Patho Exam 2

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Adaptive immunity is ____, has memory, provides ____-____ protection, has a slower response, and is composed of ____ cells that eliminate ____ or prevent their growth.

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1

Adaptive immunity is ____, has memory, provides ____-____ protection, has a slower response, and is composed of ____ cells that eliminate ____ or prevent their growth.

systemic, long-term, specialized, pathogens

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2

B cells are a type of ____ and are responsible for ____ immunity mediated by circulating ____ (immunoglobulins)

lymphocyte, humoral, antibodies

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3

_ cells are responsible for cell mediated immunity, kills targets directly or ____ the activity of other ____.

T cells, stimulates, leukocytes

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4

_____ is directed against beneficial foreign tissues (ex. ____, ____).

Also called isoimmunity.

alloimmunity, transfusions, transplants

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5

Humoral immunity produces ____-____ antibodies, causes direct ____ of a microorganism or the activation of ____ ____.

antigen-specific, inactivation, inflammatory mediators

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6

B cells mature in the ____ ____ or ____ ____.

bone marrow or lymph node

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7

Maturation of T cells involves the development of the T cell ____ and the expression of ____ molecules.

T cells are released into the blood and take up residence in the ____ ____ ____ (spleen, lymph nodes, etc) to await ____.

receptors, surface

secondary lymph organs, antigens

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8

____-_____ immunity differentiates T cells (helper T cells; CD4 and cytotoxic/ ____ T cells; CD8) and primarily protects against viruses and ____.

cell-mediated immunity, killer T cells, cancer

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9

Helper T cells (____) are responsible for proper function of the rest of immune cells including __ ____ and ____.

CD4, B lymphocytes and CD8 (cytotoxic/ killer T cells)

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10

____ / ____ T cells (CD8) kill by directly invading a pathogen.

cytotoxic/ killer T cells (CD8)

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11

Antigens are mostly ____ but can be other molecules as well.

protein

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12

____ antigen is an antigen that can trigger an immune response.

immunogenic

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13

The recipient of a ____ can mount a immune response against foreign ___ molecules.

transplantation, MHC molecules (major histocompatibility complex)

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14

The more similar two individuals (of a transplant) are in ___ tissue type, the more likely for a successful transplant.

HLA (human leukocyte antigen)

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15

_____ are also called immunoglobulins and are produced by _____ cells.

antibodies, plasma

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16

____ is the most prevalent immunoglobulin and is administered for most autoimmune diseases.

IgG

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17

____ is found mostly in secretions. Deficiency causes recurrent _____ tract infections and chronic yeast infections of the __ tract.

IgA, respiratory, GI

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18

____ is rarest immunoglobulin. Deficiency due to ____ infection.

IgE, parasitic

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19

____ immunoglobulin has an unknown function.

IgD

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20

____ immunoglobulin is the first to respond to an antigen and are characterized by antigenic, structural, and functional differences.

IgM

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21

When an antibody recognizes a pathogen, it attaches to it to completely coat it, called _____. Antibodies mark the pathogen for _____ by other immune cells.

opsonization, destruction

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22

Active immunity is a type of _____ immunity that is developed after being exposed to an _____ or from getting a _____.

acquired, infection, vaccine

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23

_____ active immunity is where antibodies are made after exposure to an infection.

natural

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24

_____ active immunity is where antibodies are made after receiving a vaccination.

artificial

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25

_____ immunity is immunity you acquire from someone or something else.

passive

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26

_____ passive immunity is where antibodies are transferred from mom to baby (ex: via _____)

natural, breastmilk

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27

Active acquired immunity: antibodies are produced after either a _____ _____ to an antigen or after _____, and is long lived.

natural exposure, immunization

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28

Immunodeficiency is an _____ response to protect the host.

insufficient

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29

Allergy, autoimmunity, alloimmunity are collectively referred to as _____ _____.

hypersensitivity reactions

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30

_____ is the most immediate hypersensitivity reaction, occurs within minutes of re-exposure to the antigen and can lead to _____ _____.

