chapters 1-5

The study of the function of the body and body parts is called:

A) negative feedback

B) anatomy

C) irritability

D) homeostasis

E) physiology

E) Physiology

Which of the following activities does NOT represent an anatomical study:

A) observing the parts of a reproducing cell

B) studying how the nerves conduct electrical impulses

C) examining the surface of a bone

D) making a section through the heart to observe its interior 

E) viewing muscle tissue through a microscope

B) studying how the nerves conduct electrical impulses

Which of the following is the correct sequence, going from simplest to most complex, in the levels of structural organization of the human body:

A) chemical level, tissue level, cellular level, organ system level, organ level, organismal level

B) chemical level, cellular level, tissue level, organ level, organ system level, organismal level

C) cellular level, tissue level, chemical level, organ level, organ system level, organismal level

D) cellular level, chemical level, tissue level, organ system level, organismal level, organ level

E) cellular level, chemical level, tissue level, organ level, organ system level, organismal level

B) chemical level, cellular level, tissue level, organ level, organ system level, organismal level

The building blocks of all matter are known as:

A) organ systems

B) atoms

C) organs

D) tissues

E) cells

B) atoms

Hematopoiesis, or blood cell formation, is a function of the:

A) integumentary system

B) respiratory system

C) muscular system

D) skeletal system

E) nervous system

D) skeletal system

The main function of the respiratory system is:

A) break down food and deliver the products to the blood for dispersal

B) control body activities through hormones released into the blood

C) transport oxygen, nutrients, and wastes to and from body cells and tissues

D) produce sperm and eggs

E) supply the body with oxygen and remove carbon dioxide

E) supply the body with oxygen and remove carbon dioxide

The system that controls and coordinates the body through hormones is the:

A) skeletal system

B) integumentary system

C) nervous system

D) endocrine system

E) digestive system

D) endocrine system

The muscular system consists of the:

A) muscles of the heart

B) skeletal muscles and the muscles of the heart

C) muscles of the heart and those in the walls of the hollow organs

D) skeletal muscles

E) muscles in the walls of hollow organs

B) skeletal muscles and the muscles of the heart

Which two organ systems include the pancreas:

A) urinary and reproductive systems

B) digestive and respiratory systems

C) endocrine and respiratory systems

D) digestive and endocrine systems

E) reproductive and urinary systems

D) digestive and endocrine systems

Which system covers the external surface of the body and protects deeper tissues:

A) endocrine system

B) integumentary system

C) lymphatic system

D) skeletal system

E) nervous system

B) integumentary system

What is the major function of the urinary system:

A) eliminate nitrogen-containing metabolic wastes from the body

B) break down food into absorbable units

C) produce offspring

D) return leaked fluids back to the cardiovascular system

E) secrete hormones to regulate body processes such as growth and reproduction

A) eliminate nitrogen-containing metabolic wastes from the body

Which of the following is NOT a necessary life function:

A) metabolism

B) responsiveness

C) nutrients

D) movement

E) maintains boundaries

C) nutrients

Which of the following systems is matched most accurately to the life function it provides:

A) integumentary system - movement

B) muscular system - maintaining boundaries

C) nervous system - responsiveness

D) respiratory system - digestion

E) nervous system - excretion

C) nervous system - responsiveness

Which of these is NOT a survival need:

A) water

B) nutrients

C) body temperature

D) reproduction

E) oxygen

D) reproduction

Which of the following is the correct order of elements in a control system:

A) receptor, stimulus, efferent pathway, control center, afferent pathway, effector, response

B) receptor, stimulus, afferent pathway, control center, efferent pathway, effector, response

C) stimulus, receptor, afferent pathway, control center, efferent pathway, effector, response

D) stimulus, receptor, efferent pathway, control center, afferent pathway, effector, response

E) effector, stimulus, efferent pathway, control center, afferent pathway, receptor, response

C) stimulus, receptor, afferent pathway, control center, efferent pathway, effector, response

