BOARD REVIEW questions

Patients who receive antihypertensive drugs may experience which of the following adverse effects?

orthostatic hypotension

Patients suffering from angina, hypertension or hyperthyroidism may experience adverse effects such as a dramatic rise in blood pressure and heart rate from which of the following groups of agents?

adrenergic

Individuals taking high doses of NSAIDs over a long period of time may develop peptic ulcer disease (PUD) due to:

reduction in protective prostaglandins within the stomach.

Infection at the injection site decreases the effectiveness of local anesthetics due to:

low pH in tissue

After administration, when a drug enters the bloodstream, what portion of the drug actually exerts the therapeutic effect in biological tissues?

The portion of the drug that is bound to plasma proteins

Stimulation of Beta 1 receptors within the sympathetic autonomic nervous system (SANS) results in all of the following biologic responses EXCEPT:

brochodilation

A prescriber instructs a patient to take a medication before meals. This is indicated on the prescription with which of the following abbreviations?

ac

Bioavailability of a drug means:

The degree to which a drug releases itself from its dosage form to become accessible for its intended effect.

Hepatic insufficiency due to disease or a decrease in liver enzyme activity due to drug interactions may cause a drug:

to stay in the bloodstream longer leading to toxicity.

Precautions must be taken when drugs are administered to geriatric patients because they metabolize drugs much more rapidly and efficiently. However, geriatric patients may not be able to excrete drugs as rapidly and efficiently as a younger person and this may result in toxicity.

the first is false and the second is true

Stimulation of the sympathetic autonomic nervous system (SANS) will result in all of the following biological responses EXCEPT:

Increased digestion

A common oral adverse effect associated with medications such as phenytoin (Dilantin) and amlodipine (Norvasc) is:

gingival hyperplasia

Sympathomimetics are also called:

adrenergic agonists

Stimulation of ONLY Beta 2 receptors within the SANS results in which of the following responses:

bronchodilation

All of the following adverse effects may result from an overdose of insulin EXCEPT:

diabetic keotacidosis

Methotrexate is classified as an antimetabolite drug useful in treating cancer. It has also been used to treat rheumatoid arthritis, in part by altering immunity.

both are true

Which of the following are notable effects of digoxin on cardiac function? (Select all that apply)

Increases the force of contraction

Decreases the rate of contraction

The mechanism of action of local anesthetics involves which of the following?

blocking sodium channels

A very small amount of the anticoagulant warfarin (Coumadin) is available in the bloodstream in its free form to produce its therapeutic effect since it is highly plasma protein bound. Plasma protein‐binding reduces possible drug interactions and resulting toxicity of warfarin when it is combined with other medications.

The first statement is TRUE; the second statement is FALSE.

all of the following are consiered to be physical injuries to oral tissues EXCPET one. Which one is the exception?

erosion

All of the following are variations of the fungal infection candidiasis EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCPETION?

acute hyperplastic (commonly found in pre-existing leukoplakias and does not rub off)

what is the most common cause of cell injury and death?

hypoxia

Your 35-year-old female patient is having difficulty opening her mouth because her face is so stiff. Radiographs reveal generalized widening of the periodontal ligament spaces. She also suffers from Raynaud’s Phenomenon. Which is the best diagnosis to the history?

scleroderma (also called systemic sclerosis, an autoimmune disease with a very poor prognosis affecting more females in the reproductive years. Extra collagen is deposited in the skin and organs causing fibrosis in the lungs and GI, loss of function causing mask-like face with limited mobility, arthritis and sclerodactyly, and cardiovascular and renal problems as disease progresses. Radiographically loss of bone at the angle of the mandible and symmetrical widening of the PDL are seen on dental x-rays.  Only 80% 5-year survival rate.)

Erythema multiforme is noted for the characteristic bull’s eye lesion; oral lesions associated with this condition are usually ulcerative on the lateral borders on the tongue.

both are true

A periapical radiograph of a mandibular molar reveals a normal crown but an elongated and wide pulp chamber and very short roots. What is the most likely diagnosis?

