

D. The serial position effect

B: Context-dependent memory refers to the improved recall of information when the context or environment during retrieval matches the context or environment during encoding. John's better performance in the same seat during exams as in class suggests that the consistent seating arrangement helps him recall information more effectively.

Which of the following is an example of the serial position effect?

Remembering the most important assignment you have to complete for school tomorrow

A. Remembering the skills you learned early in life, such as walking

B. Remembering the beginning and end of your grocery list but not the C. items in the middle

D. Remembering the names of co-workers whom you met over lunch at your new job

B: The serial position effect is the tendency to better recall items at the beginning (primacy effect) and end (recency effect) of a list, while items in the middle are more likely to be forgotten.

Antonia is testing herself in preparation for her upcoming psychology test. She is aware of the value of the testing effect. Which other retrieval practice strategy is she employing by way of her self-testing?

A. Metacognition

B. Interleaving

C. Mood-congruent

D. Priming

A: Metacognition involves being aware of and understanding one's own learning and memory processes. By testing herself, Antonia is engaging in metacognition because she is actively assessing her own knowledge and understanding, which is a key component of effective retrieval practice.

Gabe has tests next week in his biology and psychology classes, and he knows that mixing his study of the two topics — shifting from biology to psychology and back — is an effective way to improve retention. What's the name of the technique described here?

A. Metacognition

B. Interleaving

C. Mood-congruent

D. Priming

B: Interleaving is a study technique where different topics or types of problems are mixed during study sessions. This approach helps improve retention and understanding by encouraging the brain to make connections between different concepts and apply knowledge more flexibly.

Dani is at a meeting where everyone goes around the table and introduces themselves. By the end, Dani can only remember the names of the last two people who introduced themselves. This is an example of which concept?

A. Framing

B. Mental set

C. Recency effect

D. Primacy effect

C: The recency effect is the tendency to better remember the most recent items in a list or sequence. Dani's ability to recall the names of the last two people who introduced themselves is an example of this effect.

Which of the following involves accessing memory through recognition?

A. An oral presentation

B. An essay question

C. A fill-in-the-blank question

D. A multiple choice question

D: Recognition involves identifying information from a set of options, such as in a multiple choice question where you select the correct answer from several choices. In contrast, an essay question and a fill-in-the-blank question typically require recall, which involves retrieving information without explicit cues.

Which of the following is an example of anterograde amnesia?

A. Halle can remember her new locker combination but not her old one.

B. William has lost his memory of the 2 weeks before he had surgery to remove a benign brain tumor.

C. Louis can remember his past but nothing since experiencing a brain infection 4 years ago.

D. Maddie can't remember the details of when she was mugged 6 months ago.

C: Anterograde amnesia involves difficulty forming new memories after the onset of the condition. Louis's inability to remember anything since the brain infection while retaining past memories is characteristic of anterograde amnesia.

The cafeteria at Muhammad's school is a large room with nine free-standing pillars that support the roof. Muhammad has been in his school cafeteria hundreds of times. One day, Muhammad's teacher asks him how many pillars there are in the cafeteria. Muhammad has difficulty answering the question, but he finally replies that he thinks there are six pillars. What memory concept does this example illustrate?

A. Storage decay

B. Proactive interference

C. Retroactive interference

D. Encoding failure

D: Encoding failure occurs when information is not properly encoded into long-term memory, making it difficult to recall later. In this case, Muhammad's difficulty in recalling the correct number of pillars, despite being in the cafeteria many times, suggests that the information about the number of pillars was not effectively encoded into his memory.

4o mini

Suzanne gets a new phone number. Each time she tries to give someone the new number, she gives her old one instead. The fact that her old number is causing difficulty in her remembering of the new one is an example of

A. retroactive interference.

B. retrograde amnesia.

C. proactive interference.

D. anterograde amnesia.

C: Proactive interference occurs when old information interferes with the ability to recall new information. In Suzanne's case, her old phone number is interfering with her ability to remember and provide her new phone number.

Regarding therapist-guided "recovered" memories of sexual abuse in infancy, which statement best represents an appropriate conclusion about this issue?

A. Therapists who use hypnosis are likely to help their patients retrieve repressed memories.

B. Statistics indicate that childhood sexual abuse rarely occurs; therefore, recovered memories of such abuse are likely false.