Which of the following elements of a control system detects a change:

A) efferent pathway

B) control center

C) effector

D) receptor

E) stimulus

D) receptor

Positive feedback systems:

A) regulate heart and breathing rates, and operate in such a way that the initial stimulus is enhanced and increases

B) regulate heart and breathing rates

C) regulate heart and breathing rates, and operate in such a way that the initial stimulus is shut off or reduced

D) operate in such a way the the initial stimulus is shut off or reduced

E) operate in such a way that the initial stimulus is enhanced and increases

E) operate in such a way that the initial stimulus is enhanced and increases

Which of the following is considered a normal body temperature:

A) 29 degrees Celsius

B) 35 degrees Celsius

C) 37 degrees Celsius

D) 42 degrees Celsius

E) 45 degrees Celsius

C) 37 degrees Celsius

When correctly situated in anatomical position, where are your feet in relation to your knees:

A) medial

B) distal

C) proximal

D) deep

E) superior

B) distal

Which of the following orientation and directional terms have the same meaning (in humans):

A) anterior and dorsal

B) superior and caudal

C) inferior and cranial

D) inferior and cephalad

E) anterior and ventral

E) anterior and ventral

Which of the following orientation terms have opposite meanings (in humans):

A) medial and distal

B) superficial and proximal

C) distal and proximal

D) medial and anterior

E) posterior and intermediate

C) distal and proximal

Which of the following regional terms means the anterior surface of the elbow?

A) antecubital region

B) scapular region

C) calcaneal region

D) vertebral region

E) gluteal region

A) antecubital region

Mandy pulled a muscle in the inguinal region. Where is this region:

A) thigh

B) buttock

C) hip

D) groin

E) leg

D) groin

In describing the relationship between the patellar and popliteal regions:

A) the patellar region is lateral to the popliteal region

B) the patellar region is distal to the popliteal region

C) the patellar region is anterior to the popliteal region

D) the patellar region is superior to the popliteal region

E) the patellar region is proximal to the popliteal region

C) the patellar region is anterior to the popliteal region

Which body cavity can be subdivided into four quadrants and nine regions:

A) nasal cavity

B) thoracic cavity

C) spinal cavity

D) abdominopelvic cavity

E) orbital cavity

D) abdominopelvic cavity

The lungs and heart are situated in the _______ body cavity.

A) abdominopelvic

B) dorsal

C) thoracic

D) spinal

E) cranial

C) thoracic

Which of these body regions is located on the anterior side of the body:

A) popliteal

B) sternal

C) lumbar

D) gluteal

E) occipital

B) sternal

The region that refers to the fingers and toes is the:

A) axillary region

B) antebrachial region

C) digital region

D) carpal region

E) brachial region

C) digital region

The dorsal body cavity houses the:

A) spinal cord and brain

B) urinary and reproductive organs

C) tongue

D) digestive and reproductive organs

E) heart and lungs

A) spinal cord and brain

Which of these regions are associated with the parts of the arm:

A) femoral, popliteal, patellar

B) pelvic, pubic, inguinal

C) brachial, antecubital, carpal

D) acromial, sacral, gluteal

E) nasal, oral, occipital

C) brachial, antecubital, carpal

Which of these regions is NOT associated with the ventral (anterior) portion of the head:

A) occipital

B) oral

C) orbital

D) buccal

E0 nasal

A) occipital

A section that divides the body on the longitudinal plane into equal right and left parts is called:

A) coronal

B) median (midsagittal)

C) transverse

D) oblique

E) frontal

B) median (midsagittal)

Which type of section could be used to separate the thoracic cavity from the abdominopelvic cavity:

A) dorsal

B) ventral

C) sagittal

D) transverse

E) coronal

D) transverse

Which ventral cavity subdivision has no body protection

A) pelvic

B) spinal

C) abdominal

D) cranial

E) thoracic

C) abdominal

Which set of regions in the abdominopelvic cavity is medial:

A) iliac (inguinal), lumbar, and hypogastric regions

B) epigastric, right, and left hypochondriac regions

C) epigastric, umbilical, and hypogastric regions

D) umbilical, right lumbar, and left lumbar regions

E) right and left iliac (inguinal), and hypogastric regions

C) epigastric, umbilical, and hypogastric regions

The thoracic cavity is _______ to the abdominopelvic cavity.