taurodontism

Your patient is 56-year-old male who just moved to town. Overall his teeth and gingiva appear pretty healthy. His last prophy was 4 months; at that appointment he was scheduled for a follow-up visit with the dentist, which he did not keep. Upon examination today you notice a red mucosal lesion on the lateral border of the posterior tongue, which appears to be a possible cancerous lesion. The patient admits to heavy drinking and smoking for many years. Medical history reveals he gets quite a bit of stomach pain and takes over the counter medications to alleviate the stomach pain. His vitals today are BP 124/80 RASIT and pulse 92 bpm. Most likely the red mucosal lesion noted on the lateral border of the tongue based on the history is:

squamous cell carcinoma

Your new patient is a 10-year-old boy; he presents with bilateral symmetric expansion of the posterior mandible involving the ascending rami.  Upon exposure of radiographs, you see multilocular, expansile radiolucencies bilaterally in the same distinct locations as clinical features. He has no pain, but his mother is concerned and states that his sibling shares similar findings. The most likely diagnosis is:

chrubism (an autosomal dominant inheritance that occurs in children involving bilateral posterior mandibular and ascending rami swellings. Radiographic appearance features multilocular expansile radiolucencies. Gardner syndrome features osteomas that develop during puberty along with multiple odontomas, hyperdontia - supernumerary and impacted teeth. Most patients with Gardner syndrome also exhibit epidermoid cysts of the skin. Fibrous dysplasia is a developmental bone condition in which abnormal fibrous tissue causes the bones to expand, may involve one bone or multiple bones. Radiographic features “ground-glass”, margins are not well-defined. Ectodermal dysplasia features include failure of development of two or more ectodermal derived tissues – teeth, sweat glands, hairs, nails often hypoplastic or missing, along with hypodontia.)

Your 46-year-old patient is deaf because of Schwannomas on both acoustic nerves. She has numerous firm smooth nodules on her skin as well as café-au-lait spots. Her eyes have Lisch nodules, and she has rough pigmented lesions (Crowe sign) in her armpits. Which is the best diagnosis to the history?

Neurofibromatosis is a relatively common disorder with approximately 50% of the cases inherited.  This condition is caused by a mutation in the tumor suppressor gene. A complication is the development of cancer, malignant schwanoma reported in 5 % of the cases.

Your 13-year-old patient has large irregular bony-hard masses at the angles of the mandible. She has numerous impacted and supernumerary teeth. Additionally, there is a family history of colon cancer. Which is the best diagnosis to the history?

Gardner syndrome is a rare disorder often first discovered by the dental professional due to its intraoral manifestations. Gardner syndrome is considered to be part of a spectrum of diseases characterized by familial colorectal polyposis. Up to 90% of the patients demonstrate skeletal abnormalities, the most common being osteomas. Most patients show one or several epidermoid cysts of the skin. Dental abnormalities include increased prevalence of odontomas, supernumerary teeth and impacted teeth. There is a high rate of malignant transformation of bowel polyps into invasive adenocarcinoma. By age 30 about 50% of patients with Gardner syndrome will develop colorectal carcinoma. Prophylactic colectomy is usually recommended.

A 48-year-old African American patient has a grayish-white area with a coarsely wrinkled appearance, found bilaterally on the buccal mucosa. When the buccal mucosa is retracted the lesion somewhat disappears, this lesion mostly likely is:

Leukoedema is located on the buccal mucosa and appears as a gray-white film giving the mucosa an opalescent appearance, most commonly found in African American ethnic group.

Which forms of anemia produce a “hair-on-end” pattern of bone formation on the flat bones of the skull, with a thickened diploe and course trabeculae?

Thalessemia (Mediterranean Disease) exhibits “hair-on-end” and “honeycomb”  with radiographically thinning of lamina dura and circular radiolucencies in alveolar bone. Sickle cell anemia is hereditary, more common in females, affects African-Americans and id usually diagnosed before age30, exhibits osseous changes. The prognosis is unstable with many fatalities. In Iron deficiency anemia, the blood lacks adequate healthy red blood cells.

Prodromal symptoms of pain and burning at the site where a lesion is about to occur are representative of which of the following?

Secondary herpes causes prodromal symptoms of pain and burning at the site where a lesion is about to occur. Primary syphilis exhibits a small, painless open sore/ulcer called a chancre. Secondary syphilis exhibit skin rash usually on the palms of the hands and soles of feet, muscle aches, joint pain, basically feeling ill. Infectious mononucleosis may begin with fatigue, sore throat, and swollen, painful lymph nodes in the neck.

All of the following are viral infections that affect the oral cavity EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

Syphilis is an easily spread infection caused by the bacteria Treponema pallidum.

A patient with the following clinical features is most likely suffering from what disorder?