C. Memories are only rarely recovered. Once you are unable to retrieve a memory, you will probably never be able to retrieve it.

D. Since the brain is not sufficiently mature to store accurate memories of events before the age of 4, memories from the first 4 years of life are not reliable.

D: Research suggests that very young children, particularly those under the age of 4, have limited capacity for forming accurate and reliable memories. Memories from this early period are often unreliable, and the brain's ability to accurately store and recall events from infancy is generally considered to be very limited.

4o mini

Gabrielle has a high capacity to learn, to think, and to adapt, allowing her to function effectively in her environment. What concept is illustrated here?

A. Grit

B. Savant syndrome

C. Intelligence

D. Emotional intelligence

C: Intelligence refers to the ability to learn, think, and adapt effectively in various situations. Gabrielle's capacity to learn, think, and function well in her environment exemplifies the concept of intelligence.

Dr. Tsai created an intelligence test based on Sternberg's theory that asks a person to come up with solutions for arranging bowls and dishes in a small cabinet. Which type of intelligence is Dr. Tsai most likely testing?

A. Crystallized

B. Analytical

C. Creative

D. Practical

D: Dr. Tsai's test, which involves coming up with solutions for arranging bowls and dishes in a small cabinet, assesses practical intelligence. This type of intelligence, according to Sternberg's theory, involves the ability to solve real-world problems and adapt to everyday challenges effectively.

Brayden believes there are two forms of intelligence—(1) the ability to reason accurately and (2) one's learned knowledge. Which theory best aligns with Brayden's view?

A. Spearman's theory

B. Gardner's theory of multiple intelligences

C. Sternberg's triarchic theory

D. Cattell-Horn-Carroll theory

D: The Cattell-Horn-Carroll (CHC) theory of intelligence distinguishes between different types of intelligence, including fluid intelligence (the ability to reason accurately) and crystallized intelligence (one's learned knowledge). Brayden's view aligns with this theory, which categorizes intelligence into these distinct forms.

Which of the following statements accurately contrasts Spearman's theory of intelligence with the Cattell-Horn-Carroll theory of intelligence?

A. Spearman's theory proposes eight different types of intelligence, while Cattell-Horn-Carroll theory proposes two types of intelligence.

B. Spearman's theory proposes that a single general intelligence exists, while Cattell-Horn-Carroll theory proposes two additional broad forms of intelligence.

C. Spearman's theory proposes eight distinct types of intelligence, while Cattell-Horn-Carroll theory proposes two broad forms of intelligence.

D. Spearman's theory proposes that a single general intelligence exists, while Cattell-Horn-Carroll theory proposes that emotional intelligence exists.

B: Spearman's theory is known for its concept of a single general intelligence factor, often referred to as "g." In contrast, the Cattell-Horn-Carroll theory expands on this by including multiple broad forms of intelligence, such as fluid and crystallized intelligence.

Marcus solves reasoning problems quickly. What form of intelligence is he most strongly demonstrating?

A. Fluid intelligence

B. Emotional intelligence

C. Crystallized intelligence

D. Creative intelligence

A: Fluid intelligence involves the capacity to reason quickly and solve novel problems, often without relying on previously acquired knowledge. Marcus's ability to solve reasoning problems quickly is an example of fluid intelligence.

Test developers often define uniform testing procedures and meaningful scores by comparing individuals' scores with the performance of a pretested group. Which of the following best describes this process?

A. Reliability testing

B. Validation

C. Content validation

D. Standardization

D: Standardization involves defining uniform testing procedures and meaningful scores by comparing individuals' scores with those of a pretested group. This process ensures that the test scores are consistent and meaningful across different individuals and contexts.

Which of the following is the best example of an aptitude test?

A. Atul answers questions about safe driving.

B. Mr. Anderson's AP® psychology test covers the material from the current unit.

C. Sherjeel takes the ACT to gain college admission.

D. Jeffrey is required to translate 50 Mandarin sentences for his final exam.

C: Aptitude tests are designed to measure an individual's potential to develop skills or perform in specific areas. The ACT (American College Testing) is an example of an aptitude test as it assesses general academic abilities and potential for college success.

