MLS 111

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lesson 4-7 review for midterms

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1
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The test used most often to separate the Micrococcaceae family from the Streptococcaceae family is:

A. Bacitracin
B. Catalase
C. Hemolysis pattern
D. All of these options

B. Catalase

2
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Micrococcus and Staphylococcus species are differentiated by which test(s)?

A. Fermentation of glucose (OF tube)
B. Catalase test
C. Gram stain
D. All of these options

A. Fermentation of glucose (OF tube)

3
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Lysostaphin is used to differentiate Staphylococcus from which other genus?

A. Streptococcus
B. Stomatococcus
C. Micrococcus
D. Planococcus

C. Micrococcus

4
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Which of the following tests is used routinely to identify Staphylococcus aureus?

A. Slide coagulase test
B. Tube coagulase test
C. Latex agglutination
D. All of these options

D. All of these options

5
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Which of the following enzymes contribute to the virulence of S. aureus?

A. Urease and lecithinase
B. Hyaluronidase and β-lactamase
C. Lecithinase and catalase
D. Cytochrome oxidase

B. Hyaluronidase and β-lactamase

6
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Toxic shock syndrome is attributed to infection with:

A. Staphylococcus epidermidis
B. Staphylococcus hominis
C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Staphylococcus saprophyticus

C. Staphylococcus aureus

7
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Which Staphylococcus species, in addition to S. aureus, also produces coagulase?

A. S. intermedius
B. S. saprophyticus
C. S. hominis
D. All of these options

A. S. intermedius

8
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Staphylococcus epidermidis (coagulase negative) is recovered from which of the following sources?

A. Prosthetic heart valves
B. Intravenous catheters
C. Urinary tract
D. All of these options

D. All of these options

9
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Slime production is associated with which Staphylococcus species?

A. S. aureus
B. S. epidermidis
C. S. intermedius
D. S. saprophyticus

B. S. epidermidis

10
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Strains of Staphylococcus species resistant to the β-lactam antibiotics by standardized disk diffusion and broth microdilution susceptibility methods are called:

A. Heteroresistant
B. Bacteriophage group 52A
C. Cross resistant
D. Plasmid altered

A. Heteroresistant

11
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Staphylococcus saprophyticus is best differentiated from Staphylococcus epidermidis by resistance to:

A. 5 μg of lysostaphin
B. 5 μg of novobiocin
C. 10 units of penicillin
D. 0.04 unit of bacitracin

B. 5 μg of novobiocin

12
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The following results were observed by using a tube coagulase test:

Coagulase at 4 hours = +
DNase = +
Hemolysis on blood agar = β
Coagulase at 18 hours = Neg
Novobiocin = Sensitive (16-mm zone)
Mannitol salt plate = + (acid production)

What is the most probable identification?

A. Staphylococcus saprophyticus
B. Staphylococcus epidermidis
C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Staphylococcus hominis

C. Staphylococcus aureus

13
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Staphylococcus aureus recovered from a wound culture gave the following antibiotic sensitivity pattern by the standardized Kirby-Bauer method (S = sensitive; R = resistant):

Penicillin = R
Cephalothin = R
Vancomycin = S
Ampicillin = S
Cefoxitin = R
Methicillin = R

Which is the drug of choice for treating this infection?

A. Penicillin
B. Ampicillin
C. Cephalothin
D. Vancomycin

D. Vancomycin

14
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Which of the following tests should be used to differentiate Staphylococcus aureus from Staphylococcus intermedius?

A. Acetoin
B. Catalase
C. Slide coagulase test
D. Urease

A. Acetoin

15
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A gram-positive coccus recovered from a wound ulcer from a 31-year-old diabetic patient showed pale yellow, creamy, β-hemolytic colonies on blood agar. Given the following test results, what is the most likely identification?

Catalase = +
Glucose OF: positive open tube, negative sealed tube
Mannitol salt = Neg
Slide coagulase = Neg

A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Staphylococcus epidermidis
C. Micrococcus spp.
D. Streptococcus spp.