• Exophthalmos

• Nervousness

• Hypertension

• Sweating

• Tachycardia

• Weight loss

• Insomnia

Hyperthyroidism is a condition in which the thyroid gland makes too much thyroid hormone, features include increased thyroid hormones and increased metabolic rate, exophthalmos (bulging eyes) and diffuse goiter.   Hyperparathyroidism is over activity of the parathyroid glands resulting in excess production of parathyroid hormone. The parathyroid hormone regulates calcium and phosphate levels (mineral metabolism).  Occasionally a patient with undiagnosed hyperparathyroidism presents a lesion termed “Brown Tumor” due to the presence of old hemorrhage in the lesion. Hypothyroidism is a condition in which the thyroid gland does not make enough thyroid hormone, underactive thyroid more common in women over 60 leading to health problems such as obesity, joint pain, and heart disease.

The type of cyst usually associated with mandibular canines and premolars located mid root area between tooth is called a/an:

Lateral periodontal cysts are named for their location which is located in the mid-root area of premolars and canines. Dentigerous cysts are the most common developmental odontogenic cysts and develop around the crown of unerupted teeth, resulting from proliferation of the reduced enamel epithelium. An eruption cyst is a dentigerous cyst pushed ahead by erupting tooth, soft tissue equivalent of dentigerous cyst. The Odontogenic keratocyst (OKC) also known as keratocystic odontogenic tumor (KOT) is the 2nd most common developmental odontogenic cyst and is a component of Gorlin-Goltz syndrome. Most OKC occur in the posterior body of the mandible and ramus; after excision they have high recurrence rate.

pain is the cardinal sign of inflammation that is known in Latin as

Dolor is the Latin word denoting the cardinal sign of inflammation for pain. Rubor is redness, calor is heat, tumor is swelling, and pallor is paleness.

Which of the following is an acute systemic disease characterized primarily by inflammation, necrosis, and suppuration, initially involving paranasal sinuses, orbit, bronchi or intestines?

Mucormycosis is an opportunistic fungal infection caused saprobic organisms class Zygomycetes, common in uncontrolled insulin-dependent diabetics. Exhibits nasal obstruction, and bloody discharge, facial swelling (cellulitis), pain or headache. Actinomycosis is an infectious bacterial disease causing swelling and inflammation leading to a pus-filled abscesses. Histoplasmosis is a disease caused by fungus living in the environment, usually associated with large amounts of bird or bat droppings. Lung infections occur after a person inhales airborne microscopic fungal spores. Coccidioidomycosis (Valley Fever) is a fungus found in soil of dry, low rainfall areas.

Thyrodglossal tract cyst

is developmental; in the thyroglossal tract. Usually affects young adults under 20 years of age. Clinically it is a painless, movable swelling located at midline of neck, usually less than 3cm in size.

Dermoid cyst

is found usually at birth or in young children. Found in the oral cavity, anterior floor of the mouth, clinical features include a dough like consistency and a few millimeters to several centimeters in size, usually located at the midline of the floor of the mouth.

Lymphoepithelial cyst

is usually located at the lateral posterior borders of the touch and is a slow growing, movable mass 1 -10 millimeters in size. Common in young adults and when found intraorally it can have a pink to yellow color.

Aneurysmal bone cyst

is a reactive cyst. Etiologic theories include Arteriovenous shunt – a benign fibro-osseous lesion in the area alters blood vessels or Trauma – trauma ruptures a blood vessel, and blood accumulates outside the wall. Age affected usually under 30 years. May appear radiographically as a hazy, gray, radiolucent area; cystic with a “soap bubble” appearance or multilocular pattern can be present. No epithelial lining – a “pseudocyst”.

The school nurse at the local elementary school contacted the State Department of Health, Office of Oral Health, with some concerns about the students in the school. During routine checkups, the nurse noticed a high incidence of dental neglect within the school population. This was evidenced by severe decay, poor dietary habits and inadequate home care. The Oral Health Department sent surveys to the parents of the children in the school regarding dietary conditions, socioeconomic status of the household, oral health home care procedures, and access to routine dental care. Oral hygiene and caries status of the students was assessed in the classroom with use of the plaque and the DMFT indices.