Dr. Asimov's new intelligence test yields consistent results upon retesting, so it has a high degree of

A. reliability.

B. standardization.

C. construct validity.

D. predictive validity.

A: Reliability refers to the consistency of a test's results over time. If Dr. Asimov's intelligence test yields consistent results upon retesting, it indicates that the test has a high degree of reliability.

Mr. Gaiman shows his class the visual and statistical representation of the distribution of scores around the mean on an intelligence test. What did Mr. Gaiman show his class?

A. The test's reliability

B. The test's predictive validity

C. A test-retest procedure

D. The normal curve

D: The normal curve, or bell curve, is a visual and statistical representation of the distribution of scores around the mean, showing how scores are spread out in a normal distribution.

Ms. Skipworth gave her algebra class a quiz on some of the material they learned last week. What type of test did Ms. Skipworth give?

A. Intelligence test

B. Aptitude test

C. Achievement test

D. Psychometric test

C: An achievement test measures knowledge or skills in a specific subject area that has been learned over a certain period. Ms. Skipworth's quiz on material learned in the past week is an example of an achievement test.

The SAT has a +.82 correlation with general intelligence test scores. Based on this information, which statement is most accurate?

A. As SAT scores increase, so do general intelligence test scores.

B. As SAT scores decrease, general intelligence scores increase.

C. The relationship between SAT scores and general intelligence is positive but small.

D. There is no discernible relationship between SAT scores and general intelligence.

A: A correlation of +.82 indicates a strong positive relationship between SAT scores and general intelligence test scores. This means that as SAT scores increase, general intelligence test scores also tend to increase.

To assess the reliability of his Spanish test, Mr. Russell gives his classes the test, then gives them the same test a week later. Which technique is Mr. Russell using?

A. Split-half

B. Flynn effect

C. Test-retest

D. Standardization

C: The test-retest method involves administering the same test to the same group of people on two different occasions and comparing the results to assess the reliability of the test.

To accurately define the Flynn effect, which of the following should Declan say in his presentation?

A. A bell-shaped curve depicts the distribution of intelligence.

B. There is a rise in intelligence test performance over time and across cultures.

C. Uniform testing procedures should be used for all intelligence tests.

D. Tests are intended to predict what one will be able to achieve over time.

B: The Flynn effect refers to the observed increase in intelligence test scores over time across different cultures and populations.

Which of the following best represents the relationship between crystallized intelligence and age?

A. Jake can solve brain teasers quickly, although his parents can solve them even more quickly.

B. Grandpa Milt is better than his grandson Artie at crossword puzzles and trivia games.

C. Aliyah has a knack for training dogs, which she learned from her mother.

D. Heng writes more creative computer programs than their grandmother does.

B: Crystallized intelligence involves the use of knowledge and skills accumulated over time, and it tends to remain stable or even improve with age. Grandpa Milt's superior performance in crossword puzzles and trivia games compared to his younger grandson Artie reflects the effects of crystallized intelligence, which often benefits from lifelong learning and experience.

Hal scored an 89 on an intelligence test when he was 16. Now, at age 56, he is interested in knowing what his score would be as an adult. The score he is most likely to earn on the new test would be

A. 49.

B. 70.

C. 92.

D. 129.

C: Intelligence test scores generally remain relatively stable over time. While there can be some fluctuation, most adults' scores do not vary drastically from their adolescent scores. Given that Hal scored an 89 at age 16, it is reasonable to expect that his score as an adult would be close to this number, so a score of 92 is a plausible estimate.

Choose which concept is described in the following statement: "Fifty percent to 80 percent of the variation in intelligence test scores in a group can be explained by genetic variation."

A. Fixed mindset

B. Fluid intelligence

C. Heritability

D. Polygenetic effects

C: Heritability refers to the proportion of variation in a trait, such as intelligence test scores, that can be attributed to genetic differences among individuals within a group. The statement indicates that genetic variation accounts for a significant portion of the differences in intelligence test scores.

There is a greater correlation between the IQ scores of identical twins raised together than for fraternal twins raised together. What conclusion can be drawn from this finding?

A. There is no significant hereditary contribution to intelligence.

B. There is no significant environmental contribution to intelligence.

C. There is a genetic effect on intelligence.

D. There is an environmental effect on intelligence.

C: The greater correlation between the IQ scores of identical twins raised together compared to fraternal twins raised together suggests that genetic factors have a significant influence on intelligence. Identical twins share more genetic material than fraternal twins, so their more similar IQ scores indicate a genetic contribution to intelligence.

