Geology Unit 2 QUIZZES

True or false: Natural hazards are always damaging and never beneficial.

false

How are the magnitude and frequency of natural hazard events typically related?

a) unrelated

b) inversely related

c) directly related

d) correlated

inversely related

Why is history important in understanding natural hazards?

a) the history of natural hazards is always interesting

b) Typically a natural hazard will not recur, so the history of a natural hazard reveals where it won’t happen

c) Most natural hazards are repetitve events

d) Most natural hazards are low magnitude, high frequency events.

most natural hazards are repetitive events

True or false: Volcanic eruptions are one of the few natural hazards that have no benefits to humans

false

Why might global climate change impact the magnitude and frequency of hazardous events?

A) Climate change may cause the acceptable risk of a natural hazard to increase.

B) Many hazardous natural events are controlled in part by the amount of water in the system.

C) Climate change will likely increase the likelihood of earthquakes.

D) Climate change is directly related to land use planning efforts.

b) many hazardous natural events are controlled in part by the amount of water in the system

true or false: population increase is important because it buffers the impacts of hazardous events

false

true or false: hazardous processes can become catastrophes because of population increase

true

true or false: Changes in land-use patterns alter the effects of natural hazards

true

To be considered a natural disaster, which of the following must have occured? (Select more than one answer)

a) 1000 or more people impacted

b) declaration of emergency is issued

c) 10 or more people killed

All of these

natural hazards are not always harmful. What are some ways they can have beneficial outcomes? Select more than one correct answer.

A) supplies nutrients to the soils

b) flushes away pollutants

C) creates new land

d) movement of sand along beaches

supplies new nutrients to soil

flushes away pollutants

creates new land

How is the risk of a particular event defined?

A) Risk is the probability of occurence of an event multiplied by its consequences

B) Risk is the amount of land that will be affected by a hazardous event.

C) Risk is the level of consequences of a false prediction

D) Risk is the number of people that will be killed if an event occurs.

Risk is the probablity of occurence of an event multiplied by its consequences

How does a catastrophe differ from a disaster?

A) a disaster is typically much worse than a catastrophe

b) damages from a catastrophe are of such magnitude to require a long recovery period

c) a disaster occurs across a much greater geographic area than does a catastrophe

d) a catastrophe involves loss of life, while a disaster does not

damages from a catastrophe are of such magnitude to require a long recovery period

Why are hazard warnings sometimes problematic?

a) the probability of natural hazards is so low that warnings are irrelevant

b) warnings are occasionally inaccurate

c) people do not want to hear bad news

d) people do not believe scientists

warnings are occasionally inaccurate

Why are precursor events important?

A) precursor events provide warning that a hazardous process is becoming active

B) Precursor events define the history of a hazardous process.

C) Precursor events help to define the magnitude and frequency of an event.

D) Precursor events reveal linkages between hazards.

Precursor events provide warning that a hazardous process is becoming active

To what does the concept of acceptable risk refer?

a) the risk that society or individuals are willing to endure

b) the fact that society always have risks

c) the risk that is inherent in predicting natural hazards

d) the risk that a prediction of an event is likely to be inaccurate

the risk that society or individuals are willing to endure?

What is the difference between a reactive response and an anticipatory response?

A) A reactive response has to do with recovery, while an anticipatory response has to do with preparedness.

B) An anticipatory response is typically stronger than a reactive response.

C) A reactive response has much less value to society than an anticipatory response.

D) A reactive response is typically stronger than an anticipatory response.

A reactive response has to do with recovery, while an anticipatory response has to do with preparedness.

true or false: Land use planning is an important anticipatory response to natural hazards.

true

true or false: A prediction of a hazardous event has greater uncertainty than does a forecast.

false

true or false: Shale is a strong rock type on which to build structures.

False

Why is land use planning typically more effective than artificial control of natural hazards?

A) Artificial controls usually increase the probability that a hazardous event will occur.

B) Land use planning is an accepted societal tool for hazards, while artificial control is not.

C) Most hazardous natural processes are not amenable to artificial control.

D) Land use planning often reduces the probability that a hazardous event will occur.

Most hazardous natural processes are not amenable to artificial control.

Hurricane Katrina did not hit New Orleans directly. What were some of the reasons that New Orleans suffered devastating flooding? (select more than one correct answer)

failure to forecast rain amount

levee failure

regional subsidence

compaction and sinking of wetlands

sea level rise

all of these

The epicenter of an earthquake is the point of rupture along the fault.