A) dorsal

B) lateral

C) proximal

D) superior

E) inferior

D) superior

The ribs are located in the:

A) right and left iliac regions

B) right and left lumbar regions

C) right and left pubic regions

D) right and left inguinal regions

E) right and left hypochondriac regions

E) right and left hypochondriac regions

Which of the following statements is correct regarding the location of the stomach:

A) the stomach is located in the left upper quadrant

B) the stomach is located in the left lower quadrant

C) the stomach is located in the right upper quadrant

D) the stomach is located medially

E) the stomach is located in the right lower quadrant

A) the stomach is located in the left upper quadrant

Which of the following contains sodium:

A) N2.

B) CH4.

C) H2O.

D) NaCl.

E) H2SO4.

D) NaCl.

An atom with 11 protons, 12 neutrons, and 10 electrons is a(n):

A) anion.

B) cation.

C) isotope.

D) molecule.

E) radioisotope.

B) cation. ('t' = positive charge: more protons than electrons)

The movement of ions across cell membranes is an example of:

A) radiant energy.

B) potential energy.

C) electrical energy.

D) chemical energy.

E) mechanical energy.

C) electrical energy.

Which of the following is classified as an inorganic compound:

A) water.

B) steroid.

C) protein.

D) glucose.

E) triglyceride.

A) water.

The most abundant element in the human body is:

A) carbon.

B) calcium.

C) oxygen.

D) nitrogen

E) hydrogen.

C) oxygen.

Which of the following leads to an increase in the rate of a chemical reaction:

A) few particles.

B) lack of catalysts.

C) large particle size.

D) increased temperature.

E) decreased temperature.

D) increased temperature.

Atomic mass is equivalent to the number of __________ in an atom.

A) protons.

B) neutrons.

C) electrons.

D) protons and neutrons.

E) protons and electrons.

D) protons and neutrons.

The major function of potassium is to:

A) influence the pH of body fluids.

B) serve as a salt in bones and teeth.

C) make functional thyroid hormones.

D) exists as the most abundant extracellular fluid.

E) play a role in nerve impulse transmissions and muscle contractions.

E) play a role in nerve impulse transmissions and muscle contractions.

Which of the following is the role of magnesium:

A) it is a major extracellular anion in its tonic form.

B) it is needed to make functional thyroid hormones.

C) it is present in bone, and is an important cofactor for enzyme activity in a number of metabolic reactions.

D) it is the major extracellular cation in its ionic form, and is important for water balance, conduction of nerve impulses, and muscle contraction

E) it is a component of the functional haemoglobin molecule that transports oxygen within red blood cells, as well as a component of some enzyme.

it is present in bone, and is an important cofactor for enzyme activity in a number of metabolic reactions.

An atom with an atomic number of 14 will have __________ electrons in its valence shell.

A) 2

B) 4

C) 8

D) 10

E) 14

B) 4

(2 in inner shell, then 8, then 4 in outer shell) = 14

An atom with 6 protons, 7 neutrons, and 6 electrons shares four pairs of electrons with four other atoms. This atom is now considered to be:

A) stable.

B) an ion.

C) a cation.

D) an anion.

E) a neutral atom.

A) stable.

An atom has 6 protons, 8 neutrons, and 6 electrons. Its atomic mass is:

A) 2

B) 6

C) 8

D) 14

E) 20

D) 14

The atomic number of an atom reveals the number of:

A) protons plus neutrons.

B) protons plus electrons.

C) neutrons plus electrons.

D) protons in the atomic nucleus.

E) electrons in the atomic nucleus.

D) protons in the atomic nucleus.