Which of the following is true of the mental similarities between adoptive children and their adoptive parents over time?

A. Adoptive children become much more similar to their adoptive parents over time.

B. Adoptive children become slightly more similar to their adoptive parents over time.

C. There is hardly any similarity when the adoptive children are young or when they are older.

D. Adoptive children become less similar to their adoptive parents over time.

B: Research suggests that while adoptive children may show some resemblance to their adoptive parents due to shared environment and experiences, the degree of similarity in intelligence and other traits tends to be modest. Over time, the influence of the shared environment can lead to a slight increase in similarity, but genetic factors still play a significant role in determining these traits.

Which of the following statements provides the most logical and objective conclusion regarding gender and mental abilities?

A. On average, boys have high intelligence test scores but low mathematics achievement test scores.

B. Boys are better at detecting emotions than are girls.

C. On average, boys are more verbally fluent than are girls, but they tend to express more interest in mathematics careers.

D. Boys are more likely to be represented among those scoring extremely low and those scoring extremely high on tests of mental abilities.

D: Research suggests that there are small average differences in specific cognitive abilities between genders, but the variability within each gender is quite large. Consequently, boys are more likely to be found at both the high and low ends of the distribution for cognitive abilities.

Which of the following best supports the conclusion that race is more of a social construct than a biological category?

A. People of varying ancestry may categorize themselves as having the same race.

B. Scores on tests of mental abilities vary by race.

C. Stereotype threat negatively impacts attention when someone worries about their racial group's performance on a task.

D. Cultural experiences affect mental ability test results regardless of one's racial group membership.

A: This statement highlights the social aspect of racial classification. The concept of race is more fluid and socially constructed than strictly biological, as individuals with different ancestries can identify with the same racial category. This reflects the idea that race is often defined by social and cultural factors rather than purely biological differences.

Dr. Xiao wants his personality test to predict future behaviors similarly for all test takers. What should Dr. Xiao examine?

A. Stereotype threat

B. Stereotype lift

C. Test bias

D. Test fairness

C: Dr. Xiao should examine test bias to ensure that the personality test predicts future behaviors consistently across different groups of test takers. Test bias occurs when a test unfairly favors certain groups over others, leading to inaccurate predictions or assessments for some individuals.

4o mini

Dr. Yolay wants to conduct a study on how the demographic characteristics of a test administrator impact the performance on an intelligence test among a group of 8-year-old girls. After the girls draw either the number 1 or the number 2 from a hat, she assigns the girls to either (1) take the test with a man as the test administrator or (2) take the test with a woman as the test administrator.

In this scenario, what is the dependent variable?

A. A group of 8-year-old girls

B. Demographic characteristics of the test administrator

C. Intelligence test performance

D. Test administration

C: The dependent variable in this study is the outcome that Dr. Yolay is measuring to assess the impact of the independent variable (the demographic characteristics of the test administrator). In this case, it is the performance of the 8-year-old girls on the intelligence test.

Dr. Yolay wants to conduct a study on how the demographic characteristics of a test administrator impact the performance on an intelligence test among a group of 8-year-old girls. After the girls draw either the number 1 or the number 2 from a hat, she assigns the girls to either (1) take the test with a man as the test administrator or (2) take the test with a woman as the test administrator.

Based on past research discussed in this unit, what logical and objective result might you expect from this research?

A. The girls in group 1 perform better, on average, compared to the girls in group 2.

B. The girls in group 2 perform better, on average, compared to the girls in group 1.

C. The girls in group 1 perform better on the first half of the test, while the girls in group 2 perform better on the second half of the test.

D. The girls in group 2 perform better on the first half of the test, while the girls in group 1 pe

B: Past research has shown that test performance can be influenced by the demographic characteristics of the test administrator. In many studies, individuals may perform better when tested by an administrator with whom they feel more comfortable or who is perceived to have similar attributes. For example, girls might perform better when tested by a woman, particularly if the study finds that girls feel more comfortable or supported by female administrators.

