Biochem Final

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Last updated 11:09 PM on 5/3/23
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154 Terms

1
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covalent catalysis
when enzymes derive much of their rate acceleration from formation of covalent bonds between enzyme and substrate
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nucleophilic
the side chains of amino acids in proteins offer a variety of \_________ centers for catalysis
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amines, carboxylates, aryls, alkyl hydroxyls, imidazoles, and thiols
what are six examples of nucleophilic centers
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general acid base catalysis
what is the most abundant form of catalysis
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specific acid-base catalysis
acid base catalysis that involves H+ or OH- that diffuses into the catalytic center
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general acid-base catalysis
acid-base catalysis that involves a proton transfer in the transition state (ionizable groups on the protein provide the H+ transferred in the transition state)
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metal ion catalysis
metalloenzymes bind metal very tightly or require the metal ion to maintain its stable and native state. The metals stabilize the increased electron density or negative charge that develop during the catalysis reaction
8
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general acid base catalysis
what type of catalysis does serine proteases use
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serine, histidine, aspartic acid
what three amino acids are in the catalytic triad
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burst kinetics
the serine protease mechanism involves what type of kinetics
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orients histidine
what is the function of aspartic acid in the serine protease mechanism
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acts as a general acid and base
what is the function of histidine in the serine protease mechanism
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forms covalent bond with peptide to be cleaved
what is the function of serine in the serine protease mechanism
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tetrahedral oxyanion intermediate
what type of intermediate is made in the serine protease mechanism
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aspartic acid; histidine; serine
\_______ positions an immobilized \____ in the active site which acts as an active site base and abstracts a proton from \__________
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oxyanion hole
tetrahedral intermediates are stabilized by a pair of amide groups called the \_____________. These are found on serine and glycine
17
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somewhere in the pathway
where are allosteric effectors usually produced
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feedback inhibition
A method of metabolic control in which the end product of a metabolic pathway acts as an inhibitor of an enzyme within that pathway.
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sigmoid (S shaped)
what does the kinetics of allosteric regulation look like
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cooperative
binding of one substrate molecule to a protein molecule in allosteric regulation makes it easier for additional substrate molecules to bind to protein, therefore, substrate binding is \_____________--
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no
do feedback inhibitors (final product) resemble the starting product it inhibits?
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oligomeric
allosteric enzymes typically have an \______________ organization aka they are composed of more than one polypeptide chain and each subunit has a binding site for substrate and a distinct binding sire for effectors
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confirmational changes
regulatory effects exerted on the enzyme's activity are achieved by \____________________ occurring in the protein when effector metabolites bind
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MWC model
model that says proteins exist in two states: R (relaxed) and T (taut). T confirmation is greatly favored when no ligands present but substrate binds to R more when it is around. Substrate binding is cooperative. Equilibrium between conformational states
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R;T
in the MWC model, allosteric activators bind only to the \________ state and allosteric inhibitors only bind to the \____ state
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KNF model
allosteric regulation model that relies on the idea that ligand binding triggers a confirmational change in the protein. If oligomeric- one subunit confirmational change can trigger anothers. It is sequential model.
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serine, threonine, tyrosine
what three amino acids are phosphorylated
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kinases
what type of enzyme does phosphorylation
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phosphatases
what type of enzyme does reverse phosphorylation/ removes phosphoryl groups
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true
t/f: kianses and phosphatases themselves are targets of regulation
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intrasteric control
kinases are often regulated by \____________ in which a regulatory subunit has a pseudosubstrate sequence that mimics the target sequence which lacks the phosphorylatable residue (-OH group)
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catalytic domain and regulatory domain
protein kinase A has what two subunits
33
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carboxylation
what is the addition of a carboxyl group called
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acetylation
what is the addition of an acetyl group called
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glycosylation
what is the attachment of a sugar molecule to the protein or addition of ubiquitin to free amino group called
36
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adenylation, uridylation, ADP-ribosylation
what three covalent modifications to enzymes require nucleoside triphosphates (ATP, UTP)
37
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oxygen transport and oxygen transport
what are hemoglobin (blood) and myoglobin (muscle) used for respectively
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michaelis-menten
myoglobin (Mb) displays \____________ O2 binding curves which resemble allosteric enzyme substrate saturation
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sigmoid
hemoglobin (Hb) displays \___________ O2 binding curves which obeys classic substrate saturation behavior
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no
are Hb and Mb enzymes
41
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heme
a polphyrin ring system complexing an iron ion as its prostetic group
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quarternary
oxygen binding by Hb induces \_____________ structure change
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salt bridges
\_____________ that stabilize deoxy-Hb are broken in oxy-Hb
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H+, CO2, Cl-, 2,3 BPG
what four things promotes dissociation of oxygen from hemoglobin
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2,3 BPG
what is an allosteric inhibitor of hemoglobin
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higher; lower
fetal hemoglobin has a \______affinity for O2 because it has a \__________ affinity for BPG
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flavoproteins (1-2); coenzyme Q (1-2); cytochromes (1); iron-sulfur (1); protein-bound copper (1)
what are the five different electron carriers in the ETC and how many electron transfers do they carry out