C. Micrococcus spp.

16
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Urine cultured from the catheter of an 18-year-old female patient produced more than 100,000 col/mL on a CNA plate. Colonies were catalase positive, coagulase negative by the latex agglutination slide method as well as the tube coagulase test. The best single test for identification is:

A. Lactose fermentation
B. Urease
C. Catalase
D. Novobiocin susceptibility

D. Novobiocin susceptibility

17
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A Staphylococcus spp. recovered from a wound (cellulitis) was negative for the slide coagulase test (clumping factor) and negative for novobiocin resistance. The next test(s) needed for identification is (are):

A. Tube coagulase test
B. β-Hemolysis on blood agar
C. Mannitol salt agar plate
D. All of these options

D. All of these options

18
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Furazolidone (Furoxone) susceptibility is a test used to differentiate:

A. Staphylococcus spp. from Micrococcus spp.
B. Streptococcus spp. from Staphylococcus spp.
C. Staphylococcus spp. from Pseudomonas spp.
D. Streptococcus spp. from Micrococcus spp.

A. Staphylococcus spp. from Micrococcus spp.

19
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Bacitracin resistance (0.04 unit) is used to differentiate:

A. Micrococcus spp. from Staphylococcus spp.
B. Staphylococcus spp. from Neisseria spp.
C. Planococcus spp. from Micrococcus spp.
D. Staphylococcus spp. from Streptococcus spp.

A. Micrococcus spp. from Staphylococcus spp.

20
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Which of the following tests will rapidly differentiate micrococci from staphylococci?

A. Catalase
B. Coagulase
C. Modified oxidase
D. Novobiocin susceptibility

C. Modified oxidase

21
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Streptococcus species exhibit which of the following properties?

A. Aerobic, oxidase positive, and catalase positive
B. Facultative anaerobe, oxidase negative, catalase negative
C. Facultative anaerobe, β-hemolytic, catalase positive
D. May be α-, β-, or γ-hemolytic, catalase positive

B. Facultative anaerobe, oxidase negative, catalase
negative

22
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Which group of streptococci is associated with erythrogenic toxin production?

A. Group A
B. Group B
C. Group C
D. Group G

A. Group A

23
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A fourfold rise in titer of which antibody is the best indicator of a recent infection with group A β-hemolytic streptococci?

A. Anti-streptolysin O
B. Anti-streptolysin S
C. Anti-A
D. Anti-B

A. Anti-streptolysin O

24
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Bacitracin A disks (0.04 unit) are used for the presumptive identification of which group of β-hemolytic streptococci?

A. Group A
B. Group B
C. Group C
D. Group F

A. Group A

25
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Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (SXT) disks are used along with bacitracin disks to differentiate which streptococci?

A. α-Hemolytic streptococci
B. β-Hemolytic streptococci
C. Streptococcus pneumoniae
D. Enterococcus faecalis

B. β-Hemolytic streptococci

26
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β-Hemolytic streptococci, not of group A or B, usually exhibit which of the following reactions?

A. Bacitracin susceptible, TMP-SMX resistant
B. Bacitracin resistant, TMP-SMX resistant
C. Bacitracin resistant, TMP-SMX susceptible
D. Bacitracin susceptible or resistant, TMP-SMX susceptible

D. Bacitracin susceptible or resistant, TMP-SMX susceptible

27
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A false-positive CAMP test for the presumptive identification of group B streptococci may occur if the plate is incubated in a(n):

A. Candle jar or CO2 incubator
B. Ambient air incubator
C. 35°C incubator
D. 37°C incubator

A. Candle jar or CO2 incubator

28
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Which test is used to differentiate the viridans streptococci from the group D streptococci and enterococci?

A. Bacitracin disk test
B. CAMP test
C. Hippurate hydrolysis test
D. Bile esculin test

D. Bile esculin test

29
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The bile solubility test causes the lysis of:

A. Streptococcus bovis colonies on a blood agar plate
B. Streptococcus pneumoniae colonies on a blood agar plate
C. Group A streptococci in broth culture
D. Group B streptococci in broth culture

B. Streptococcus pneumoniae colonies on a blood
agar plate

30
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S. pneumoniae and the viridans streptococci can be differentiated by which test?

A. Optochin disk test, 5 μg/mL or less
B. Bacitracin disk test, 0.04 unit
C. CAMP test
D. Bile esculin test

A. Optochin disk test, 5 μg/mL or less

31
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The salt tolerance test (6.5% salt broth) is used to presumptively identify:

A. Streptococcus pneumoniae
B. Streptococcus bovis
C. Streptococcus equinus
D. Enterococcus faecalis

D. Enterococcus faecalis

32
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In addition to Enterococcus faecalis, which other streptococci will grow in 6.5% salt broth?

A. Group A streptococci
B. Group B streptococci
C. Streptococcus pneumoniae
D. Group D streptococci (nonenterococci)

B. Group B streptococci

33
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The quellung test is used to identify which Streptococcus species?

