Nursing Documentation, Care Planning, and Patient Safety: Key Concepts and Methods

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Last updated 2:57 AM on 1/31/26
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95 Terms

1
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A nurse documents care using Data, Action, and Response (DAR). Which documentation method is being used?

A. SOAP documentation

B. Problem-oriented medical record

C. PIE charting

D. Focus charting

D. Focus charting

2
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Which component of Focus charting describes nursing interventions?

A. Data

B. Action

C. Response

D. Evaluation

B. Action

3
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Which documentation system organizes information using Problem, Intervention, and Evaluation?

A. SOAP

B. Focus charting

C. PIE charting

D. Charting by exception

C. PIE charting

4
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Which is a disadvantage of charting by exception?

A. Increased charting time

B. Redundant documentation

C. Missing details if norms are unclear

D. Inability to document abnormalities

C. Missing details if norms are unclear

5
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Which section of SOAP documentation includes vital signs and lab values?

A. Subjective

B. Objective

C. Assessment

D. Plan

B. Objective

6
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In the ISBARQ handoff method, which step allows clarification?

A. Identify

B. Situation

C. Recommendation

D. Questions

D. Questions

7
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Which safety practice is required by The Joint Commission?

A. Time-out before procedures only

B. Three patient identifiers

C. Two patient identifiers

D. RN verification only

C. Two patient identifiers

8
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Which nursing action best supports continuity of care during a transfer?

A. Giving verbal report only

B. Using ISBARQ for handoff

C. Sending the chart later

D. Minimizing documentation

B. Using ISBARQ for handoff

9
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What is the primary role of a hospitalist?

A. Provide outpatient care

B. Manage inpatient care

C. Perform surgeries

D. Replace primary care providers

B. Manage inpatient care

10
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Which focus best reflects today's health care priorities?

A. Acute care treatment

B. Disease cure only

C. Health promotion and prevention

D. Physician-directed care

C. Health promotion and prevention

11
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Which nursing action best supports health care reform?

A. Delegating all care

B. Avoiding policy involvement

C. Advocating for patients

D. Limiting interdisciplinary work

C. Advocating for patients

12
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Holistic nursing care focuses on:

A. Physical symptoms only

B. The disease process

C. The whole person

D. Medical treatment plans

C. The whole person

13
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A period of worsening symptoms in a chronic illness is called:

A. Remission

B. Exacerbation

C. Recovery

D. Relapse

B. Exacerbation

14
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Promoting human dignity requires nurses to:

A. Control decision-making

B. Use medical terminology only

C. Respect patient autonomy

D. Avoid patient involvement

C. Respect patient autonomy

15
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Which need has the highest priority according to Maslow?

A. Safety

B. Love and belonging

C. Self-esteem

D. Physiologic

D. Physiologic

16
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Which is an example of primary prevention?

A. Mammography

B. Rehabilitation therapy

C. Immunizations

D. Physical therapy

C. Immunizations

17
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Blood pressure screening programs are an example of:

A. Primary prevention

B. Secondary prevention

C. Tertiary prevention

D. Restorative care

B. Secondary prevention

18
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Rehabilitation after a stroke is considered:

A. Primary prevention

B. Secondary prevention

C. Tertiary prevention

D. Health promotion

C. Tertiary prevention

19
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Disability is best defined as:

A. A medical diagnosis

B. A disease condition

C. A limitation in functioning

D. An acute illness

C. A limitation in functioning

20
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Which condition is a cognitive disability?

A. Down syndrome

B. Dementia

C. Spina bifida

D. Cerebral palsy

B. Dementia

21
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Which is an example of an intellectual disability?

A. ADHD

B. Traumatic brain injury

C. Down syndrome

D. Stroke

C. Down syndrome

22
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What differentiates disability from a disabling disorder?

A. Disability is temporary

B. Disorders are always genetic

C. Disability reflects functional impact

D. Disorders do not affect function

C. Disability reflects functional impact

23
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Which is a barrier to health care access?