True or false

False

true or false: Shake maps are used to predict where shaking is likely to occur in a future earthquake

false

1. How does earthquake magnitude differ from intensity?

   The two terms are synonymous, referring simply to the size of an earthquake.

   Magnitude reflects energy release, while intensity reflects the amount of shaking.

   Magnitude is a result of the amount of shaking, which is determined by intensity.

   Intensity reflects energy release, while magnitude reflects the amount of shaking.

Magnitude reflects energy release, while intensity reflects the amount of shaking

True or false

the depth of the focus/hypocenter is an important factor in determining the intensity

True

True or false

P-waves travel faster than surface waves

True

A strike slip fault has what type of motion?

A) horizontal

B) rapid

C) vertical

d) slow

horizontal

Surface waves are produced when

A) faults rupture the Earth’s surface

B) the absorption of S-waves by a liquid medium

C) P and S waves reach the surface and travel along the surface

D) the reverberating effects of buildings shaking in response to high frequency P-waves

P and S waves reach the surface and travel along the surface

the major goal of the U.S. earthquake hazard reduction program is to

A) reduce earthquake hazards through understanding of risks and prediction of hazards

B) develop an earthquake warning system for southern california

c) determine the roots of human perceptions of earthquakes

d) federally enforce seismic building codes in active areas

reduce earthquake hazards through understanding of risks and prediction of hazards

Tsunamis are generated by

A) rupture of faults on land

B) earthquake waves shaking the ocean floor

c) tides in the pacific ocean

D) vertical displacement of ocean water

vertical displacement of ocean water

What are some of the things being monitored in an attempt to predict short-term earthquake occurrence? Select more than one correct answer.

Show answer choices

deformation of ground surface

frequency and distribution pattern of foreshocks

seismic gaps along faults

helium gas emissions

abnormal animal behavior

all except helium gas emissions

What are some secondary and tertiary effects of earthquakes? Select more than one correct answer.

ground shaking

liquefaction

tsunamis

landslides

diseases

all except ground shaking

true or false: Tsunamis can cause damage thousands of miles from their source

True

True or false: Tsunamis are only a hazards near their source

False

ground rupture occurs during an earthquake when

A) saturated sediments are liquefied

B) a near surface fault breaks the surface

C) buildings pull away from their foundations

D) California falls into the ocean

a near-surface fault breaks the surface

true or false: Tectonic creep is the major cause of earthquakes in coastal California

False

Which of the following are behaviors of seismic energy as it travels through the interior of the earth? select more than one correct answer

Show answer choices

intensity of shaking increases in the direction of the fault rupture

all waves travel faster through denser rock than less dense rock

the amplitude of seismic waves decreases in unconsolidated sediments

seismic energy is increased as it travels through unconsolidated sediments

seismic energy is attenuated as it travels through unconsolidated sediments

At which tectonic boundaries can earthquakes occur?

Transform boundaries

Divergent boundaries'

Convergent boundaries

On what basis are Mercalli intensity values assigned to locations?

Show answer choices

perceptions of the amount of shaking and structural response to the shaking

interpretation of seismograms

interpretation of the length of fault rupture

proximity to the epicenter of the earthquake

perceptions of the amount of shaking and structural response to the shaking

Which of the following are types of volcanos? Select more than one correct answer.

Show answer choices

lava cones

strato- or composite volcanos

Kilauea

Mt. St. Helens

cinder cones

shield volcanos

strato or composite volcanos

cinder cones

shield volcanos

Why are most active volcanoes associated with plate tectonic boundaries? Select more than one correct answer.

Show answer choices

decompression melting at divergent boundaries causes volcanic activity

at transform boundaries magma generation causes volcanic activity

the addition of heat and volatiles at subduction zones generates magma

all of these

True or false: The 1980 eruption of Mt. St. Helens produced large lava flows that filled the nearby river valleys.

False

Hundreds of residents near a dormant volcano at Lake Nyos died when

Show answer choices

a sudden volcanic eruption deposited thick ash over the town

an unexpected lahar destroyed the village

a dense cloud of volcanic gas was released

acid rain from sulfur dioxide emissions caused widespread damage to vegetation

a dense cloud of volcaic gas was released

The shape of shield volcanoes is a function of

A) local variations in the tilt of the land surface

B) proportion of pyroclastic debris included in the edifice

C) lava viscocity

D) the explosive nature of the eruptions that produce the shield

lava viscosity

Why are most active volcanoes associated with plate tectonic boundaries?