A. S. pyogenes
B. S. agalactiae
C. S. sanguis
D. S. pneumoniae

D. S. pneumoniae

34
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The L-pyrrolidonyl-β-napthylamide (PYR) hydrolysis test is a presumptive test for which streptococci?

A. Group A and D (enterococcus) streptococci
B. Group A and B β-hemolytic streptococci
C. Nongroup A or B β-hemolytic streptococci
D. Streptococcus pneumoniae and group D streptococci (nonenterococcus)

A. Group A and D (enterococcus) streptococci

35
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A pure culture of β-hemolytic streptococci recovered from a leg wound ulcer gave the following reactions:

CAMP test = Neg
Bile esculin = Neg
PYR = Neg
Optochin = Resistant
Hippurate hydrolysis = Neg
6.5% salt = Neg
Bacitracin = Resistant
SXT = Sensitive

The most likely identification is:

A. Group A streptococci
B. Group B streptococci
C. Enterococcus faecalis
D. Nongroup A, nongroup B, nongroup D streptococci

D. Nongroup A, nongroup B, nongroup D streptococci

36
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β-Hemolytic streptococci, more than 50,000 col/mL, were isolated from a urinary tract catheter urine specimen. Given the following reactions, what is the most likely identification?

CAMP test = Neg
Bile solubility = Neg
PYR = +
Hippurate hydrolysis = ±
6.5% salt = +
Bile esculin = +
Bacitracin = Resistant
SXT = Resistant
Optochin = Resistant

A. Group A streptococci
B. Group B streptococci
C. Enterococcus faecalis
D. Nongroup A, nongroup B, nongroup D streptococci

C. Enterococcus faecalis

37
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Nutritionally variant streptococci (NVS) require specific thiol compounds, cysteine, or the active form of vitamin B6. Which of the following tests supplies these requirements?

A. CAMP test
B. Bacitracin susceptibility test
C. Bile solubility test
D. Staphylococcal cross-streak test

D. Staphylococcal cross-streak test

38
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Many α-hemolytic streptococci recovered from a wound were found to be penicillin resistant. Given the following results, what is the most likely identification?

Bile esculin = +
Hippurate hydrolysis = +
SXT = Resistant
PYR = +
Bile solubility = Neg
6.5% salt = +

A. Enterococcus faecalis
B. Streptococcus pneumoniae
C. Streptococcus bovis
D. Group B streptococci

A. Enterococcus faecalis

39
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Which two tests best differentiate S. bovis (group D, nonenterococcus) from Streptococcus salivarius?

A. Bile esculin and 6.5% salt broth
B. Starch hydrolysis and acid production from mannitol
C. Bacitracin and PYR
D. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole susceptibility and PYR

B. Starch hydrolysis and acid production from mannitol

40
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Two blood cultures on a newborn grew β-hemolytic streptococci with the following reactions:

CAMP test = +
Bile solubility = Neg
Bacitracin = Resistant
PYR = Neg
TMP-SMX = Resistant
Hippurate hydrolysis = +
6.5% salt = +
Bile esculin = Neg

Which is the most likely identification?

A. Group A streptococci
B. Group B streptococci
C. Group D streptococci
D. Nongroup A, nongroup B, nongroup D streptococci

B. Group B streptococci

41
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MTM medium is used primarily for the selective recovery of which organism from genital specimens?

A. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
B. Neisseria lactamica
C. Neisseria sicca
D. Neisseria flavescens

A. Neisseria gonorrhoeae

42
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Variation in colony types seen with fresh isolates of Neisseria gonorrhoeae and sometimes with Neisseria meningitidis are the result of:

A. Multiple nutritional requirements
B. Pili on the cell surface
C. Use of a transparent medium
D. All of these options

D. All of these options

43
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Gram-negative diplococci recovered from an MTM plate and giving a positive oxidase test can be presumptively identified as:

A. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
B. Neisseria meningitidis
C. Neisseria lactamica
D. All of these options

D. All of these options

44
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The Superoxol test is used as a rapid presumptive test for:

A. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
B. Neisseria meningitidis
C. Neisseria lactamica
D. Moraxella (Branhamella) catarrhalis

A. Neisseria gonorrhoeae

45
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Nonpathogenic Moraxella spp. capable of growing on selective media for Neisseria can be differentiated from Neisseria spp. by which test?

A. Catalase test
B. 10-unit penicillin disk
C. Oxidase test
D. Superoxol test

B. 10-unit penicillin disk

46
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A Gram stain of a urethral discharge from a man showing extracellular and intracellular gram-negative diplococci within segmented neutrophils is a presumptive identification for:

A. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
B. Neisseria meningitidis
C. Moraxella (Branhamella) catarrhalis
D. Neisseria lactamica

A. Neisseria gonorrhoeae

47
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The β-galactosidase test aids in the identification of which Neisseria species?