A. Health literacy

B. Cultural competence

C. Provider bias

D. Preventive care

C. Provider bias

24
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Why should nurses use people-first language?

A. It shortens documentation

B. It reduces stigma

C. It emphasizes diagnosis

D. It meets billing requirements

B. It reduces stigma

25
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Patients with multiple chronic conditions are at higher risk for:

A. Improved outcomes

B. Medication complications

C. Reduced health care use

D. Faster recovery

B. Medication complications

26
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Which problem-solving method relies on past experience and intuition?

A. Trial-and-error

B. Critical thinking

C. Clinical reasoning

D. Intuition

D. Intuition

27
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Which method uses a structured step-by-step approach?

A. Intuition

B. Trial-and-error

C. Nursing process

D. Guessing

C. Nursing process

28
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Person-centered care emphasizes:

A. Provider authority

B. Patient partnership

C. Task completion

D. Institutional policies

B. Patient partnership

29
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Clinical reasoning primarily involves:

A. Memorization

B. Task completion

C. Pattern recognition

D. Guessing

C. Pattern recognition

30
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Which is a professional nursing attribute?

A. Efficiency

B. Accountability

C. Technical skill only

D. Independence

B. Accountability

31
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Which QSEN competency focuses on minimizing harm?

A. Informatics

B. Quality improvement

C. Safety

D. Evidence-based practice

C. Safety

32
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Which QSEN competency emphasizes effective teamwork?

A. Patient-centered care

B. Informatics

C. Teamwork and collaboration

D. Safety

C. Teamwork and collaboration

33
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Timely documentation means charting:

A. At the end of the shift

B. Within 24 hours

C. As soon as care is provided

D. After discharge

C. As soon as care is provided

34
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Which documentation principle avoids bias?

A. Detailed charting

B. Timely charting

C. Nonjudgmental language

D. Narrative notes

C. Nonjudgmental language

35
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Focus charting is best used when documenting:

A. Routine vitals

B. A specific patient concern

C. Shift summaries

D. Intake and output

B. A specific patient concern

36
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Which PIE component evaluates outcomes?

A. Problem

B. Intervention

C. Evaluation

D. Planning

C. Evaluation

37
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Which SBAR component includes patient history?

A. Situation

B. Background

C. Assessment

D. Recommendation

B. Background

38
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Which is required when taking a telephone order?

A. Written signature immediately

B. Provider presence

C. Read-back verification

D. Verbal agreement only

C. Read-back verification

39
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The primary purpose of assessment is to:

A. Diagnose disease

B. Establish baseline data

C. Implement care

D. Evaluate outcomes

B. Establish baseline data

40
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Which is subjective data?

A. Blood pressure

B. Temperature

C. Pain report

D. Lab values

C. Pain report

41
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Which is objective data?

A. Anxiety

B. Nausea

C. Temperature

D. Fatigue

C. Temperature

42
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Which data collection method involves direct patient questioning?

A. Observation

B. Physical exam

C. Interview

D. Documentation review

C. Interview

43
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Why are privacy and confidentiality essential?

A. Reduce workload

B. Meet billing needs

C. Protect patient rights

D. Improve efficiency

C. Protect patient rights

44
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A nursing diagnosis focuses on:

A. Disease pathology

B. Provider orders

C. Patient responses

D. Diagnostic tests

C. Patient responses

45
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Which is a risk nursing diagnosis?

A. Acute pain

B. Impaired mobility

C. Risk for infection

D. Ineffective airway clearance

C. Risk for infection

46
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Which part of a nursing diagnosis lists signs and symptoms?

A. Etiology

B. Problem

C. Defining characteristics

D. Risk factors

C. Defining characteristics

47
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During planning, the nurse develops:

A. Medical diagnoses

B. Physician orders

C. Measurable outcomes

D. Discharge summaries

C. Measurable outcomes

48
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Which is an independent nursing intervention?