The use of surveys and classroom examination are integral components of 

Conducting a needs assessment 

A task force appointed by the Office of Oral Health to obtain approval for a school dental screening and treatment day contacted the school principal. This is an example of a(n):

Implementation strategy 

The Office of Oral Health analyzed data gathered from the questionnaires and surveys. They unanimously agreed to increase access to dental care for low income families. This is an example of a(n): 

Program goal 

A special committee is appointed by the health department to review objectives and outcomes of a planned program. This is part of an ongoing process known as 

Program evaluation 

When analyzing the DMFT data for this population, a high D value and relatively low M and F value indicates that this group most likely 

Does not have regular access to dental care

Comparing the group DMFT data obtained at the beginning of the program and 90 days later is an example of:

Program evaluation

The amount of untreated dental caries in this population is known as the 

Caries prevalence 

 

You perform an assessment of the community’s needs that includes a description of the target populations by age, gender and socioeconomic status. This assessment is called the:  

Community profile 

You survey the middle school students to assess their perception of how susceptible they are to tobacco addiction and to oral cancer, and whether they believe it is worth it to quit (or not begin) using tobacco. Which of the following health promotion tools are you using? 

Health Belief Model 

What would be the first step in planning your programs? 

Planning an educational session for middle school students and contacting the principal to arrange for future sessions.

You use your research on the elderly population to write an article on the need for better access to oral healthcare. Your research has a P value of <.01. This means your research study is: 

A p-value less than .05 is statistically significant and means that the results were due to chance only 5 times out of 100.  So a P-value of less than .01 is highly statistically significant.

Which of the following type of sampling is used in this study? 

systematic

Systematic technique samples every nth subject, which can be determined by dividing the total population size by the desired sampling size.

The research hypothesis established is:  There is no significant correlation between tobacco use and oral lesions.  This is an example of what type of hypothesis? 

null 

Null hypothesis states the research question in the form of a negative outcome.

If part of the program implementation includes smoking cessation, which stages must an individual undergo to successfully move from smoking to smoking cessation? 

precontemplation, contemplation, preparation, action, and maintenance

Which of the following allows for the study to be regarded as having internal validity? 

the study measured what is had intended to measure

The degree to which an instrument measures what it is intended to measure is called:

Validity

An epidemic occurring over a very wide area and affecting a large portion of the population is a(n):

Pandemic

The first step in the scientific method of research is to:

Formulate a question

The state dental department reported that 90% of the population of the state population had periodontal diseases. The state dental hygiene association conducted a survey that showed that 50% of practicing dental hygienists had two or more unfilled appointment hours per day. What is the best explanation for the difference in data?

The state dental department based its figure on need for care; the dental hygiene association on current demand for care.

The effectiveness of a community health program can be measured by:

The degree to which it meets program goals.

The research hypothesis established is: There is no significant correlation between tobacco use and oral lesions. This is an example of what type of hypothesis?

precontemplation, preparation, contemplation and maintenance

You perform an assessment of the community’s needs that includes a description of the target populations by age, gender and socioeconomic status. This assessment is called the:

Community profile

When a patient comes to a dental office, the first procedure is an examination. The first step in a public health program is

Needs assessment

Efforts to exclude highly sugared snacks from school vending machines is an example of which of the following?

Health promotion

The value used to describe statistical significance is called the:

A p-values determine statistical significance by stating how likely it is that the study came to a false conclusion. Correlation is a statistical method of determining whether a variation in one variable is related to a variation in another variable. A t-test is used to analyze the difference between two means.

Medicare is government-run medical insurance for those 65 years of age and older. Medicare is funded jointly by federal and state government.

The first statement is TRUE, the second statement is FALSE.

Demand for dental care is all of the following EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION?

Deemed necessary after assessment

The Office of Oral Health analyzed data gathered from the questionnaires and surveys. They unanimously agreed to increase access to dental care for low income families. This is an example of a(n):

Program goal

A type of data used in assessment that is objective and measurable is  _______________ data.

Quantitative

You survey the middle school students to assess their perception of how susceptible they are to tobacco addiction and to oral cancer, and whether they believe it is worth it to quit (or not begin) using tobacco. Which of the following health promotion tools are you using?

Health Belief Model

A special committee is appointed by the health department to review objectives and outcomes of a planned program. This is part of an ongoing process known as

Program evaluation

A trial run of a study to determine the feasibility and practicality of a public health program is called a:

Pilot study

A pilot study is a smaller version of a larger study that is conducted to prepare for that study. A longitudinal study is a correlational research study that involves repeated observations of the same items over long periods of time. A control group study uses a control group to compare to an experimental group in a test of a causal hypothesis.

A pivotal issue hindering dental care delivery in the United States is:

Access to and accessing of care

Which of the following formats would you use to most effectively ensure the highest retention of information about oral cancer in a group of adults?

Demonstrating an oral examination followed by a discussion and a return demonstration by the group

In writing a behavioral objective, it is important to include the verb that depicts what the learner is expected to do. For an objective that describes brushing the teeth, which of the following verbs is the best learner performance term?

