Systems Path Exam 2

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Last updated 1:32 PM on 8/14/25
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156 Terms

1
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T/F Metastasis to bone is MC than primary bone tumors

True

2
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What are the diverse features of primary bone tumors?

  1. Asymptomatic

  2. Pathologic fractures

  3. Fever, fatigue, cachexia

3
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What are the categories of bone tumors?

  1. Bone-forming tumors

  2. Cartilage-forming tumor

  3. Tumors of uncertain origin

4
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What are the bone forming tumors?

  1. Osteoid osteoma

  2. Osteoblastoma

  3. Osteosarcoma

5
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What is the difference between osteoid osteoma and osteoblastoma?

Size

6
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What is a osteoid osteoma?

Small benign tumor

dark area in center is a “nidus”

rim around is rim of sclerosis

near cortex of long bones (metaphysis of femur and tibia)

7
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Osteoid osteoma can be relieved by ___

NSAIDS

8
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Both osteoid osteoma and osteoblastoma are MC in ___

younger males (10-20)

9
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What is an osteoblastoma? (TQ)

larger tumor

grows in vertebral processes

unrelieved by aspirin

10
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What is an osteosarcoma?

malignant tumor and agressive

affects 10-20 year males

11
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If older than 40, osteosarcoma is associated with ____

Paget disease

12
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What is the most common primary bone cancer?

Osteosarcoma

13
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What is codman triangle?

periosteal reaction- aggressive lesion of bone

associated with osteosarcoma

14
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What is periosteal reaction?

aggressive lesion of bone

15
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A mixed pattern of tumor is MC in ___

osteosarcoma

16
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Osteosarcomas tend to develop where? (TQ)

metaphysis of distal femur, tibia, and humerus

17
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Around what area do osteosarcomas mostly develop?

knee (60%)

18
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What is a major concern with osteosarcoma?

20% have metastasis to lungs at diagnosis

19
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What is the treatment for osteosarcoma?

  1. amputation

  2. chemotherapy

    good prognosis (60-70% survivial)

20
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What are the three main types of cartilage forming tumors?

  1. Osteochondroma (exostosis)

  2. Chondroma (enchondroma)

  3. Chondrosarcoma

21
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What makes up cartilage?

hyaline

22
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T/F Cartilage forming tumors are benign

true

23
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Osteochondromas are MC in who?

Males ages 10-30

24
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Where do osteochondroma’s typically grow?

Long bone metaphysis near growth plate

knee MC

25
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Most osteochondromas are ____

solitary- sporadic

26
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What is the most common shape of osteochondroma?

pedunculated (narrow base)

27
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What is sessile?

wide base

28
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What is an enchondroma? (TQ)

benign tumor of hyaline cartilage

MC in hands and feet (proximal phalanges)

29
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What age is at risk for enchondromas?

20-50 years

30
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What is multiple enchondromas referred to as?

Ollier’s disease

31
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How is enchondromas normally found?

MC asymptomatic

incidental diagnosis with fractures

32
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What is a chondrosarcoma?

malignant cartilage tumor

2nd MC primary bone cancer

33
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What age group is at risk for chondrosarcomas?

40-60 years old

Males

34
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Where are chondrosarcomas most common?

Pelvic and shoulder gurdles

35
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Chondrosarcomas can be identified as a ___

“glistening” mass

36
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What is companion feature of chondrosarcomas?

stippled or “popcorn"" calcifications

37
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What is a low-grade chondrosarcoma?

MC, slow growing

thickens cortex

38
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What is a high grade chondrosarcoma?

large mass, erodes thin cortex

poor prognosis

39
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What are fibrous cortical defect and nonossifying fibroma?

small= FCD

large= NOF

reaction to periosteal injury

fibroblasts and macrophages accumulate

Common, self-resolve in childern

40
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T/F FCD and NOF self resolve in childern

True

41
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What is the common location of FCD and NOF?

knee and ankle

MC asymptomatic

42
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T/F fibrous dysplasia is a tumor

False

43
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What is fibrous dysplasia?

Failed bony differentiation

44
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What causes fibrous dysplasia

mutation that causes failed osteoblast differention

45
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Is the fibrous dysplasia mutation inherited?

No- occurs spontaneously

46
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Monostotic fibrous dysplasia vs Polyostotic fibrous dysplasia?

Monostotic- single bone

Polystotic- multiple bones

47
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McCune-Albright syndrome is a combination of ___

polyostotic + cafe-au- lait spots and endocrinopathy

48
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Which FD is more common?

Monostotic FD →stops growing at time of growth plate closure

49
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Does polyostotic stop with growth plate closure?

No→ likely to progress into adulthood

more severe→ leads to more issues

50
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What is McCune-Albright syndrome?

fibrous dysplasia

more widespread

skeletal

skin→ cafe au lait spots

endocrinopathy→ hyperfunctioning

51
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What is ewing sarcoma?

malignant tumors

2nd MC pediatric bone cancer

52
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Who is most at risk for Ewing sarcoma?

caucasian males

10-20 years

53
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Where is ewing sarcoma most common?

Diaphysis of long bone

“onion-skinning”→enlarging mass

54
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What type of cells are associated with Ewing sarcoma?

small round cell

55
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What is giant-cell tumor of bone (Osteoclastoma)?

promotes ostoeclast differentiation

Epiphsis/metaphysis of bone

56
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What is a companion feature of giant cell tumor of bone?

soap bubble appearance

thin “shell” of cortex

57
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T/F Secondary metastasis to bone is MC than primary bone cancer?

True

58
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Where is metastasis of bone most common?

spine is MC spot

59
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Where is metastasis of bone MC?

axial skeleton, proximal femur/humerus

60
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What is lytic, blastic, and mixed (MC)?

Lytic- radiolucent

Blastic- radioplaque

Mixed- combination

61
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In adults prostate cancer causes __ apperance

blastic

62
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In adults, breast cancer causes a __ appearance

lytic

63
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In adults, lung cancer causes a __ appearance

mixed

64
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What are the red flags with low back pain of cancerous origin? (TQ)

  1. over 50 years old

  2. history of cancer

  3. cachexia

65
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What is a ganglion cyst?

common, asymptomatic

occurs in joints that have substained previous injuries

myxoid degenrative connective tissue

favors posterior wrist

66
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T/F There is no communication with synovium with a ganglion cyst

True

67
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What is a synovial cyst?

TRUE CYST

synovial herniation- fluid filled extension of synovium

associated with joint degeneration

68
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Where is synovial cysts located most commonly?

popliteal= Baker cyst

spinal synovial cyst

69
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What are soft tissue tumors?

cellular origin of adipose, fibrous, muscle, vessels, PNS

RARE- deadly

70
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What is the most common soft tissue tumor?

lipoma

71
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What is a lipoma?

benign adipocytes tumor

72
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What is a liposarcoma?

malignant adipocyte tumor

MC adults age 50-70

73
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Where are liposarcoma’s most commonly found? (TQ)

deep retroperitoneum and thigh

74
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What is a nodular fasciitis?

proliferation of fibroblasts

benign tumor

75
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What is the common location of nodular fasciitis?

palm side of the arm

rapid growth but self-limited

76
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What is myositis ossificans?

repair process lays down bone

reaction to trauma

fibroblasts transition into osteoprogenitor cells

MC in athletes

77
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What are fibromatoses?

benign tumor of fibroblasts

invasive and painful

78
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What is the difference between superficial and deep fibromatoses?

Superficial fibromatoses= less aggressive

Deep fibromatoses (desmoid tumors)=

79
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What is an example of superifical firbomatoses?

Dupuytren Contracture→ MC in palms of hands at 4-5 digit

80
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What are deep fibromatosis (desmoid tumors)?

more aggressive than superficial

MC in abdominal wall

81
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What is a fibrosarcoma?

malignant tumor of fibroblasts

MC in deep thigh and retroperitoneum

82
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What is the appearance features of fibrosarcoma?

  1. herringbone pattern

  2. originates in fibrous tissue- may invade into bone

83
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What is a rhabdomyosarcoma?

aggressive malignancy of skeletal muscle

MC pediatric soft tissue sarcoma

84
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What is the MC pediatric soft tissue sarcoma? (TQ)

Rhabdomyosarcoma

85
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What is a leiomyoma?

benign uterine fibroids

86
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What is leiomyosarcoma?

malignant tumor in deep retroperitoneum (IVC)

MC in adult females

87
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What is a synovial sarcoma?

soft tissue cancer- aggressive, deadly

MC age 20-40

88
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Where are synovial sarcoma most commonly found?

MC near the knee

89
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What should we look for if there is a peripheral nerve injury? (TQ)

Muscle weakness

flaccidity

decreased DTR’s (deep tendon reflex)

sensory abnormalites

90
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What is a common way to assess peripheral nerve function?

NCV (nerve conduction velocity) test

91
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What does NCV test for? (TQ)

both velocity and amplitude

92
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What is neuropraxia?

mild compression/traction injury

93
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What is axonotmesis?

axons severed

regeneration expected

94
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What is neurotmesis?

nerve completely severed

poor regeneration capacity

95
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When the distal end of the axon degenerates it is called __

Wallerian degeneration

96
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If regrowth and remyelination of axons takes place, what are the consequences? (TQ)

  1. decreased axon density

  2. decreased amplitude on a NCV test

97
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What is demyelinating neuropathy?

random or segmental demyelination

results of repair is decreased velocity on NCV test

98
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What is mononeuropathy?

isolated nerve injury

carpel tunnel syndrome is example

trauma

99
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What is polyneuropathy? (TQ)

systemic issues

widespread pattern

Stocking and glove paresthesia→ distal areas affected first

100
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What is guillain-barre syndrome?

acute motor neuron deymyelination

ascending flaccid paralysis