A. Administering IV antibiotics

B. Repositioning the patient

C. Adjusting ventilator settings

D. Prescribing medication

B. Repositioning the patient

49
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Which is an example of indirect nursing care?

A. Bathing the patient

B. Administering medication

C. Communicating with the care team

D. Ambulation assistance

C. Communicating with the care team

50
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The evaluation phase determines whether:

A. Orders were followed

B. Outcomes were met

C. Diagnoses were correct

D. Documentation was complete

B. Outcomes were met

51
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Which statement best describes the primary focus of the healthcare delivery system?

A. Treat acute illness only

B. Reduce healthcare costs

C. Promote, maintain, and restore health across the lifespan

D. Provide services only in hospitals

C. Promote, maintain, and restore health across the lifespan

52
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Which goal is included in the IHI Quadruple Aim?

A. Increase nurse productivity

B. Improve patient experience

C. Limit access to care

D. Focus on acute care only

B. Improve patient experience

53
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Which action best promotes quality healthcare?

A. Following tradition

B. Reducing documentation

C. Using evidence-based practice

D. Limiting staff education

C. Using evidence-based practice

54
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Which reimbursement model focuses on patient outcomes?

A. Fee-for-service

B. Private insurance

C. Value-based reimbursement

D. Out-of-pocket payment

C. Value-based reimbursement

55
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Healthcare complexity has increased primarily due to:

A. Fewer chronic illnesses

B. Aging population and advanced technology

C. Reduced regulation

D. Decreased specialization

B. Aging population and advanced technology

56
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Which team member coordinates care and manages patient education?

A. UAP

B. Registered nurse

C. Respiratory therapist

D. Dietitian

B. Registered nurse

57
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Which responsibility belongs to the community-based nurse?

A. Performing invasive procedures

B. Coordinating community resources

C. Diagnosing disease

D. Managing hospital staffing

B. Coordinating community resources

58
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Continuity of care is best defined as:

A. Care provided by one provider

B. Care limited to hospitals

C. Coordinated care across time and settings

D. Task-oriented nursing

C. Coordinated care across time and settings

59
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Which communication tool improves patient safety during handoffs?

A. SOAP

B. PIE

C. ISBAR

D. Narrative notes

C. ISBAR

60
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Which goal is part of Joint Commission National Patient Safety Goals?

A. Increase reimbursement

B. Improve patient identification accuracy

C. Reduce staffing costs

D. Limit documentation

B. Improve patient identification accuracy

61
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Discharge planning primarily focuses on:

A. Ending care

B. Completing paperwork

C. Safe transition to next level of care

D. Reducing length of stay

C. Safe transition to next level of care

62
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Health is defined as:

A. Absence of disease

B. Physical wellness only

C. A dynamic state of well-being

D. Lack of symptoms

C. A dynamic state of well-being

63
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Which need must be met first according to Maslow?

A. Love and belonging

B. Safety

C. Physiologic needs

D. Self-esteem

C. Physiologic needs

64
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Health disparities result primarily from:

A. Genetics

B. Patient choices only

C. Social and economic disadvantage

D. Provider bias alone

C. Social and economic disadvantage

65
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Social determinants of health include:

A. Lab results

B. Medication adherence

C. Housing and employment

D. Disease severity

C. Housing and employment

66
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Which is an example of primary prevention?

A. Colonoscopy

B. Immunizations

C. Cardiac rehab

D. Disease management

B. Immunizations

67
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Secondary prevention focuses on:

A. Preventing disease onset

B. Early detection and treatment

C. Rehabilitation

D. Lifestyle modification

B. Early detection and treatment

68
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Tertiary prevention aims to:

A. Prevent illness

B. Screen for disease

C. Reduce complications

D. Promote wellness

C. Reduce complications

69
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Which is a characteristic of chronic illness?

A. Short duration

B. Reversible

C. Requires ongoing management

D. Minimal lifestyle impact

C. Requires ongoing management

70
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Why are chronic illnesses increasing?