Dr. Yolay wants to conduct a study on how the demographic characteristics of a test administrator impact the performance on an intelligence test among a group of 8-year-old girls. After the girls draw either the number 1 or the number 2 from a hat, she assigns the girls to either (1) take the test with a man as the test administrator or (2) take the test with a woman as the test administrator.

Dr. Yolay determined that the gender of the test administrator caused the performance of the girls to differ. What technique did Dr. Yolay employ to be able to make this assertion?

A. Random assignment

B. Random selection

C. Experimental control

D. Operational definitions

A: Dr. Yolay used random assignment to ensure that the girls were equally likely to be assigned to either the male or female test administrator group. This technique helps control for potential confounding variables and allows for the determination that any differences in performance are likely due to the gender of the test administrator rather than other factors.

Which of the following phrases accurately describes top-down processing?

A. The entry-level data captured by our various sensory systems

B. The effect that our experiences and expectations have on perception

C. Our tendency to scan a visual field from top to bottom

D. Our ability to detect letters of a word before we know what the word is

B: Top-down processing refers to the way our perceptions are influenced by our prior knowledge, experiences, and expectations. This cognitive process helps us interpret and make sense of sensory information based on our existing mental frameworks.

Which of the following describes a perception process that the Gestalt psychologists would have been interested in?

A. Depth perception and how it allows us to survive in the world

B. How an organized whole is formed out of its component pieces

C. What the smallest units of perception are

D. The similarities between shape constancy and size constancy

B: Gestalt psychologists focused on how we perceive objects as whole entities rather than just a collection of individual parts. They were interested in understanding how the mind organizes and interprets sensory information to form a coherent and unified perception.

As you look down the road, the lines of the road seem to come together in the distance, even though you know they do not. Which depth cue explains this phenomenon?

A. Texture gradient

B. Interposition

C. Light and shadow

D. Linear perspective

D: Linear perspective is a depth cue that creates the illusion of convergence or coming together of parallel lines as they recede into the distance. This cue helps us perceive depth and distance by showing how parallel lines appear to meet at a single point on the horizon.

Due to an eye infection, Gladys has to wear a patch over her left eye. As a result, she finds that her depth perception is impaired. What best explains this impairment?

A. Gladys has lost her binocular depth cues.

B. Gladys no longer experiences perceptual constancy.

C. Gladys no longer experiences perceptual adaptation.

D. Gladys has lost her monocular depth cues.

A: Binocular depth cues require the use of both eyes to perceive depth and distance accurately. When Gladys covers one eye, she loses these cues, such as stereopsis (the ability to perceive depth from the slightly different views of each eye). This impairment affects her ability to judge distances and depth.

The experience of a smooth picture at a movie theater, even though the actual film is made up thousands of separate pictures, is due to

A. the phi phenomenon.

B. stroboscopic movement.

C. relative motion.

D. the illusory effect.

B: Stroboscopic movement refers to the illusion of smooth motion created by a series of rapidly presented still images, as seen in movies or animation. The brain perceives these rapidly changing images as continuous motion due to the persistence of vision.

Which of the following represents perceptual constancy?

A. We recognize the taste of McDonald's food each time we eat it.

B. In photos of people, the people almost always are perceived as the figure and everything else as the ground.

C. We know that the color of a printed page has not changed as it moves from sunlight into shadow.

D. The cold water in a lake doesn't seem so cold after you have been swimming in it for a few minutes.

C: Perceptual constancy refers to the ability to perceive an object as having a constant color, shape, size, or brightness despite changes in lighting or viewing conditions. In this case, recognizing that the color of the printed page remains the same despite changes in lighting is an example of color constancy, which is a type of perceptual constancy.

When asked to think of a "desk," many students think of the desks in their classroom rather than a large desk used by an executive. This scenario best illustrates

A. a prototype.

B. metacognition.

C. convergent thinking.

D. functional fixedness.

A: In this scenario, students are likely thinking of the "desk" that best represents the typical or most common example of what a desk is—essentially, the prototype of a desk. Prototypes are mental representations or examples that are most typical or representative of a category.

Dr. Hansel studies the cognitive frameworks that help us organize and interpret new information in memory. These frameworks are referred to as

A. prototypes.

B. heuristics.

C. schemas.

D. intuition.

C: Schemas are cognitive frameworks or structures that help us organize and interpret information. They allow us to understand and make sense of new information based on our existing knowledge and experiences.