Common offenders: beestings, peanuts, and fish.

anaphylaxis, cardiovascular shock

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31

Clinical manifestations of anaphylaxis are _____, _____, swelling, _____, and dyspnea.

itching, pain, swelling, redness, and dyspnea

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32

Type I (___ mediated) hypersensitivity causes the release of _____ and other inflammatory substances. Histamine release leads to _____.

IgE mediated, histamines, edema

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33

Type __ (tissue specific) hypersensitivity reactions are caused by five possible mechanisms: _____ mediated lysis, _____ & phagocytosis, _____ mediated tissue damage, antibody dependent mediated cytotoxicity, _____ of cellular function.

II, complement, opsonization, neutrophil, modulation

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34

Type III (_____ _____ _____ reactions) caused by the formation of immune complexes deposited in target tissues where they activate the complement cascade generating _____ fragments that attract _____ into the inflammatory response.

Neutrophils release _____ enzymes resulting in tissue damage.

immune complex mediated, chemotactic, neutrophils, lysosomal

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35

Type IV (cell mediated) caused by either _____ T lymphs or _____ producing Th1 cells.

cytotoxic, lymphokine

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36

Two major carbohydrate antigens are __ and __ co-dominant.

A and B co-dominant

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37

_ blood type is a universal donor.

O

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38

__ blood type is the universal recipient.

AB

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39

Rh_ expresses the _ antigen on the RhD protein.

Rh+, D

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40

Rh_ does not express the D antigen.

Rh-

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41

Graft rejection is an _____ reaction.

alloimmune

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42

Matching the ____- DR locus is most critical for _____ acceptance.

HLA- DR locus, graft

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43

_____ (congenital) deficiency is a genetic defect that disrupts _____ development.

primary, lymphocyte

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44

Secondary (_____) deficiency is _____ to disease or other physiologic alteration.

acquired, secondary

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45

_____: recurrent, severe infections, often with _____ organisms.

hallmark, opportunistic

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46

Gonorrhea suggests _____ deficiency.

complement

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47

_____ infections suggest T cell deficiency.

viral

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48

Microorganisms requiring _____ suggest B cell and _____ deficiencies.

opsonization, phagocyte

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49

_____ syndrome (congenital thymic aplasia or _____) characterized by a complete or partial lack of the _____ (resulting in depressed T cell immunity), parathyroid glands (resulting in _____), and the presence of _____ _____.

DiGeorge syndrome, hypoplasia, thymus, hypocalcemia, cardiac anomalies

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50

What happens if an A- patient receives O+ blood?

lysis and clumping of RBCs occurs

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51

When there is a parasitic infection, you will see which types of cells?

eosinophils

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52

Human normal flora prevents ____ and ____ of microorganisms.

colonization and multiplication

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53

With clonal selection, ____ recognize and react to a specific ____.

lymphocytes, antigen

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54

Septicemia is a ____ infection of the ____.

bacterial, blood

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55

Which microorganism causes UTIs?

E. coli

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56

Portal of entry is an ____ ____ such as the ____ inhaling microorganisms.

entry point, nose

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57

Viruses require a permissive ____ to replicate.

host

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58

Fungi have ____ ____ and cause ____.

thick walls, disease

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59

A child stung by a bee may suffer from _____ reaction.

anaphylaxis

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60

Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is an _____ disease.

autoimmune

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61

Maternal immune system can become _____ against fetal antigens, causing an _____ reaction.

sensitized, alloimmune

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62

_____ immunity creates antibodies and is developed by B cells.

humoral immunity

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63

____ immunoglobulin may be given to patient with an autoimmune disease to protect against ____.

IgG, infection

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64

___ immunoglobulin deficiency leads to susceptibility to parasitic infection.

IgE

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65

The severity of an infection or virus depends on ____.

cytokines

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66

Immune reaction for poison ivy is ______ cell mediated.

Type IV

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67

You will see a decreased ___ cell count in patients with AIDS.