Isotopes have different numbers of __________; thus they also have different __________.

A) protons; atomic masses.

B) protons; atomic numbers.

C) neutrons; atomic masses.

D) neutrons; atomic numbers.

E) electrons; atomic numbers.

C) neutrons; atomic masses.

An atom that has lost two electrons is called a(n):

A) anion.

B) cation.

C) proton.

D) isotope.

E) radioisotope.

B) cation.

The subatomic particles that are responsible for the chemical behaviour of atoms are the:

A) ions.

B) protons.

C) isotopes.

D) neutrons.

E) electrons.

E) electrons.

17) What is the atomic number of the atom in the diagram at the top of this set: (6 p 6 n imagine diagram is there)

A) 2

B) 3

C) 4

D) 6

E) 12

D) 6

When a pair of electrons is shared equally between two atoms, the bond formed is called:

A) ionic bond.

B) carbon bond.

C) hydrogen bond.

D) polar covalent bond

E) nonpolar covalent bond

E) nonpolar covalent bond

In the chemical reaction, HCl + NaOH →H2O + NaCl, the chemical NaOH is considered as:

A) salt.

B) acid.

C) base.

D) water.

E) product.

C) base.

In order to break a disaccharide down into simple sugar units:

A) carbon atoms must be added to each bond.

B) water molecules must be added to each bond.

C) carbon atoms must be removed from each bond.

D) water molecules must be removed from each bond.

E) water molecules and carbon atoms must be removed from each bond

C) carbon atoms must be removed from each bond.

The reaction sucrose + water → glucose + fructose is an example of a(n):

A) anabolic reaction.

B) synthesis reaction.

C) neutralization reaction.

D) decomposition reaction.

E) double replacement reaction.

D) decomposition reaction.

Monomers are joined together to form more complex molecules through:

A) synthesis reactions.

B) exchange reactions.

C) hydrolysis reactions.

D) neutralisation reactions

E) decomposition reactions

E) double replacement reaction.

A) synthesis reactions.

Hydrogen bonding between water molecules is responsible for:

A) polarity.

B) surface tension.

C) enzyme structure.

D) denaturation of proteins.

E) nonpolar covalent bonding.

B) surface tension.

Which of the following solutions is the weakest acid:

A) a solution with a pH of 2.4.

B) a solution with a pH of 5.2.

C) a solution with a pH of 6.4.

D) a solution with a pH of 8.6.

E) a solution with a pH of 10.1.

C) a solution with a pH of 6.4.

A solution with a pH of 7:

A) is basic.

B) is acidic.

C) is neutral.

D) releases more hydrogen ions than hydroxyl ions into solution.

E) releases more hydrogen ions than hydroxyl ions into solution.

C) is neutral.

Which of the following is an example of an inorganic molecule:

A) RNA.

B) cholesterol.

C) a fatty acid.

D) an amino acid.

E) hydrochloric acid.

E) hydrochloric acid.

Which of these vitamins is NOT fat-soluble:

A) vitamin A.

B) vitamin C.

C) vitamin D.

D) vitamin E.

E) vitamin K.

B) vitamin C.

Glucose and starch are examples of:

A) proteins.

B) steroids.

C) triglycerides.

D) phospholipids.

E) carbohydrates.

E) carbohydrates.

Which of the following groups of chemicals includes ONLY monosaccharides:

A) maltose, sucrose, lactose.

B) fructose, maltose, lactose.

C) fructose, maltose, sucrose.

D) glucose, fructose, maltose.

E) glucose, fructose, galactose.

E) glucose, fructose, galactose.

The organic compounds that function in building tissues and acting as enzymes are the:

A) salts.

B) lipids.

C) proteins.

D) nucleic acids.

E) carbohydrates.

C) proteins.

A lipid containing three fatty acid chains and one glycerol is called:

A) a steroid.

B) glycogen.

C) cholesterol.

D) a triglyceride.

E) a polysaccharide.