Which of the following illustrates a heuristic?

A. Calculating the area of a rectangle by multiplying the length times the width

B. Using three dramatic news reports of corporate fraud to estimate how often business fraud occurs

C. Following a new recipe to bake a cake for your friend

D. Trying every key on your mom's key ring until you find the one that unlocks the seldom-used storeroom in the basement

B: This example illustrates a heuristic because it involves using a mental shortcut or rule of thumb (in this case, relying on a few vivid examples) to make a judgment or estimate about the frequency of a broader phenomenon.

Alice significantly underestimated how long it would take to write her term paper, because she was sure it would be very easy for her. Alice was exhibiting

A. belief perseverance.

B. intuition.

C. the availability heuristic.

D. overconfidence.

D: Alice's underestimation of how long it would take to write her term paper, based on her belief that it would be easy, illustrates overconfidence. Overconfidence occurs when someone overestimates their own abilities or the accuracy of their predictions.

People are more concerned about a medical procedure when told it has a 10 percent death rate than they are when told it has a 90 percent survival rate. Which psychological concept explains this difference in concern?

A. Belief perseverance

B. Priming

C. Framing

D. Confirmation bias

C: Framing refers to how information is presented and the impact this presentation has on perception and decision-making. In this case, the procedure being described with a "10 percent death rate" versus a "90 percent survival rate" illustrates how different framings of the same information can influence concern and perception.

Which of the following cognitive strategies is most useful for creativity?

A. Convergent thinking

B. Divergent thinking

C. Heuristics

D. Algorithms

B: Divergent thinking involves generating multiple, unique solutions to a problem and is closely associated with creativity. It contrasts with convergent thinking, which focuses on finding a single, best solution to a problem.

Which of the following best describes long-term potentiation (LTP)?

A. Constructed memories have the potential to be either accurate or inaccurate.

B. These synaptic changes allow for more efficient transfer of information.

C. Implicit memories are processed by the cerebellum instead of by the hippocampus.

D. Information is transferred from working memory to long-term memory.

B: Long-term potentiation (LTP) refers to the long-lasting strengthening of synapses based on recent patterns of activity. It enhances the efficiency of synaptic transmission, which is thought to be a crucial mechanism underlying learning and memory formation.

Which of the following is an example of an implicit memory?

A. Knowing how to tie your shoe

B. The details of an assignment that is due tomorrow

C. Vividly recalling significant events, such as the death of a famous person

D. The names of all U.S. state capitals

A: Implicit memory refers to non-conscious memories that influence our behavior and skills without our explicit awareness. Knowing how to tie your shoe is an example of procedural memory, a type of implicit memory that involves skills and habits.

Ms. Pina accurately told her class that the "magical number seven, plus or minus two" refers to

A. the ideal number of times to rehearse information in the first encoding session.

B. the number of seconds information stays in short-term memory without rehearsal.

C. the capacity of short-term memory.

D. the number of seconds information stays in echoic storage.

C: The "magical number seven, plus or minus two" refers to the limited capacity of short-term memory, which is typically able to hold about 7 (±2) pieces of information at one time.

When we provide our phone number to another person, we usually pause after the area code and again after the next three numbers. This pattern underscores the importance of which memory principle?

A. Chunking

B. The serial position effect

C. Semantic encoding

D. Auditory encoding

A: Chunking refers to the process of organizing information into manageable and meaningful units or "chunks," which helps improve memory retention. In this case, breaking the phone number into chunks (area code, first three digits, and last four digits) makes it easier to remember and recall.

Lewis really wants to do well on his psychology exam. Which strategy should he use to maximize his chances of successfully retrieving the information he will need for the exam?

A. Iconic memory

B. Distributed practice

C. Automatic processing

D. Massed practice

B: Distributed practice, also known as spaced repetition, involves spreading out study sessions over time. This method is more effective for long-term retention and retrieval of information compared to cramming (massed practice), which involves studying intensively in a short period.

Dr. Jarvis conducted a memory study. Which of his findings replicates the findings from past research?

