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True or false: Natural hazards are always damaging and never beneficial.
false
How are the magnitude and frequency of natural hazard events typically related?
a) unrelated
b) inversely related
c) directly related
d) correlated
inversely related
Why is history important in understanding natural hazards?
a) the history of natural hazards is always interesting
b) Typically a natural hazard will not recur, so the history of a natural hazard reveals where it won’t happen
c) Most natural hazards are repetitve events
d) Most natural hazards are low magnitude, high frequency events.
most natural hazards are repetitive events
True or false: Volcanic eruptions are one of the few natural hazards that have no benefits to humans
false
Why might global climate change impact the magnitude and frequency of hazardous events?
A) Climate change may cause the acceptable risk of a natural hazard to increase.
B) Many hazardous natural events are controlled in part by the amount of water in the system.
C) Climate change will likely increase the likelihood of earthquakes.
D) Climate change is directly related to land use planning efforts.
b) many hazardous natural events are controlled in part by the amount of water in the system
true or false: population increase is important because it buffers the impacts of hazardous events
false
true or false: hazardous processes can become catastrophes because of population increase
true
true or false: Changes in land-use patterns alter the effects of natural hazards
true
To be considered a natural disaster, which of the following must have occured? (Select more than one answer)
a) 1000 or more people impacted
b) declaration of emergency is issued
c) 10 or more people killed
All of these
natural hazards are not always harmful. What are some ways they can have beneficial outcomes? Select more than one correct answer.
A) supplies nutrients to the soils
b) flushes away pollutants
C) creates new land
d) movement of sand along beaches
supplies new nutrients to soil
flushes away pollutants
creates new land
How is the risk of a particular event defined?
A) Risk is the probability of occurence of an event multiplied by its consequences
B) Risk is the amount of land that will be affected by a hazardous event.
C) Risk is the level of consequences of a false prediction
D) Risk is the number of people that will be killed if an event occurs.
Risk is the probablity of occurence of an event multiplied by its consequences
How does a catastrophe differ from a disaster?
A) a disaster is typically much worse than a catastrophe
b) damages from a catastrophe are of such magnitude to require a long recovery period
c) a disaster occurs across a much greater geographic area than does a catastrophe
d) a catastrophe involves loss of life, while a disaster does not
damages from a catastrophe are of such magnitude to require a long recovery period
Why are hazard warnings sometimes problematic?
a) the probability of natural hazards is so low that warnings are irrelevant
b) warnings are occasionally inaccurate
c) people do not want to hear bad news
d) people do not believe scientists
warnings are occasionally inaccurate
Why are precursor events important?
A) precursor events provide warning that a hazardous process is becoming active
B) Precursor events define the history of a hazardous process.
C) Precursor events help to define the magnitude and frequency of an event.
D) Precursor events reveal linkages between hazards.
Precursor events provide warning that a hazardous process is becoming active
To what does the concept of acceptable risk refer?
a) the risk that society or individuals are willing to endure
b) the fact that society always have risks
c) the risk that is inherent in predicting natural hazards
d) the risk that a prediction of an event is likely to be inaccurate
the risk that society or individuals are willing to endure?
What is the difference between a reactive response and an anticipatory response?
A) A reactive response has to do with recovery, while an anticipatory response has to do with preparedness.
B) An anticipatory response is typically stronger than a reactive response.
C) A reactive response has much less value to society than an anticipatory response.
D) A reactive response is typically stronger than an anticipatory response.
A reactive response has to do with recovery, while an anticipatory response has to do with preparedness.
true or false: Land use planning is an important anticipatory response to natural hazards.
true
true or false: A prediction of a hazardous event has greater uncertainty than does a forecast.
false
true or false: Shale is a strong rock type on which to build structures.
False
Why is land use planning typically more effective than artificial control of natural hazards?
A) Artificial controls usually increase the probability that a hazardous event will occur.
B) Land use planning is an accepted societal tool for hazards, while artificial control is not.
C) Most hazardous natural processes are not amenable to artificial control.
D) Land use planning often reduces the probability that a hazardous event will occur.
Most hazardous natural processes are not amenable to artificial control.
Hurricane Katrina did not hit New Orleans directly. What were some of the reasons that New Orleans suffered devastating flooding? (select more than one correct answer)
failure to forecast rain amount
levee failure
regional subsidence
compaction and sinking of wetlands
sea level rise
all of these
The epicenter of an earthquake is the point of rupture along the fault.