A. N. lactamica
B. N. meningitidis
C. N. gonorrhoeae
D. N. flavescens

A. N. lactamica

48
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Cystine tryptic digest (CTA) media used for identification of Neisseria spp. should be inoculated and cultured in:

A. A CO2 incubator at 35°C for 24 hours
B. A CO2 incubator at 42°C for up to 72 hours
C. A nonCO2 incubator at 35°C for up to 72 hours
D. An anaerobic incubator at 35°C for up to 72 hours

C. A nonCO2 incubator at 35°C for up to 72 hours

49
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Culture on MTM media of a vaginal swab produced several colonies of gram-negative diplococci that were catalase and oxidase positive and Superoxol negative. Given the following carbohydrate reactions, select the most likely identification.

Glucose = +
Maltose = +
Sucrose = Neg
Fructose = Neg
Lactose = +

A. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
B. Neisseria sicca
C. Neisseria flavescens
D. Neisseria lactamica

D. Neisseria lactamica

(N. lactamica is the only Neisseria species that grows on MTM that utilizes lactose.)

50
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Sputum from a patient with pneumonia produced many colonies of gram-negative diplococci on a chocolate plate that were also present in fewer numbers on MTM after 48 hours. Given the following results, what is the most likely identification?

Catalase = +
DNase = +
Glucose = Neg
Lactose = Neg
Fructose = Neg
Oxidase = +
Tributyrin hydrolysis = +
Sucrose = Neg
Maltose = Neg

A. Moraxella catarrhalis
B. Neisseria flavescens
C. Neisseria sicca
D. Neisseria elongata

A. Moraxella catarrhalis

51
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Resistance to which drug categorizes a strain
of Staphylococcus aureus as methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)?

A. Oxacillin
B. Colistin
C. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
D. Tetracycline

A. Oxacillin

52
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An oxacillin-disk screen test is used to detect Streptococcus pneumonia resistance to penicillin. Using Mueller-Hinton agar with 5% sheep blood and a 1 μg oxacillin disk, what is the recommended inhibition zone size for penicillin susceptibility?

A. ≥5 mm
B. ≥10 mm
C. ≥15 mm
D. ≥20 mm

D. ≥20 mm

53
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Which one of the following organisms is a known producer of β-lactamase-producing strains, and should be tested (screened) by a commercial β-lactamase assay prior to susceptibility testing?

A. Streptococcus pneumoniae
B. Group B streptococci
C. Enterococcus spp.
D. Planococcus spp.

C. Enterococcus spp.

54
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Which test is used for the determination of inducible clindamycin resistance in staphylococci and streptococci?

A. E-test
B. D-zone test
C. A-test
D. Camp test

B. D-zone test

55
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All aerobic gram (+) bacilli grow easily after 24 hours on what agar?

SBA

56
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Catalase (+) spore forming gram (+) aerobic bacilli

Bacillus spp.

57
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Non-spore forming gram (+) aerobic bacilli

Listeria, Erysipelothrix, Corynebacterium

58
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Unique formation of Bacillus spp.

Endospores

59
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Most common disease manifestation of this bacteria is food poisoning

Bacillus cereus

60
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Food poisoning of B. cereus via meat; lasts 24 hours

Diarrheal

61
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Food poisoning of B. cereus via fried rice; lasts 10 hours

Emetic

62
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The colonies of this bacteria are:
Large rods, spreading
Beta-hemolytic
Catalase (+)

Bacillus cereus

63
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It is the most virulent and significant human disease

Anthracis

64
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Three clinical presentations of anthracis

Cutaneous, Inhalation, Gastrointestinal

65
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MOT of Cutaneous anthracis

Direct contact

66
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MOT of wool sorters disease

Aspiration of spore aerosol

67
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MOT of GI anthracis

Eating of contaminated meat

68
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Inhaled B. antrhacis presents itself as what disease

Wool sorters disease

69
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Most common form of anthracis; has an incubation period of ____ days.

Cutaneous, 1 to 12 days

70
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Which type/s of anthracis is/are localized? Which type/s of anthracis is/are septic?

Cutaneous is localized; Inhalation and GI are septic

71
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The colonies of this bacteria are:
Medium to Large irregular rods, gray
Medusa head projections
Non-hemolytic
Catalase positive

Bacillus anthracis

72
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These bacterial spp. appear as gram (+) short rods or coccobacilli, they are non-acid fast and are able to grow at 4 degrees celcius

Listeria spp.