A. The amygdala helps process memories of happy experiences.

B. The amygdala produces long-term potentiation in the brain.

C. The amygdala enhances memory of events that trigger strong emotional responses.

D. The amygdala is active when the retrieval of a long-term memory is primed.

C: Past research consistently shows that the amygdala plays a significant role in processing emotions and enhancing the memory of emotionally charged events. This aligns with the finding that the amygdala enhances memory for events with strong emotional responses.

You are more likely to remember happy memories when you are presently happy than when you are sad due to

A. mood congruence.

B. iconic memory.

C. proactive interference.

D. retroactive interference.

A: Mood congruence refers to the tendency to recall memories that are consistent with one's current mood. When you are happy, you are more likely to remember positive, happy memories, and when you are sad, you are more likely to recall negative memories.

Which of the following illustrates the serial position effect?

A. Kimia has trouble remembering information from the book's first unit when she reviews for semester finals.

B. It's easy for Brittney to remember that carbon's atomic number is 6 because her birthday is on December 6.

C. Kyle was not able to remember the names of all of his new co-workers after one week on the job, but he could remember them after two weeks.

D. Alp is unable to remember the middle of a list of vocabulary words as well as he remembers the first or last words on the list.

D: The serial position effect refers to the tendency to recall the first (primacy effect) and last (recency effect) items in a list better than those in the middle.

Mave got a new car with the license plate "MAVNUM1." She is asked by the school parking clerk what her number is but can only remember her old one, "VANMOM1." Her inability to remember her new plate is most likely due to

A. retroactive interference.

B. proactive interference.

C. anterograde amnesia.

D. retrograde amnesia.

B: Proactive interference occurs when old memories interfere with the recall of newer information. In this case, Mave's old license plate is interfering with her ability to remember her new one.

Which of the following is an example of source amnesia?

A. Iva can't remember the details of a horrifying event because she has repressed them.

B. Mary has entirely forgotten about an incident in grade school until her friend reminds her of the event.

C. Michael can't remember this year's locker combination because he confuses it with last year's combination.

D. Stephen misremembers a dream as something that really happened.

D: Source amnesia involves forgetting the origin of a memory or confusing the source of the memory. In this example, Stephen mistakenly believes that a dream actually occurred, which is a case of source amnesia.

Stephanie received a score on an intelligence test that was much lower than average, though she is exceptional at performing complex calculations. Stephanie might be characterized as having

A. practical intelligence.

B. savant syndrome.

C. advanced mental age.

D. intelligence heritability.

B: Savant syndrome is characterized by exceptional abilities in a specific area (such as complex calculations) despite having an overall low score on intelligence tests.

If Lanie is able to tell when her husband is upset by noticing subtle changes in his facial expressions, she might be said to have a high degree of

A. emotional intelligence.

B. naturalistic intelligence.

C. practical intelligence.

D. spatial intelligence.

A: Emotional intelligence involves the ability to recognize and understand others' emotions, including subtle cues like changes in facial expressions.

How should Dr. Corvus accurately explain the difference between achievement and aptitude tests?

A. Achievement tests measure verbal performance, while aptitude tests measure spatial performance.

B. Achievement tests are designed to measure elementary school skills, while aptitude tests are designed to measure secondary school skills.

C. Achievement tests are intended to reflect what you have learned, while aptitude tests are intended to predict what you will be able to learn.

D. Achievement tests measure general intelligence, while aptitude tests measure multiple intelligences.

C: Achievement tests assess knowledge and skills acquired, while aptitude tests evaluate potential or ability to learn new skills.

After creating his intelligence test, Alfred Binet might say, "I wanted to..."

A. predict how children would do in school.

B. identify differences among ethnic and racial groups.

C. help French graduates find the occupation in which they were most likely to succeed.

D. establish the scientific definition of intelligence.

A: Alfred Binet developed his intelligence test to identify children who needed additional support in school, aiming to predict their academic performance and help tailor educational interventions.

Historically, intelligence tests were sometimes used inappropriately to discriminate against specific groups. This is best illustrated by

A. the Flynn effect.

B. the eugenics movement.

C. the Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale.

D. test standardization.

B: The eugenics movement used intelligence tests to justify discrimination and support harmful policies aimed at certain groups based on the belief that intelligence was inherited and varied significantly among different racial and ethnic groups.