Demonstrate

You have just exposed and processed a periapical radiograph (film) and decide you want to increase the contrast of the image. What changes would you make in exposure to increase the contrast while maintaining the appropriate radiographic density of the image?

Decrease kVp

Decreasing or lowering the kVp results in high subject contrast, and many areas of black and white are seen. mA and exposure time control the density (overall darkness/blackness) of a dental radiograph. Operating kVp solely affect contrast.

An occlusal pediatric projection of the mandible requires positioning of the central ray of the x- ray beam at a ___ degree angle to the film.

-55

The correct vertical angulation of the cone for a pediatric mandibular occlusal projection is -55 degrees. Negative angulation (cone pointed upward) is necessary for production of an image of the mandibular anterior teeth. A -90-degree angle is required for production of an occlusal cross-sectional projection of the mandible, which demonstrates buccal and lingual views.

Most of the crystals on a dental x-ray film are made up of which compound?

Silver bromide

Silver bromide make up 95% of the crystals in the film emulsion. Potassium bromide slows down action of developer, silver iodide is 5%, and silver sulfide makes latent image or sensitivity speck.

The most common cellular effects that occur as a result of exposure of biological tissues to dental x-radiation is:

sub-lethal injury

Sub-lethal injury to cells is the most common result of dental radiation exposure to body tissues. Cellular damage occurs but is repaired with no alteration in the structure or function of the cell.

From the list below, which statement is incorrect, regarding the Maximum Permissible Dose (MPD) of radiation for a pregnant dentist or dental hygienist?  0.5 rems/9 months

The Maximum Permissible Dose (MPD) of radiation for a pregnant dentist or dental hygienist of stochastic effects are 20 mSv (20,000 uSv) per year.

If pregnant, an occupationally exposed person (dentist, dental hygienist) becomes a non-occupationally exposed person regarding MPD. The Maximum Permissible Dose (MPD) no longer establishes a “safe” level of radiation exposure for an occupationally exposed person.

Your usual settings for molar radiographs are 75 kVp, 10 mA, and an exposure time of 36 impulses with a 12” position indicating device (PID). Your next patient is a 280 lb. man with abundant soft tissue around the face. What change in exposure settings should you make for this patient?

Increase exposure time

Increase exposure time as it may be difficult to penetrate the tissues, also the thickness of the patient’s tissues may not allow the x-rays to reach the film.

Which measurement of exposure is most important in radiation biology?

Effective dose

Effective dose is most important as it measures risk and allows comparison of the risks of biologic damage from different exposures covering different types and amounts of tissues. Effective dose is measured in Sv.

When taking a panoramic radiograph, what must be perpendicular to the floor?

midsagittal plane

The midsagittal plane is a vertical line that divides the head equally in half. Correct head positioning in the panoramic machine will place the midsagittal plane at a 90-degree angle or perpendicular to the floor. The Frankfort plane is the horizontal plane that is depicted by drawing a line from the tragus of the ear to the infraorbital notch and should be parallel with the floor. The ala-tragus line routes from the lower margin of the ala of the nose to the superior borderline of the tragus of the ear.

Which of the following would appear radiolucent on a radiograph?

Maxillary sinus

The maxillary sinus appears radiolucent on a radiograph and is a paired concavity located superior to the maxillary posterior teeth. Anterior nasal spine, genial tubercles, and mental ridge all appear radiopaque on a radiograph.

Which of the following apical inflammatory lesions appear radiopaque?

Condensing osteitis

Condensing osteitis is a periapical inflammatory disease resulting from a reaction to an infection of periodontal origin, this radiopaque lesion causes more bone production to form around the apex of a non-vital tooth. All other choices appear radiolucent.

Which of the following are true regarding the latent image?

It is formed after exposure, but before processing.

The latent image is formed after exposure, but before processing. The latent image is an invisible change produced on film, resulting from the exposure of the film by x-rays passing through the patient.

A dental hygienist stands 3 feet away from the patient during a radiographic procedure, without a barrier between her and the patient. She receives an effective dose of scattered radiation equal to 80 µSv. If she moves to a distance of 6 feet away from the patient, how much scattered radiation will she receive? Use the inverse square law to solve this question.

20 µSv

At a distance of 3 feet the operator receives a dose of 80 µSv. If she moves to a distance of 6 feet, she increases the distance by a factor of 2. Her radiation dose will decrease by a factor of 2 squared, or ¼ of the dose she receives at 3 feet. So, at a distance of 6 feet, she receives a dose of (80 µSv) x ¼ = 20 µSv.