Show answer choices

Plate tectonic boundaries are created by volcanism.

Earthquakes at plate boundaries bring large amounts of magma to the surface.

Spreading or sinking plates interact at plate boundaries with other materials to produce magma.

In reality, most volcanoes are in the plate interiors rather than at plate boundaries.

Spreading or sinking plates interact at plate boundaries with other materials to produce magma

Seismic activity serves as a tool of volcanic forecasting because

moving magma causes earthquakes

earthquake usually cause the volcanic summit to collapse, setting of an eruption

earthquakes and dangerous volcanoes are both associated with subduction zones

seismic activity indicates emission of volcanic gases

moving magma causes earthquakes

A lahar (volcanic mudflow) is produced when

a) ash is blown out of a vent and onto the side of the volcano

b) a lateral blast spreads ash across a large area

c) a lava flow breaks apart on the steep portion of a composite cone

d) ash and other pyroclastic ejecta become saturated with water

ash and other pyroclastic ejecta become saturated with water

true or false: A shield volcano is typically andesitic in compositon

False

True or false: Lava flows are the most dangerous of the primary volcanic hazards

False

What is one reason that ash fall is such a significant hazard?

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The pyroclastic flow that deposits the ash is a hot, glowing cloud.

The associated lava flows can cover large areas.

The basaltic magma that produces the ash is low in silica.

The weight of the ash can cause structural damage to buildings.

The weight of the ash can cause structural damage to buildings

True or false: Ash flows are rarely dangerous

False

1. The 1980 eruption of Mt. St. Helens produced large lava flows that filled the nearby river valleys. TRUE OR FALSE

false

True or False: the 1991 eruption of Mt. Pinatubo cooled the Earth’s climate the following year

True

What is the principal difference between craters and calderas?

A) Craters are associated only with fissure eruptions

B) Calderas are much larger depressions created by collapse of the upper portions of the volcano

C) Craters are created by explosive eruptions, while calderas are not

D) Calderas are associated with cinder cones, while craters are associated with shield volcanoes.

Calderas are much larger depressions created by collapse of the upper portions of the volcano

Why are most active volcanoes associated with plate tectonic boundaries?

In reality, most volcanoes are in the plate interiors rather than at plate boundaries.

Plate tectonic boundaries are created by volcanism.

Spreading or sinking plates interact at plate boundaries with other materials to produce magma.

Earthquakes at plate boundaries bring large amounts of magma to the surface.

Spreading or sinking plates interact at plate boundaries with other materials to produce magma

The potential for volcanic activity is present where in the United States? Select more than one correct answer.

Show answer choices

Northern California, Oregon, and Washington state

the Aleutian Islands and adjacent areas of Alaska

northern Maine

Yellowstone

The Big Island of Hawaii

Many of the Hawaiian Islands

the deep interior of Alaska

Washington state

Northern California, Oregon, and Washington State

The Aleutian Islands and adjacent areas of Alaska

Yellowstone

The big idea of Hawaii

The potential for volcanic activity is evaluated by monitoring what parameters? Select more than one correct answer.

Show answer choices

air monitoring for volcanic gas emissions

seismic activity

ground elevation monitoring

ground temperature changes

All of these

1. Volcanic domes form on oceanic plates above hotspots.

   T

   True

   F

   False

False

The number of fatalities from the Mt. Pinatubo eruption was relatively low because

Show answer choices

the eruption was predicted successfully, and the area was evacuated

few people lived in the vicinity of the volcano

the eruption was relatively small

the eruption, though large, was characterized by extensive lava flows

the eruption was predicted successfully, and the area was evacuated

Composite cones/stratovolcanoes typically are associated with what type of plate tectonic feature?

Show answer choices

mid-ocean ridge

subduction zone

hot spot

continental collision zone

subduction zone

Mid-ocean ridge volcanism produces what type of volcanic rock?

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andesite

tephra

basalt

rhyolite

basalt

Hazards associated with volcanic activity include: Select more than one correct answer.

Show answer choices

landslides

ash clouds

toxic gases

climate change

tsunamis

lahars

What information is needed to calculate the discharge of a river in units of volume/time? Select more than one correct answer.

Show answer choices

the length of the river

the average depth of the river

the width of the river

the velocity of the water

all except length

Why might logging of a drainage basin change the slope of the river?

Show answer choices

Decreased erosion shuts off sediment supply, causing the river to erode.