True or false
False
true or false: Shake maps are used to predict where shaking is likely to occur in a future earthquake
false
How does earthquake magnitude differ from intensity?
The two terms are synonymous, referring simply to the size of an earthquake.
Magnitude reflects energy release, while intensity reflects the amount of shaking.
Magnitude is a result of the amount of shaking, which is determined by intensity.
Intensity reflects energy release, while magnitude reflects the amount of shaking.
Magnitude reflects energy release, while intensity reflects the amount of shaking
True or false
the depth of the focus/hypocenter is an important factor in determining the intensity
True
True or false
P-waves travel faster than surface waves
True
A strike slip fault has what type of motion?
A) horizontal
B) rapid
C) vertical
d) slow
horizontal
Surface waves are produced when
A) faults rupture the Earth’s surface
B) the absorption of S-waves by a liquid medium
C) P and S waves reach the surface and travel along the surface
D) the reverberating effects of buildings shaking in response to high frequency P-waves
P and S waves reach the surface and travel along the surface
the major goal of the U.S. earthquake hazard reduction program is to
A) reduce earthquake hazards through understanding of risks and prediction of hazards
B) develop an earthquake warning system for southern california
c) determine the roots of human perceptions of earthquakes
d) federally enforce seismic building codes in active areas
reduce earthquake hazards through understanding of risks and prediction of hazards
Tsunamis are generated by
A) rupture of faults on land
B) earthquake waves shaking the ocean floor
c) tides in the pacific ocean
D) vertical displacement of ocean water
vertical displacement of ocean water
What are some of the things being monitored in an attempt to predict short-term earthquake occurrence? Select more than one correct answer.
Show answer choices
deformation of ground surface
frequency and distribution pattern of foreshocks
seismic gaps along faults
helium gas emissions
abnormal animal behavior
all except helium gas emissions
What are some secondary and tertiary effects of earthquakes? Select more than one correct answer.
ground shaking
liquefaction
tsunamis
landslides
diseases
all except ground shaking
true or false: Tsunamis can cause damage thousands of miles from their source
True
True or false: Tsunamis are only a hazards near their source
False
ground rupture occurs during an earthquake when
A) saturated sediments are liquefied
B) a near surface fault breaks the surface
C) buildings pull away from their foundations
D) California falls into the ocean
a near-surface fault breaks the surface
true or false: Tectonic creep is the major cause of earthquakes in coastal California
False
Which of the following are behaviors of seismic energy as it travels through the interior of the earth? select more than one correct answer
Show answer choices
intensity of shaking increases in the direction of the fault rupture
all waves travel faster through denser rock than less dense rock
the amplitude of seismic waves decreases in unconsolidated sediments
seismic energy is increased as it travels through unconsolidated sediments
seismic energy is attenuated as it travels through unconsolidated sediments
At which tectonic boundaries can earthquakes occur?
Transform boundaries
Divergent boundaries'
Convergent boundaries
On what basis are Mercalli intensity values assigned to locations?
Show answer choices
perceptions of the amount of shaking and structural response to the shaking
interpretation of seismograms
interpretation of the length of fault rupture
proximity to the epicenter of the earthquake
perceptions of the amount of shaking and structural response to the shaking
Which of the following are types of volcanos? Select more than one correct answer.
Show answer choices
lava cones
strato- or composite volcanos
Kilauea
Mt. St. Helens
cinder cones
shield volcanos
strato or composite volcanos
cinder cones
shield volcanos
Why are most active volcanoes associated with plate tectonic boundaries? Select more than one correct answer.
Show answer choices
decompression melting at divergent boundaries causes volcanic activity
at transform boundaries magma generation causes volcanic activity
the addition of heat and volatiles at subduction zones generates magma
all of these
True or false: The 1980 eruption of Mt. St. Helens produced large lava flows that filled the nearby river valleys.
False
Hundreds of residents near a dormant volcano at Lake Nyos died when
Show answer choices
a sudden volcanic eruption deposited thick ash over the town
an unexpected lahar destroyed the village
a dense cloud of volcanic gas was released
acid rain from sulfur dioxide emissions caused widespread damage to vegetation
a dense cloud of volcaic gas was released
The shape of shield volcanoes is a function of
A) local variations in the tilt of the land surface
B) proportion of pyroclastic debris included in the edifice
C) lava viscocity
D) the explosive nature of the eruptions that produce the shield
lava viscosity
Why are most active volcanoes associated with plate tectonic boundaries?