A. Reduced healthcare access

B. Aging population and lifestyle factors

C. Decreased life expectancy

D. Improved prevention

B. Aging population and lifestyle factors

71
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Which is a modifiable risk factor?

A. Age

B. Genetics

C. Smoking

D. Sex

C. Smoking

72
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Which is an unmodifiable risk factor?

A. Diet

B. Exercise

C. Age

D. Smoking

C. Age

73
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Which term best reflects respectful language?

A. Diabetic patient

B. Stroke victim

C. Person with diabetes

D. Disabled person

C. Person with diabetes

74
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Blended competencies integrate:

A. Policies and procedures

B. Knowledge, skills, and attitudes

C. Documentation systems

D. Staffing models

B. Knowledge, skills, and attitudes

75
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Which QSEN competency focuses on preventing harm?

A. Informatics

B. Safety

C. Teamwork

D. Quality improvement

B. Safety

76
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Reflective practice allows nurses to:

A. Avoid mistakes

B. Improve future care

C. Reduce workload

D. Delegate responsibility

B. Improve future care

77
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Which is a primary reason for documentation?

A. Increase charting time

B. Provide legal evidence

C. Replace verbal communication

D. Reduce patient care

B. Provide legal evidence

78
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Which guideline improves legal safety in documentation?

A. Timely and factual charting

B. Narrative charting

C. Use of abbreviations

D. Delayed documentation

A. Timely and factual charting

79
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Which documentation method uses DAR?

A. SOAP

B. PIE

C. Focus charting

D. Narrative

C. Focus charting

80
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Problem-oriented documentation is organized by:

A. Discipline

B. Time

C. Patient problems

D. Provider preference

C. Patient problems

81
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Telephone orders require:

A. Nurse documentation only

B. Immediate execution

C. Read-back verification

D. Delayed signing

C. Read-back verification

82
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Incident reports are:

A. Part of the medical record

B. Used for punishment

C. Quality improvement tools

D. Shared with patients

C. Quality improvement tools

83
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What is the first step of the nursing process?

A. Diagnosis

B. Planning

C. Assessment

D. Evaluation

C. Assessment

84
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Which data are subjective?

A. Blood pressure

B. Pain rating

C. Oxygen saturation

D. Lab results

B. Pain rating

85
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Objective data are:

A. Patient feelings

B. Measurable findings

C. Patient opinions

D. Symptoms only

B. Measurable findings

86
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Validation involves:

A. Recording data

B. Confirming data accuracy

C. Diagnosing illness

D. Planning care

B. Confirming data accuracy

87
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A nursing diagnosis focuses on:

A. Disease pathology

B. Patient responses

C. Medical treatment

D. Diagnostic tests

B. Patient responses

88
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Which diagnosis format includes problem, cause, and evidence?

A. SOAP

B. PIE

C. PES

D. DAR

C. PES

89
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Which diagnosis identifies potential problems?

A. Actual diagnosis

B. Medical diagnosis

C. Risk diagnosis

D. Wellness diagnosis

C. Risk diagnosis

90
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Which intervention is nurse-initiated?

A. Administering IV antibiotics

B. Ordering lab tests

C. Repositioning a patient

D. Prescribing medication

C. Repositioning a patient

91
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Which intervention requires a provider order?

A. Patient education

B. Ambulation

C. Medication administration

D. Turning schedules

C. Medication administration

92
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Direct care includes:

A. Chart review

B. Team meetings

C. Wound care

D. Discharge planning

C. Wound care

93
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Indirect care includes:

A. Bathing the patient

B. Medication administration

C. Coordinating care

D. Ambulation

C. Coordinating care

94
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Evaluation determines whether:

A. Interventions were implemented

B. Outcomes were achieved

C. Diagnoses were correct

D. Care was documented

B. Outcomes were achieved

95
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Which outcome indicates successful care?

A. Goal partially met

B. Goal not met

C. Goal met

D. Goal revised

C. Goal met