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FMN, Fe-S
what prosthetic groups does complex one have
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FAD, Fe-S
what prosthetic groups does complex two have
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Hemes, Fe-S
what prosthetic groups does complex three have
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Hemes, CuA, CuB
what prosthetic groups does complex four have
52
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complex 1
which complex in ETC accepts electrons from NADH and is thus the primary link between TCA and ETC/OP
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complex 2
which complex includes succinate dehydrogenase (succinate --\> fumarate), providing a direct link between TCA and ET
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complex 3
which complex in ETC is the where UQH2 is the substrate
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complex 4
which complex in ETC reduces oxygen
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NADH dehydrogenase
complex one is called what
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succinate dehydrogenase
complex two is called what
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ubiquinone-cytochrome c oxidoreductase
complex three is called what
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cytochrome c oxidase
complex IV is called what
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ATP synthase
proton diffusion through \_________________ drives ATP synthesis
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transmembrane channel that H+ move through
the Fo complex of ATP synthase forms what
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O (open)
the _ site in ATP synthase has low affinity for ligands and is thus inactive
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L (loose)
the _ site in ATP synthase has loose affinity for ligands and is thus inactive
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T (tight)
the _ site in ATP synthase has high affinity for ligands and is thus active
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ATP-ADP translocase
what enzyme mediates the movement of ATP and ADP across the mitochondrial membrane. It is a coupled process, in which ATP is moved out concomitantly with ADP's movement in
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1H+; 3H+; 4H+
Every ATP transported out costs \______ and one ATP synthesis about \______. Thus, synthesis and exporting 1 ATP require \__________
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10
the electron transport chain yields \________ H+ pumped out per electron pair from NADH to oxygen
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6
for electrons entering as succinate (FADH2) about \_________H+ pumped per electron pair to oxygen
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10/3.7 \= 2.7ATP
what is the phosphate/oxygen ratio for mitochondrial electron transport of ATP/NADH
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6/3.7 \= 1.6ATP
what is the phosphate/oxygen ratio for mitochondrial electron transport of ATP/FADH2
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nitrogen of amino and oxygen of hydroxyl
what two can act as a nucleophile in metabolic reactions?
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pH\= pKa + log(A-/HA)
what is the henderson hasselback equation
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Pyrrolysine
what amino acid is found in methanogenic archaea and bacteria but not humans, is polar with a weak basic side chain, is identified as the 22nd AA, and its abbreviation is Pyl or O
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the lysine residues are neutral which eliminate electrostatic repulsion between the R groups
poly-lysine is a random coil when the pH is less than 11, while it forms an a-helix if the pH is raised to greater than 12. This is because at pH 12:
75
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proline and hydroxyproline
\_________ and \_________ acts as helix breakers due to their unique structure, which fixes the value of the Ca-N-C bond angle
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Lys and Asp
an electrostatic interaction might occur within a protein between which of the following amino acid pairs at typical physiological pH
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cooperativity, stability, bringing catalytic sites together, genetic economy and efficiency
what are the structural and functional advantages of quarternary structure
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amino acid sequence
all the information necessary for folding of the peptide chain into its native structure is contained in the \______ of the peptide
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hydrophobic interactions, ionic bonds, van der Waals forces, hydrogen bonds
secondary and higher orders of structure are determined by:
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tertiary structure
the folding of a single polypeptide chain in three-dimensional space
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amphiphilic helix
the outward face of a(n) \_________________ consists mainly of polar and charged residues, whereas the inner face contains mostly nonpolar, hydrophobic residues
82
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true
t/f: a chemical property of carbohydrates is the existence of at least one and often two or more asymmetric centers
83
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true
t/f: a chemical property of carbohydrates is the ability to exist in either linear or ring structures
84
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true
t/f: a chemical property of carbohydrates is the capacity to form polymeric structure via glycosidic bonds
85
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no
is trehalose a reducing sugar
86
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serine
which amino acid can be modified with carbohydrate
87
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sugar esters, amino sugars, sugar acids, sugar alcohols, deoxy sugars, acetals/ketals
monosaccharides can be converted to several derivative forms. What are six of these derivatives
88
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OH up, H down
what is a reducing sugar
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OH and CH2OH
what is a nonreducing sugar
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epimer
two sugars that differ in stereochemistry at only one carbon
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hydrogen bonds
what is the strongest type of bonding that occurs between water and the polar functional groups on non-ionic polar solutes
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glycine; is a hydrogen atom
of the 22 amino acids, only \____________ is not optically active. The reason is that its side chain\_______________
93
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No
is pH 7 always neutral
94
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alzheimers, parkinsons, cystic fibrosis, creutzfeldt-jakob
what 4 diseases are caused by protein misfolding
95
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cyclization, oxidation, dehydration
what are the three steps of green fluorescent protein (GFP)
96
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22%
what is true adenosine in a circular double-stranded DNA genome that is determined by chemical means to be 28% of guanosine?
97
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2'-OH
which -OH group in ribonucleotides makes the 3'-phosphodiester bond susceptible to nucleophilic cleavage during alkaline hydrolysis
98
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DNA library
a set of cloned fragments that collectively represent the genes of a particular organism
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40
what is the linking number in a relaxed circular DNA duplex of 400 bp
100
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writhe + twist
linking number (L) \=

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