Which of the following is NOT true regarding x-rays?.

Consist of particles with mass equal to an electron.

X-rays are invisible weightless bundles of energy, they are photons with no mass. All other choices are correct. They travel at speed of light, can cause ionization and can cancer from cumulative effects in immature tissues.

How much added filtration is required for an x-ray unit that operates at 80 kVp?

2.5mm AI

2.5 mm Al is required for units operating 70 kVp or more. Units operating at less than 70 kVp should have the equivalent of 1.5 mm aluminum. Filtration removes the low- energy x-rays from the beam.

Which of the following is/are true regarding cone beam computed tomography (CBCT)?

Provides views in 3 planes of space (3D).

Correctly unselected

Eliminates superimposition of anatomic structures.

Incorrectly selected

Produces images with minimal distortion.

Correctly unselected

ALL answers are correct.

ALL are correct

CBCT provides views in 3 planes of space (3D), eliminates   superimposition of anatomic structures and produces images with minimal distortion.

All of the following would be likely to appear on a maxillary posterior radiograph except one. Which one is the exception?

Nasal fossa

An increase in the kilovoltage peak (kVp) setting on the control panel of the radiographic machine, will result in which of the following effects on the useful beam/primary beam?

An increase in penetrating power of the x-rays

The kilovoltage peak (kVp) setting on the console controls the strength and penetrating ability of the x-ray beam. When the kVp value is increased, the useful beam will have more penetrating power, resulting in a darker, denser film. Kilovoltage peak refers to the quality of the x-ray beam.

An increase in the milliamperage (mA) setting on the control panel will result in:

a denser or darker film.

An increase in the milliamperage setting on the control panel will increase the number of x-rays in the useful beam. An increase in the number of x-rays will produce a denser, darker film. The term density refers to the overall blackness of the film rather than the appearance of objects within the film.

Which of the following steps are different in the bisecting angle technique compared to the paralleling technique for periapical radiographs?

Receptor placement and vertical angulation.

Sensor placement and vertical angulation – In the bisecting angle technique the sensor is placed as close as possible to the crown of the tooth, not parallel to the long axis such as in the paralleling technique. In the bisecting angle technique, the vertical angulation of the central ray is perpendicular to the line that bisects the angle between long axis of tooth and sensor.

Which of the following changes will reduce dental diagnostic radiation exposure to patients?

Change from a short (8”) to a long (12”) position indicating device.

Tumor necrosis factor alpha (TNM-α) is responsible for all of the following EXCEPT:

Promotes tissue repair stimulating fibroblast growth.

TNF-α does not promote tissue repair by stimulating fibroblast growth. It actually induces apoptosis of fibroblast cells. TNF-α is an important inflammatory mediator that is responsible for stimulating osteoclasts, neutrophils and matrix metalloproteinases; all of which contribute to the breakdown of the gingival tissue.

Which of the following type of bone graft material is taken from another person (cadavers)?

Alloplast

Allograft

Autograft

Xenograft

Allograft

Bone grafting material that is taken from another human (living or deceased) other than the individual receiving the graft is termed an allograft. Bone grafting materials harvested from the individuals’ own body is termed an autograft. Bone grafting material harvested from a non-human species is termed a xenograft. An alloplast is a graft of synthetic or inert material.

Lipopolysaccharides (LPS) are found in the outer cell membrane of gram-negative bacteria. LPS act as endotoxins and elicit a strong host immune response.

Both statements are TRUE.

Both statements are FALSE.

The first statement is TRUE. The second statement is FALSE.

The first statement is FALSE. The second statement is TRUE.

Both are TRUE

Both statements are true. Gram-negative bacteria have an inner and outer cell membrane and lipopolysaccharides can be found in the outer membrane. The presence of gram-negative bacteria increase the presence of LPS and cause the host’s immune response to respond.

A patient presents to your office with generalized 4-5 mm probing depths. Radiographs reveal 3-4 mm of interdental CAL. The periodontal disease classification is:

Stage II

Stage IV

Stage III

Stage I

Stage II

Stage I periodontal disease is the initial phase and has 1-2 mm interdental CAL with max. probing depths of ≤4 mm. Stage II periodontal disease is the moderate phase and has 3-4 mm interdental CAL with max probing depths of ≤5 mm. Stage III and IV periodontal disease are the severe phase. Both stages include ≥5 mm interdental CAL with probing depths ≥6 mm. Stage IV periodontal disease has a need for rehabilitation due to the complexities.