C) cholesterol.

Why is ATP categorized as a nucleic acid:

A) ATP contains four fused carbon rings.

B) ATP has a polar region and a nonpolar region.

C) all nucleic acids have an amine and an acid functional group.

D) all nucleic acids, such as ATP, function as catalysts to increase reaction rates.

E) ATP is a modified nucleotide with three phosphate groups, ribose, and adenine.

E) ATP is a modified nucleotide with three phosphate groups, ribose, and adenine.

Which of the following DNA base pairs is complementary:

A) guanine and uracil.

B) adenine and guanine.

C) thymine and guanine.

D) cytosine and adenine.

E) adenine and thymine.

E) adenine and thymine.

(A+T / G+C)

Enzymes:

A) help regulate growth and development.

B) are essential to virtually every biochemical reaction in the body.

C) increase the rate of chemical reactions by at least a million-fold.

D) when absent or destroyed, cause all biochemical reactions to cease.

E) are highly specialized proteins that recognize, bind with, and inactivate bacteria, toxins, and some viruses.

C) increase the rate of chemical reactions by at least a million-fold.

Which of the following statements about enzymes is true:

A) they are not reusable.

B) they are carbohydrates.

C) they are biological catalysts.

D) they are stable at high temperatures.

E) they are required in large amounts in order to be effective.

C) they are biological catalysts.

Saturated fats:

A) have two fatty acid chains.

B) contain many double bonds.

C) exist as solids at room temperature.

D) exist as liquids and are derived from plants.

E) are formed from four interlocking carbon rings.

C) exist as solids at room temperature.

Which of the following substances below is matched with its correct organic group:

A) DNA - lipids.

B) glycerol - proteins.

C) enzymes - proteins.

D) steroids - carbohydrates.

E) monosaccharides - nucleic acids.

C) enzymes - proteins.

Two or more polypeptides combine to form a complex structure called:

A) tertiary structure.

B) primary structure.

C) beta-pleated sheet.

D) secondary structure.

E) quaternary structure.

E) quaternary structure.

Which of the following statements about RNA is true:

A) RNA is a double helix.

B) RNA is single stranded.

C) RNA contains deoxyribose.

D) RNA is found only in the nucleus of the cell.

E) RNA is composed of cytosine, guanine, adenine, and thymine.

B) RNA is single stranded.

The most common steroid is:

A) trans fat.

B) cholesterol.

C) triglyceride.

D) phospholipid.

E) unsaturated fat.

B) cholesterol.

The nucleotide chains of DNA are held together by:

A) ionic bonds.

B) carbon bonds.

C) hydrogen bonds.

D) polar covalent bonds.

E) nonpolar covalent bonds.

C) hydrogen bonds.

Which of the following statements about ATP is false:

A) it is a modified nucleotide.

B) its energy is captured in high-energy hydrogen bonds.

C) it provides the energy needed to drive energy-absorbing chemical reactions.

D) it drives the transport of certain solutes (e.g., amino acids) across cell membranes.

E) it activates contractile proteins in muscle cells so that cells can shorten and perform mechanical work.

B) its energy is captured in high-energy hydrogen bonds.

Glycogen is the storage form of __________ in animals.

A) DNA.

B) lipids.

C) protein.

D) glucose.

E) amino acids.

D) glucose.

__________________ are simple sugars containing between 3 and 7 carbon atoms.

A) Steroids.

B) Proteins.

C) Saturated fats.

D) Polysaccharides.

E) Monosaccharides.

E) Monosaccharides.

Shell 1 of an atom can hold a maximum of __________ electron(s).

A) 1

B) 2

C) 4

D) 8

E) 18

B) 2

Trans fats are oils that have been solidified by the addition of:

A) carbon atoms.

B) oxygen atoms.

C) nitrogen atoms.

D) hydrogen atoms.

E) phosphorus-containing groups.

D) hydrogen atoms.

What type of chemical bond is pictured in Figure 3:

A) ionic bonds.

B) polar covalent bond.

C) single covalent bond.

D) double covalent bond.

E) nonpolar covalent bond.

A) ionic bonds.

(just imagine the picture is there :))

The sugar found in DNA is:

A) starch.

B) ribose.

C) lactose.

D) sucrose.

E) deoxyribose.

E) deoxyribose.

Which of these substances is an enzyme:

A) oxidase.

B) glucose.

C) nucleotide.

D) triglyceride.

E) omega-3 fatty acid.

A) oxidase.

(enzymes end in 'ase')

Nucleotides are composed of:

A) peptide bonds.

B) four fused carbon rings.

C) three fatty acid chains and one glycerol.

D) amino acids with an amine group and an acid group.

E) a phosphate group, a five-carbon sugar, and a nitrogen-containing base.

E) a phosphate group, a five-carbon sugar, and a nitrogen-containing base.

Which one of the following is NOT true about the plasma membrane:

A. it consists of two lipid layers.

B. it contains proteins for specialized functions.

C. it regulates the entry and exit of cell materials.

D. it allows water soluble molecules to pass through easily.

E. its lipid components are primarily phospholipids and cholesterol.

D. it allows water soluble molecules to pass through easily

Which of the following statements is NOT part of the cell theory:

A. the continuity of life has a cellular basis.

B. the human body is composed of 50 to 100 trillion cells.

C. cells are the basic structural and functional unit of living organisms.

D. the activity of an organism depends on its collective cellular activities.

E. the biochemical activities of cells depends on the number of their subcellular structures.

B. the human body is composed of 50 to 100 trillion cells.

The molecules that make the cell surface fuzzy, sticky, and sugar-rich are the:

A. proteins.

B. glycoproteins.

C. phospholipids.

D. lipid molecules.

E. cholesterol molecules.

B. glycoproteins.

Which of the following is NOT a structural component of the nucleus:

A. chromatin.

B. nucleolus.

C. nuclear pores.

D. Golgi apparatus.

E. nuclear envelope.

D. Golgi apparatus.

Nutrients and ions can pass directly from cell to cell through special membrane junctions known as:

A. microvilli.

B. inclusions.

C. desmosomes.

D. gap junctions.

E. tight junctions.

D. gap junctions.

The three major components of the cytoplasm are the:

A. cytosol, inclusions, and nucleoli.

B. cytosol, organelles, and nucleoli.

C. cytosol, organelles, and inclusions.

D. organelles, inclusions, and nucleoli.

E. organelles, inclusions, and ribosomes.

C. cytosol, organelles, and inclusions.

Which of the following is NOT considered a cytoplasmic organelle:

A. cytoplasm.

B. peroxisomes.

C. mitochondria.

D. Golgi apparatus.

E. rough endoplasmic reticulum.

A. cytoplasm.

Ribosomes are found:

A. in the cytoplasm.

B. on the Golgi apparatus.

C. on smooth endoplasmic reticulum.

D. on the rough endoplasmic reticulum.

E. in the cytoplasm and on the rough endoplasmic reticulum.

E. in the cytoplasm and on the rough endoplasmic reticulum.

The organelle that contains enzymes produced by ribosomes and packaged by the Golgi apparatus is the:

A. ribosome.

B. lysosome.

C. peroxisome.

D. Golgi apparatus.

E. rough endoplasmic reticulum.

B. lysosome.

The movement of fluid through the cell membrane from a high pressure area to a lower pressure area is called:

A. osmosis.

B. filtration.

C. diffusion.

D. bulk transport.

E. active transport.

B. filtration.

Passive processes that move substances across membranes:

A. utilize ATP.

B. require no ATP.

C. employ protein pumps.

D. include exocytosis and endocytosis.

E. transport substances against their concentration gradient.

B. require no ATP.

Osmosis transports water across membranes using:

A. ATP.

B. vesicles.

C. aquaporins.

D. solute pumping.

E. sodium-potassium pump.

C. aquaporins.