Maternal and Child Nursing 2: High-Risk Pregnancy and Pediatric Disorders

Comprehensive flashcards covering maternal complications, emergency obstetric interventions, postpartum care, and neonatal/pediatric high-risk disorders based on the lecture transcript.

What is the definition of a high-risk pregnancy?

A pregnancy in which a concurrent disorder, complication, or external factor jeopardizes the health of the mother, fetus, or both.

What are the common causes of bleeding during the first trimester?

Spontaneous miscarriage and ectopic pregnancy.

When evaluating a mother for hypovolemic shock, at what percentage of blood loss do fetal distress signs usually occur?

Approximately 25% of blood loss.

What is the recommended emergency position for a pregnant woman experiencing bleeding?

Flat in bed on her side, preferably the left-side-lying position.

How is a 'viable fetus' defined in the context of miscarriage?

A fetus of more than 20 to 24 weeks gestation or one that weighs at least 500 grams.

What is the difference between a threatened miscarriage and an imminent miscarriage?

In threatened miscarriage, there is vaginal bleeding but no cervical dilation; in imminent miscarriage, uterine contractions and cervical dilation occur.

What is a 'missed abortion'?

A condition where the fetus dies in utero but is not expelled.

What is the most frequent site for an ectopic pregnancy?

The fallopian tube.

What are the characteristic assessment findings of a Hydatidiform Mole (H-Mole)?

Rapidly expanding uterus, high HCG levels (1-2 million IU), brown vaginal bleeding after 12 weeks, and no fetal heart sounds.

What surgical procedure is used to prevent premature cervical dilation in a subsequent pregnancy?

Cervical cerclage (McDonald or Shirodkar procedure).

What is the classic clinical presentation of Placenta Previa?

Painless, bright red vaginal bleeding after the 7th month, with a soft uterus.

How does Abruptio Placenta differ from Placenta Previa in terms of pain?

Abruptio Placenta involves painful vaginal bleeding and a tender, board-like uterus, whereas Placenta Previa is painless.

What are the three classic signs of Preeclampsia?

Hypertension, proteinuria, and edema.

What is the drug of choice for preventing seizures in eclampsia and what is its antidote?

Magnesium Sulfate is used for prevention, and its antidote is Calcium Gluconate.

What are the volume thresholds for Hydramnios and Oligohydramnios?

Hydramnios is more than 2000 ml of amniotic fluid; Oligohydramnios is less than 500 ml.

What medication is administered to help mature fetal lungs if preterm labor cannot be stopped?

Dexamethasone (6 mg IM every 12 hours for 4 doses).

What is the priority nursing intervention for a prolapsed umbilical cord?

Relieve pressure on the cord by manually pushing the presenting part upward or placing the mother in a knee-chest/Trendelenburg position.

What is the primary cause of Postpartum Hemorrhage (PPH)?

Uterine atony (loss of muscle tone in the uterus).

What does the BUBBLESHE acronym stand for in postpartum assessment?

Breasts, Uterus, Bowel, Bladder, Lochia, Episiotomy, Skin, Homan’s Sign, and Emotional Status.

What are the 4 grades of respiratory distress in a newborn?

Grade 1: Tachypnea/Nasal flaring; Grade 2: Retractions; Grade 3: Expiratory grunting; Grade 4: Cyanosis/Disturbed consciousness.

What is the primary difference between Omphalocele and Gastroschisis?

In Omphalocele, the protruding organs are covered by a thin sac; in Gastroschisis, the organs are exposed without a covering membrane.

What causes the 'Zebra Sign' in children with Kwashiorkor?

Striped hair appearance (brown and white) reflecting alternating periods of good and poor protein intake.

What are the signs of meningeal irritation used to diagnose meningitis?

Nuchal rigidity, Brudzinski’s sign, Kernig’s sign, and Opisthotonos.

How is the paralysis in Guillain-Barré Syndrome typically described?

Ascending and symmetric paralysis.