73
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The colonies of this bacteria are:
Gram (+) coccobacilli
Beta-hemolytic
Can grow at 4 degrees celcius
Umbrella motility

Listeria monocytogenes

74
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Listeria monocytogenes has a characteristic...

Umbrella motility

75
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Bacillus anthracis has a characteristic...

Medusa head protrusion

76
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These bacteria are non-spore forming gram positive rods closely related to Listeria spp.
They occur in short chains or filaments, and can be facultative anaerobes
They are nonmotile
Catalase negative

Erysipelothrix

77
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Causative agent of erysipelas in pigs and a cuteneous infection known as erysipeloid in humans (MOT: Direct contact with infected animals)

Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

78
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The colonies of this bacteria are:
Cultured from a skin biopsy
Pleomorphic gram (+) rods
Cultured on BAP with 5-10%CO2
H2S (+) on Triple Sugar Iron (TSI) slant

Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

79
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Cutaneous anthracis begins as a ____, progresses to a ____, then depresses into a ____.

Papule, vesicular stage, eschar

80
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These bacteria are small dry gram (+) bacilli, commonly refered to as coryneforms due to their clublike morphology; they may also resemble chinese letters

Corynebacterium spp.

81
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This bacterium is acquired by person to person contact with carriers; it typically manifests itself as respiratory infections to airway obstruction, kidney and liver inflammation, myocarditis, but may also have a cutaneous infection
Disease hallmark are adherent membranes of the tonsils, pharynx or nose

Corynebacterium diptheriae

82
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Hallmarks of C. diptheriae are adherent membranes of the _____.

Tonsils, pharynx, and nose

83
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Proliferation of C. diptheriae in tissues causes

Pseudomembrane formation

84
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How does C. diptheriae cause death of eukaryotic cells?

Protein synthesis inhibition

85
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The colonies of this bacteria are:
Cultured from throat and nasopharynx
Black to gray in CTBA (Cystine-tellurite medium)
Black with brown halos in Tinsdale medium
Gram (+)
Urease (-)
Nitrate (+)
Catalase (+)

Corynebacterium diptheriae

86
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Selective medium for C. diptheriae; the bacteria appear as _____ in this medium

Cystine-tellurite medium (CTBA), black to gray

87
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Differential medium for C. diptheriae; the bacteria appear as _____ in this medium

Tinsdale medium, black with brown halos

88
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In vivo culture of C. diptheriae is

Culture and antitoxin in rabbits

89
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Sheep blood agar.

When processing throat swabs for a group A Streptococcus culture, the medium of choice is:

90
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Rejected as unacceptable.

A 21 year old patient presents with pharyngitis. A throat swab is collected and submitted for anaerobic culture. This specimen should be:

91
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LIM broth

A vaginal/rectal swab is collected from a pregnant patient to screen for group B Streptococcus colonization. What is the best medium to use for specimen inoculation?

92
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incubated at 56c.

To quality control the autoclave, a vial of Bacillus stearothermophilus is autoclaved and should then be:

93
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Bacterial suspension was not diluted to the proper concentration.

In a quality control procedure on a new batch of Mueller-Hinton plates using a stock culture of staphylococcus aureus, all the disk zone sizes are too small. The most likely reason for this is that the:

94
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Novobiocin susceptibility

A urine Gram stain shows gram-positive cocci in clusters. Th organism tested catalase positive. To speciate this organism from the culture, the technician should perform a coagulase test and a/an:

95
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Abiotrophia defectiva

The Gram stain from a blood culture shows gam-positive cocci in chains. No growth occurs on blood agar plates incubated both aerobically and anaerobically. Additional testing should be done to detect the presence of:

96
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Bile solubility

Viridans streptococci can be differentiated from Streptococcus pneumoniae by:

97
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Coagulase

A reliable test for distinguishing Staphylococcus aureus from other staphylococci is:

98
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Streptococcus pneumoniae

The optochin (ethylhydrocupreine hydrochloride) disk is used for the identification of:

99
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Group D Streptococcus

A gamma-hemolytic Streptococcus that blackens bile esculin agar but does not grow in 6.5% NaCl broth is most likely:

100
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Catalse production and coagulase test.

Gram stain examiination from a blood culture bottle shows dark blue, spherical organisms in clusters. Growth on sheep blood agar shows small, round, pale yellow colonies. Further tests should include: