Pharmacokinetics - metabolism and elimination

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76 Terms

1
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Most drugs would have a prolonged duration of action if termination of their action depended solely on ___

renal excretion

2
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Many drugs do not possess qualities favorable for ___

excretion via the kidneys

3
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Biotransformation is the process by which xenobiotics are transformed to more ___ metabolites

polar (inactive)

4
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Which drugs are inactivated by biotransformation?

Thiopental and phenobarbitol

5
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Which drugs gain activity after biotransformation?

Clopidogrel (2-oxo-clopidogrel)

6
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Active drugs can also lead to active metabolites in biotransformation? which drug is an example of this?

Diazepam (desmethyldiazepam)

7
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Where does most biotransformation occur?

Liver

8
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Some ___ do not need to undergo biotransformation to be eliminated?

lipophilic

9
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What are the phase one reactions?

oxidation, reduction and hydrolysis

10
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Phase I reactions usually convert a parent drug to a more polar metabolite by ___

introducing a functional group

11
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If phase I metabolites are sufficiently polar they may be ___

excreted

12
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In phase II reactions an endogenous substrate combines with a phase I product forming a ___

highly polar conjugate

13
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What are the three important conjugation reactions?

Glucoronidation, acetylation, glutathione

14
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Which drug undergoes glucoronidation?

Chloramphenicol

15
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Which drugs undergo acetylation?

hydralazine, isoniazid, procainamide

16
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Which drug undergoes glutathione conjugation?

acetaminophen

17
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Mixed function oxidases (monooxygenases) are enzymes in smooth microsomes (from ER) involved in which reactions?

Phase I biotransformation

18
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In the oxidation reduction process two microsomal enzymes play a key role:

- NADPH- cytochrome P450 oxidoreductase

- Cytochrome P450

19
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Most liver CYP450 oxidases exhibit ___ substrate specificity

broad

20
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The activated oxygen of CYP450 is a powerful ___ agent

oxidizing

21
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P450 mediated reactions account for ___ of oxidative biotransformations

95%

3 multiple choice options

22
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What are examples of non-P450 oxidases?

- alcohol dehydrogenase (ethanol metabolism)

- MAO (anti-depressants)

23
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Enzyme inducers increase the activity of ___ in the liver

CYP450 enzymes

24
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Anticonvulsants like phenytoin, barbiturates, and carbamazepine are enzyme ___

inducers

1 multiple choice option

25
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Aromatic hydrocarbons are enzyme ___

inducers

1 multiple choice option

26
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Rifampin (abx) is an enzyme ___

inducer

1 multiple choice option

27
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Glucocorticoids are enzyme ___

inducers

1 multiple choice option

28
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Griseofulvin (antifungal) is an enzyme ___

inducer

1 multiple choice option

29
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Chronic alcohol use is an enzyme ___

inducer

1 multiple choice option

30
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When enzyme inducers are activated drug intensity and duration is ___

decreased

31
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Which drug counteracts oral contraceptives and can cause unintended pregnancy

phenytoin

32
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Enzyme inducers promote ___ if the substrate drug induces its own metabolism

tolerance

33
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Which drug is an enzyme inducer that causes its own metabolism?

Carbamazpine

34
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Enzyme inducers cause some endogenous substances to be metabolized faster. What is an example?

Bilirubin

35
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Cimetidine and omeprazole (anti ulcer drugs) are enzyme ___

inhibitors

1 multiple choice option

36
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Grapefruit juice is an enzyme ___

inhibitor

1 multiple choice option

37
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Chloramphenicol, macrolides, and ritonavir (abx) are enzyme ___

inhibitors

1 multiple choice option

38
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ketoconazole (anti fungal) is an enzyme ___

inhibitor

1 multiple choice option

39
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Acute alcohol intake is an enzyme ___

inhibitor

1 multiple choice option

40
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What is a consequence of taking enzyme inhibitors?

Increased dose related toxicity

41
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Isoniazid (INH) is an ___ drug

antitubercular

42
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Hydralazine is an ___

antihypertensive

43
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Procainamide is an ___

antiarrythmic

44
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Hydralazine, isoniazid, and procainamide are examples of drugs that can be ___

acetylated at higher or lower rates (dosage dependent)

45
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Risks of slow acetylators receiving too high of dosage?

drug induced lupus and peripheral neuropathy

46
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Newborns and elderly need smaller doses than middle aged adults because ___

- enzyme activity decreases with age

- newborns enzymes are not fully developed

47
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___ is converted into reactive metabolite N-acetyl-p-benzoquinoneimine (NAPQI)

acetaminophen

48
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NAPQI is usually conjugated by ___ to be inactvated

glutathione (GSH)

49
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In acetaminophen overdose ___ is depleted and leads to liver cell death

glutathione

50
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Tx for acetaminophen overdose?

N-acetylcysteine

51
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When a drug is given by IV what is the bioavailability?

100%

52
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Lidocaine has a low bioavailability due to destruction by gastric enzymes and the liver so it is not effective ___

orally

3 multiple choice options

53
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How is bioavailability calculated?

F= AUCoral / AUCiv

54
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Renal blood flow is about ___% of systemic flow

25

55
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Enhancing blood flow, increasing glomerular filtration rate, and decreasing plasma protein binding will ___

speed up drug excretion

3 multiple choice options

56
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Urinary drug concentration increases in the ___

proximal tubule

3 multiple choice options

57
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Drug concentration increases in the proximal tubules because of passive diffusion of ___ into renal tubules

uncharged drug molecules

58
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Drug concentration increases in the proximal tubules because of ___ diffusion of charged and uncharged molecules

facilitated

59
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Drug concentration increases in the proximal tubules because of active secretion of ___ molecules

anionic and cationic (penicillin)

60
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Urinary drug concentration falls in the renal tubule because of ___ in the proximal and distal tubules

reabsorption

61
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Reabsorption of drugs in the renal tubule is limited by ___

pH trapping

62
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Urinary drug concentration falls in the renal tubule because of an ___ of urine output

increased rate

1 multiple choice option

63
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Drugs can be secreted from the liver into the bile by members of the ___ family of transporter

ATP binding cassette

64
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During elimination of bile through the intestine it may be reabsorbed leading to ___

enterohepatic circulation

65
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In first order kinetics the rate of elimination is ___ to the plasma concentration of the blood

directly proportional

66
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In zero order kinetics the rate of elimination is ___ of the plasma concentration

independent

67
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Drugs that will not be saturated easily will follow ___ kinetics

first order

1 multiple choice option

68
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In zero order elimination, a ___ amount of the drug is being eliminated per unit of time

constant

69
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Few drugs follow zero order kinetics, name a few?

- Ethanol

- aspirin and phenytoin in high doses

70
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In first order elimination a constant ___ of the drug is being eliminated per unit of time

fraction

71
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Half life is constant for drugs following ___

first order kinetics

72
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How many doses are required to reach a steady state of concentration?

4-5 typically

73
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When a drug is repeatedly given at a constant interval the plasma levels of the drug will reach a ___

plateau

74
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To maintain a constant plasma concentration over an extended period of time a ___ is required

maintenance dose

75
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To achieve target plasma levels rapidly a ___ is required

loading dose

76
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Loading dosages are useful for drugs with ___

long half lives