The base level of the stream is altered by the increased sediment load.

Increased sediment load causes the river to steepen its gradient to transport more sediment.

The stream must steepen to accommodate the increased runoff.

Increased sediment load causes the river to steepen its gradient to transport more sediment.

The degree of urbanization consists of

Show answer choices

the degree to which streams are impacted by paving of streets

the proportion by which infiltration capacity of soils is changed

the number of buildings taller than two stories

percentage of impervious cover and the percentage of area served by storm sewers

percentage of impervious cover and the percentage of area served by storm sewers

How do point bars and cut banks differ from one another in a stream system?

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Cut banks are sites of erosion, while point bars are sites of deposition.

Point bars are characteristic of meandering streams, while cut banks are characteristic of braided streams.

They are both areas of deposition, but the cut bank typically receives a greater volume of sediment.

Cut banks typically host riffles, while point bars are characterized by pools.

Cut banks are sites of erosion, while point bars are sites of deposition.

The total load of sediment that a river carries in a given period of time is called

Show answer choices

competency

capacity

bed load

base level

capacity

The portion of rainfall that flows off the land and directly into a river is called

Show answer choices

runoff

flood magnitude

recurrence interval

watershed

runoff

In what way can structural control of floods actually increase flood damage?

Show answer choices

by decreasing impervious cover in the urban environment

by encouraging development on the floodplain

by increasing runoff in the upper portions of drainage basins

by making the water transmitting capacity of the stream less efficient

by encouraging development on the floodplain

The suspended load of most rivers consists mostly of

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sand

gravel

silt and clay

dissolved substances

silt and clay

The USGS recognizes which of the following as types of floods? (Select more than one correct answer.)

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yearly floods

regional floods

flash floods

dam- and levee-failure floods

ice-jam floods

all except ice-jam

Efforts to reduce damage due to floods include which of the following? Select more than one correct answer.

Show answer choices

encouraging development near rivers

installation of flood-control structures

channelization of streams

reconstruction and protection of wetlands

floodplain regulation

all except encouraging development near rivers

What is the best description of the "10-year flood"?

Show answer choices

a flood that can occur only once every 10 years

a flood that occurred within the last 10 years

a flood that has a 10% chance of occurring each year

a flood that lasts for approximately 10 years

a flood that has a 10% chance of occurring each year

Which type of flood is typically caused by intense rainfall of short duration?

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downstream flood

stage flood

overbank flood

upstream flood

upstream flood

What is river base level?

Show answer choices

the smallest amount of sediment a stream can transport

the elevation of the stream bed

the river discharge that is maintained year round

the lowest level to which a river may erode

the lowest level to which a river may erode

Why is flood hazard mapping considered an important step in floodplain management?

Show answer choices

Flood hazard mapping guides appropriate development in the floodplain.

Flood hazard mapping mandates that the floodplain should not be developed.

Flood hazard mapping shows those parts of the urban environment that are impervious.

Flood hazard mapping is a first step toward channel restoration.

Flood hazard mapping guides appropriate development in the floodplain

Why did extensive flooding occur upstream of St. Louis during the 1993 Mississippi River flood?

Show answer choices

An intense thunderstorm dropped several inches of rain on the area in only a few hours.

The St. Louis floodwall failed, flooding St. Louis and the area upstream.

Floodwalls protecting St. Louis caused a bottleneck in the river's flow.

Widespread urbanization in the upper portion of the basin increased runoff to a great degree

Floodwalls protecting St. Louis caused a bottleneck in the river’s flow.

Deforestation has the following impacts: (Select more than one correct answer.)

Show answer choices

increases stream channel erosion

increases the erosion of soil

decreases stream velocity

increases stream gradient

all except decrease stream velocity

Flood hazards are increased by which of the following? Select more than one correct answer.

Show answer choices

build-up of natural levees

urban build-up

increase in impervious land cover

urban build-up

increase in impervious land cover

Why might logging of a drainage basin change the slope of the river?

Show answer choices

The base level of the stream is altered by the increased sediment load.

The stream must steepen to accommodate the increased runoff.

Increased sediment load causes the river to steepen its gradient to transport more sediment.

Decreased erosion shuts off sediment supply, causing the river to erode

Increased sediment load causes the river to steepen its gradient to transport more sediment.

What type of river channel is characterized by multiple channels and gravel bars?

Show answer choices

riffling

pooling

braided

meandering

braided