If Aleister wanted to calculate a child's intelligence quotient using the original formula, he should compare a child's

A. mental age to their chronological age.

B. intelligence to their siblings' intelligence.

C. intelligence to their parents' intelligence.

D. math intelligence to their verbal intelligence.

A:

If Zowie writes a biography of the creator of the most widely used modern intelligence test, who should she write about?

A. Alfred Binet

B. Robert Sternberg

C. David Wechsler

D. Howard Gardner

C: David Wechsler created the Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale (WAIS) and the Wechsler Intelligence Scale for Children (WISC), which are among the most widely used modern intelligence tests.

How might Dr. Duffy explain to his psychology class the purpose of standardizing an intelligence test?

A. To counter rising intelligence test scores

B. To measure the extent to which the test actually predicts what it promises

C. To provide a basis for comparing scores against a pretested group

D. To determine if the test yields dependably consistent results

C: Standardization ensures that test scores can be meaningfully compared by establishing norms based on the performance of a pretested group.

Dr. Pag accurately describes the Flynn effect as the

A. extreme scores (very high and very low) that are more common for males than for females on math tests.

B. stereotype threat that might cause some students to underperform on standardized tests.

C. predictive ability of intelligence tests.

D. gradual increase in average intelligence score of the general population over the last several decades.

D: The Flynn effect refers to the observed rise in average IQ scores over time across different populations.

What would be true of a thermometer that always reads three degrees lower than the actual temperature?

A. It is valid but not reliable.

B. It is both reliable and valid.

C. It is neither reliable nor valid.

D. It is reliable but not valid.

D: A thermometer that consistently reads three degrees lower than the actual temperature is reliable because it gives consistent measurements. However, it is not valid because it does not measure the actual temperature accurately.

Students who do well on college entrance exams generally do well in their first year of college. This helps establish that these exams have

A. predictive validity.

B. construct validity.

C. content validity.

D. test-retest reliability.

A: Predictive validity refers to how well a test predicts future performance. Since college entrance exams are effective at predicting students' success in their first year of college, this demonstrates their predictive validity.

Yenni studies intelligence. What is he most likely to find regarding crystallized intelligence?

A. It increases as we age.

B. It decreases as we age.

C. It is higher in girls than in boys.

D. It is higher in boys than in girls.

A: Crystallized intelligence, which refers to the accumulated knowledge and verbal skills gained through experience, tends to increase with age as people continue to learn and accumulate knowledge over their lifetime.

If a researcher is interested in exploring the heritability of intelligence, she is most likely going to study

A. the extent to which a person's intelligence is caused by genetics.

B. the effect of adoption on the intelligence of adopted children.

C. the amount of group variation in intelligence that can be attributed to genetics.

D. the extent to which the quality of schools and other environmental factors determine intelligence.

C: Heritability refers to the proportion of variation in intelligence within a population that is due to genetic differences among individuals. Researchers studying heritability often look at how much of the variation in intelligence can be explained by genetic factors.

To summarize the studies investigating the impact of genes on intelligence, Greg should say that

A. intelligence is affected by many genes working together.

B. there is a gene that is involved in the intelligence of men but not women.

C. there is a gene that is involved in the intelligence of women but not men.

D. there is no evidence that genes play a role in intelligence.

A: Current research indicates that intelligence is influenced by multiple genes interacting with each other and with environmental factors, rather than being determined by a single gene.

Destini is asked to indicate her sex before taking a complex math test. Having been told that girls aren't as good at math as boys, she enters the test with self-doubts that ultimately impair her performance.

Destini is experiencing

A. bottom-up processing.

B. the Flynn effect.

C. stereotype threat.

D. confirmation bias.

C: Stereotype threat occurs when individuals are aware of a negative stereotype about their group and fear confirming it, which can adversely affect their performance.

Destini is asked to indicate her sex before taking a complex math test. Having been told that girls aren't as good at math as boys, she enters the test with self-doubts that ultimately impair her performance.

Which of the following conclusions would be most appropriate?

A. There is not enough information presented to determine if the test itself is biased in any way.

B. The test Destini is taking is culturally fair.

C. The test Destini is taking lacks predictive validity.

D. The test Destini is taking has predictive validity.

A: The information provided focuses on the impact of stereotype threat on Destini's performance, but it does not address the fairness or bias of the test itself.