Show answer choices
Plate tectonic boundaries are created by volcanism.
Earthquakes at plate boundaries bring large amounts of magma to the surface.
Spreading or sinking plates interact at plate boundaries with other materials to produce magma.
In reality, most volcanoes are in the plate interiors rather than at plate boundaries.
Spreading or sinking plates interact at plate boundaries with other materials to produce magma
Seismic activity serves as a tool of volcanic forecasting because
moving magma causes earthquakes
earthquake usually cause the volcanic summit to collapse, setting of an eruption
earthquakes and dangerous volcanoes are both associated with subduction zones
seismic activity indicates emission of volcanic gases
moving magma causes earthquakes
A lahar (volcanic mudflow) is produced when
a) ash is blown out of a vent and onto the side of the volcano
b) a lateral blast spreads ash across a large area
c) a lava flow breaks apart on the steep portion of a composite cone
d) ash and other pyroclastic ejecta become saturated with water
ash and other pyroclastic ejecta become saturated with water
true or false: A shield volcano is typically andesitic in compositon
False
True or false: Lava flows are the most dangerous of the primary volcanic hazards
False
What is one reason that ash fall is such a significant hazard?
Show answer choices
The pyroclastic flow that deposits the ash is a hot, glowing cloud.
The associated lava flows can cover large areas.
The basaltic magma that produces the ash is low in silica.
The weight of the ash can cause structural damage to buildings.
The weight of the ash can cause structural damage to buildings
True or false: Ash flows are rarely dangerous
False
The 1980 eruption of Mt. St. Helens produced large lava flows that filled the nearby river valleys. TRUE OR FALSE
false
True or False: the 1991 eruption of Mt. Pinatubo cooled the Earth’s climate the following year
True
What is the principal difference between craters and calderas?
A) Craters are associated only with fissure eruptions
B) Calderas are much larger depressions created by collapse of the upper portions of the volcano
C) Craters are created by explosive eruptions, while calderas are not
D) Calderas are associated with cinder cones, while craters are associated with shield volcanoes.
Calderas are much larger depressions created by collapse of the upper portions of the volcano
Why are most active volcanoes associated with plate tectonic boundaries?
In reality, most volcanoes are in the plate interiors rather than at plate boundaries.
Plate tectonic boundaries are created by volcanism.
Spreading or sinking plates interact at plate boundaries with other materials to produce magma.
Earthquakes at plate boundaries bring large amounts of magma to the surface.
Spreading or sinking plates interact at plate boundaries with other materials to produce magma
The potential for volcanic activity is present where in the United States? Select more than one correct answer.
Show answer choices
Northern California, Oregon, and Washington state
the Aleutian Islands and adjacent areas of Alaska
northern Maine
Yellowstone
The Big Island of Hawaii
Many of the Hawaiian Islands
the deep interior of Alaska
Washington state
Northern California, Oregon, and Washington State
The Aleutian Islands and adjacent areas of Alaska
Yellowstone
The big idea of Hawaii
The potential for volcanic activity is evaluated by monitoring what parameters? Select more than one correct answer.
Show answer choices
air monitoring for volcanic gas emissions
seismic activity
ground elevation monitoring
ground temperature changes
All of these
Volcanic domes form on oceanic plates above hotspots.
T
True
F
False
False
The number of fatalities from the Mt. Pinatubo eruption was relatively low because
Show answer choices
the eruption was predicted successfully, and the area was evacuated
few people lived in the vicinity of the volcano
the eruption was relatively small
the eruption, though large, was characterized by extensive lava flows
the eruption was predicted successfully, and the area was evacuated
Composite cones/stratovolcanoes typically are associated with what type of plate tectonic feature?
Show answer choices
mid-ocean ridge
subduction zone
hot spot
continental collision zone
subduction zone
Mid-ocean ridge volcanism produces what type of volcanic rock?
Show answer choices
andesite
tephra
basalt
rhyolite
basalt
Hazards associated with volcanic activity include: Select more than one correct answer.
Show answer choices
landslides
ash clouds
toxic gases
climate change
tsunamis
lahars
What information is needed to calculate the discharge of a river in units of volume/time? Select more than one correct answer.
Show answer choices
the length of the river
the average depth of the river
the width of the river
the velocity of the water
all except length
Why might logging of a drainage basin change the slope of the river?
Show answer choices
Decreased erosion shuts off sediment supply, causing the river to erode.
