ITN 101 Final Review (Quizzes 7-12)

What software allows you to define VMs and manage resource allocation and sharing among VMs on a host computer?

Hypervisor

What virtual, logically defined device operate primarily at the data link layer to pass frames between nodes?

Virtual Switch - a software-based network switch that connects virtual machines to each other and to the physical network.

Which device can manage traffic to multiple servers in a cluster so all servers equally share the traffic?

Load Balancer

With which network connection type does the VM obtain IP addressing information from its host?

NAT mode - a networking mode where the virtual machine shares the host's IP address and accesses the external network through the host.

Which type of switch connects all devices in a rack to the rest of the network?

ToR - top-of-rack switch that aggregates traffic from multiple servers within the rack and connects to the broader network.

Which cloud service model gives software developers access to multiple platforms for testing code?

PaaS - Platform as a Service that provides a framework for developers to build, test, and deploy applications without managing the underlying infrastructure.

When shopping for a new router, what does the MTBF tell you?

How long devices like this one will last on average until the next failure. MTBF - Mean Time Between Failures

What information does the switchport port-security command use to restrict access to a switch's interface?

MAC address

Which of the following features of a network connection between a switch and server is not improved by link aggregation?

Speed - While link aggregation increases bandwidth by combining multiple network connections, it does not inherently increase the speed of individual packets transmitted across the links.

Which cloud management technique executes a series of tasks in a workflow?

Orchestration

How many bits of a class A IP address are used for host information?

24 bits are used for host information in a Class A IP address.

What is the formula for determining the number of possible hosts on a network?

2h – 2 = Z

where h is the number of host bits and Z is the total number of usable hosts.

Which of the following is not a good reason to segment a network?

To increase the number of networking devices on a network

What is the greatest number of bits you could borrow from the host portion of a class B subnet mask and still have at least 130 hosts per subnet?

8 bits

What do well-chosen subnets accomplish?

Network documentation is easier to manage.

Which formulas can be used to calculate the magic number?

2^{h and} 256 – the interesting octet

Which hexadecimal block in an IPv6 address is used for the Subnet ID?

The fourth one

Which assignment technique requires a RADIUS server?

Dynamic VLAN assignment

Which port mode on a switch enables that port to manage traffic for multiple VLANs?

Trunk (mode allows a switch port to carry traffic for multiple VLANs, enabling the management of VLAN-tagged packets. )

Which IEEE standard determines how VLANs work on a network?

The IEEE [ 802.1Q ] standard defines the mechanisms for implementing VLANs on a network, including tagging and frame handling.

Which OSI layer is responsible for directing data from one LAN to another?

Network layer

What kind of route is created when a network administrator configures a router to use a specific path between nodes?

Static route

When a router can't determine a path to a message's destination, where does it send the message?

Gateway of last resort

A routing protocol's reliability and priority are rated by what measurement?

AD

Which routing protocol does an edge router use to collect data to build its routing tables for paths across the Internet?

BGP - Border Gateway Protocol, used for exchanging routing information between different autonomous systems.

What is the lowest layer of the OSI model at which LANs and WANs support the same protocols?

Layer 3

What kind of device can monitor a connection at the demarc but cannot interpret data?

Smartjack

What specifications define the standards for cable broadband?

DOCSIS - Data Over Cable Service Interface Specification, a set of standards for the transmission of data over cable television systems.

What method does a GSM network use to separate data on a channel?

TDMA - Time Division Multiple Access, a method that divides a channel into time slots for multiple users to share.

Which of these cellular technologies offers the fastest speeds?

LTE-A - Long Term Evolution Advanced, an enhancement of LTE that provides higher data rates and improved performance.

Your organization has just approved a special budget for a network security upgrade. What procedure should you conduct to develop your recommendations for the upgrade priorities?

Posture Assessment

• A comprehensive evaluation of the current security measures, identifying vulnerabilities and determining the necessary improvements for effective protection.

Which type of DoS attack orchestrates an attack bounced off uninfected computers?

DRDoS attack

A company accidentally sends a newsletter with a mistyped website address. The address points to a website that has been spoofed by hackers to collect information from people who make the same typo. What kind of attack is this?

Phishing

A former employee discovers six months after he starts work at a new company that his account credentials still give him access to his old company's servers. He demonstrates his access to several friends to brag about his cleverness and talk badly about the company. What kind of attack is this?

Insider threat

What type of attack relies on spoofing?

Deauth Attack

You need to securely store handheld radios for your network technicians to take with them when they're troubleshooting problems around your campus network. What's the best way to store these radios so all your techs can get to them and so you can track who has the radios?

Smart Locker

Leading up to the year 2000, many people expected computer systems the world over to fail when clocks turned the date to January 1, 2000. What type of threat was this?

Logic Bomb

Which of the following attack simulations detect vulnerabilities and attempt to exploit them?

Pen testing and Red team - Blue team exercise (simulations are designed to identify weaknesses in a system's security and evaluate the effectiveness of defense mechanisms.)

Which of the following is considered a secure protocol?

SSH - Secure Shell

A company wants to have its employees sign a document that details some project-related information that should not be discussed outside the project's team members. What type of document should they use?

NDA (Non-Disclosure Agreement)

At what layer of the OSI model do proxy servers operate?

Layer 7 - Application Layer

Which of the following ACL commands would permit web-browsing traffic from any IP address to any IP address?

access-list acl_2 permit https any any

Which of the following criteria can a packet-filtering firewall not use to determine whether to accept or deny traffic?

Application layer data

What information in a transmitted message might an IDS use to identify network threats?

Signature

Which principle ensures auditing processes are managed by someone other than the employees whose activities are being audited?

Separation of duties

Who is responsible for the security of hardware on which a public cloud runs?

The cloud provider

Which of the following is not one of the AAA services provided by RADIUS and TACACS+?

Administration - is not a service provided by RADIUS and TACACS+. The AAA services typically include Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting.

Which device would allow an attacker to make network clients use an illegitimate default gateway?

DHCP server.

Which policy ensures messages are discarded when they don't match a specific firewall rule?

Implicit deny

Active Directory and 389 Directory Server are both compatible with which directory access protocol?

Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)

While troubleshooting a recurring problem on your network, you want to examine the TCP messages being exchanged between a server and a client. Which tool should you use on the server?

Wireshark

One of your coworkers downloaded several, very large video files for a special project she's working on for a new client. When you run your network monitor later this afternoon, what list will your coworker's computer likely show up on?

Top listeners

What command requests the next record in an SNMP log?

SNMP Get Next

What port do SNMP agents listen on?

Port 161

Your roommate has been hogging the bandwidth on your router lately. What feature should you configure on the router to limit the amount of bandwidth his computer can utilize at any one time?

Traffic shaping - a technique used to manage data transfer rates by prioritizing or limiting bandwidth for specific devices or applications.

What field in an IPv4 packet is altered to prioritize video streaming traffic over web surfing traffic?

DiffServ - is a field in the IPv4 header that enables differentiated services for various types of network traffic, allowing prioritization of packets based on their intended use, such as video streaming.

Which power backup method will continually provide power to a server if the power goes out during a thunderstorm?

Online UPS - a type of uninterruptible power supply that provides a continuous power supply by converting incoming AC power to DC and then back to AC, ensuring a stable power source for connected devices during outages.

Which type of disaster recovery site contains all the equipment you would need to get up and running again after a disaster, and yet would require several weeks to implement?

Cold site

Which log type is used to prove who did what and when?

Audit log

Which data link layer flow control method offers the most efficient frame transmission when sending large volumes of data?

Selective repeat sliding window