The base level of the stream is altered by the increased sediment load.
Increased sediment load causes the river to steepen its gradient to transport more sediment.
The stream must steepen to accommodate the increased runoff.
Increased sediment load causes the river to steepen its gradient to transport more sediment.
The degree of urbanization consists of
Show answer choices
the degree to which streams are impacted by paving of streets
the proportion by which infiltration capacity of soils is changed
the number of buildings taller than two stories
percentage of impervious cover and the percentage of area served by storm sewers
percentage of impervious cover and the percentage of area served by storm sewers
How do point bars and cut banks differ from one another in a stream system?
Show answer choices
Cut banks are sites of erosion, while point bars are sites of deposition.
Point bars are characteristic of meandering streams, while cut banks are characteristic of braided streams.
They are both areas of deposition, but the cut bank typically receives a greater volume of sediment.
Cut banks typically host riffles, while point bars are characterized by pools.
Cut banks are sites of erosion, while point bars are sites of deposition.
The total load of sediment that a river carries in a given period of time is called
Show answer choices
competency
capacity
bed load
base level
capacity
The portion of rainfall that flows off the land and directly into a river is called
Show answer choices
runoff
flood magnitude
recurrence interval
watershed
runoff
In what way can structural control of floods actually increase flood damage?
Show answer choices
by decreasing impervious cover in the urban environment
by encouraging development on the floodplain
by increasing runoff in the upper portions of drainage basins
by making the water transmitting capacity of the stream less efficient
by encouraging development on the floodplain
The suspended load of most rivers consists mostly of
Show answer choices
sand
gravel
silt and clay
dissolved substances
silt and clay
The USGS recognizes which of the following as types of floods? (Select more than one correct answer.)
Show answer choices
yearly floods
regional floods
flash floods
dam- and levee-failure floods
ice-jam floods
all except ice-jam
Efforts to reduce damage due to floods include which of the following? Select more than one correct answer.
Show answer choices
encouraging development near rivers
installation of flood-control structures
channelization of streams
reconstruction and protection of wetlands
floodplain regulation
all except encouraging development near rivers
What is the best description of the "10-year flood"?
Show answer choices
a flood that can occur only once every 10 years
a flood that occurred within the last 10 years
a flood that has a 10% chance of occurring each year
a flood that lasts for approximately 10 years
a flood that has a 10% chance of occurring each year
Which type of flood is typically caused by intense rainfall of short duration?
Show answer choices
downstream flood
stage flood
overbank flood
upstream flood
upstream flood
What is river base level?
Show answer choices
the smallest amount of sediment a stream can transport
the elevation of the stream bed
the river discharge that is maintained year round
the lowest level to which a river may erode
the lowest level to which a river may erode
Why is flood hazard mapping considered an important step in floodplain management?
Show answer choices
Flood hazard mapping guides appropriate development in the floodplain.
Flood hazard mapping mandates that the floodplain should not be developed.
Flood hazard mapping shows those parts of the urban environment that are impervious.
Flood hazard mapping is a first step toward channel restoration.
Flood hazard mapping guides appropriate development in the floodplain
Why did extensive flooding occur upstream of St. Louis during the 1993 Mississippi River flood?
Show answer choices
An intense thunderstorm dropped several inches of rain on the area in only a few hours.
The St. Louis floodwall failed, flooding St. Louis and the area upstream.
Floodwalls protecting St. Louis caused a bottleneck in the river's flow.
Widespread urbanization in the upper portion of the basin increased runoff to a great degree
Floodwalls protecting St. Louis caused a bottleneck in the river’s flow.
Deforestation has the following impacts: (Select more than one correct answer.)
Show answer choices
increases stream channel erosion
increases the erosion of soil
decreases stream velocity
increases stream gradient
all except decrease stream velocity
Flood hazards are increased by which of the following? Select more than one correct answer.
Show answer choices
build-up of natural levees
urban build-up
increase in impervious land cover
urban build-up
increase in impervious land cover
Why might logging of a drainage basin change the slope of the river?
Show answer choices
The base level of the stream is altered by the increased sediment load.
The stream must steepen to accommodate the increased runoff.
Increased sediment load causes the river to steepen its gradient to transport more sediment.
Decreased erosion shuts off sediment supply, causing the river to erode
Increased sediment load causes the river to steepen its gradient to transport more sediment.
What type of river channel is characterized by multiple channels and gravel bars?
Show answer choices
riffling
pooling
braided
meandering
braided