CD4

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68

Recurrent respiratory infections and yeast in GI tract are due to ___ immunoglobulin deficiency.

IgA

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69

A patient who has resistance due to primary exposure was ____ ____.

actively acquired

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70

Virulence means it causes

disease

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71

Cytokines that are responsible for inducing a response are ____

TNF alpha

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72

_____ protect themselves by forming capsules.

bacteria

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73

Immunoglobulins pass the placenta and cause ____ immunity.

passive

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74

_____ is dyspnea when a person is lying down.

orthopnea

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75

Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea (PND) is when

you are awaken at night gasping for air

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76

Hemoptysis is

coughing up blood

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77

Hyperpnea is ____ and ____ breathing.

rapid and deep

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78

_____ leads to respiratory acidosis.

hypoventilation

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79

Hypercapnia is ____ breathing (excessive CO2) and occurs with _____.

shallow, hypoventilation

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80

Hyperventilation is ____ or deep breathing, causes ____ ____, and causes _____ (low CO2).

rapid, respiratory alkalosis, hypocapnia

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81

_____ is mainly seen in those with chronic obstructive pulmonary diseases.

clubbing

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82

Hypercapnia, hypoxemia, and acute respiratory failure are conditions caused by _____ disease or ____.

pulmonary, injury

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83

____ is a lack of oxygen in the blood and causes ventilation- perfusion abnormalities.

hypoxemia

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84

Hypoxia is a lack of oxygen in the ____.

tissues

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85

A patient has bulbous enlargement of the distal segments of the fingers. Which disease is associated with this condition?

a. cystic fibrosis

b. acute pneumonia

c. sickle cell disease

d. acute myocardial infarction

a. cystic fibrosis

Rationale: this condition describes clubbing, in which there is an enlargement of the distal segment of the finger. It is associated with condition of decreased oxygenation such as bronchiectasis, cystic fibrosis, pulmonary fibrosis, lung abscess, and congenital heart disease.

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86

Which of the following is true regarding acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)?

a. it is caused by injury to the bronchioles

b. it can cause severe pulmonary edema

c. it is most commonly caused by exposure to inhaled irritants

d. macrophages are not involved in response

b. it can cause severe pulmonary edema

Rationale: Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is characterized by damage that is done to the alveolar capillary membrane and causes severe pulmonary edema. The most common cause of ARDS is either sepsis or multiple trauma. Macrophages, neutrophils, complement, and endotoxins are all important mediators.

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87

Which of the following is TRUE regarding the pathophysiology of asthma?
a. IgA is the major factor.
b. There is decreased vascular permeability.
c. Inflammation results in hyperresponsiveness.
d. The inflammatory process is caused by the loss of bronchial smooth muscle spasm.

c. inflammation results in hyperresponsiveness

Rationale: Asthma is caused by increased bronchial smooth muscle
spasm and increased vascular permeability. IgE is the major factor. There is increased capillary permeability. Inflammatory mediators cause vasodilation, increased capillary permeability, mucosal edema, bronchial smooth muscle contraction (bronchospasm), and mucus secretion from mucosal goblet cells with narrowing of the airways and obstruction to airflow.

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88

A patient has right ventricular enlargement secondary to pulmonary hypertension. Which of the following would be the most likely diagnosis?

a. Cor pulmonale
b. acute bronchitis
c. pulmonary embolism
d. pulmonary thromboembolism

a. cor pulmonale

Rationale: cor pulmonale consists of right ventricular enlargement and failure. Acute bronchitis is an acute infection or inflammation of the airways. Pulmonary embolism is occlusion of a portion of the pulmonary vascular bed by
an embolus. Pulmonary thromboembolism is obstruction of a pulmonary vessel by a thrombus.

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89

_____ is a condition where air enters the chest causing lung collapse. Usually d/t ____ ____ ____. A chest tube is inserted to ____ the lungs.

pneumothorax, blunt force trauma, reinflate

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90

_____ pneumothorax occurs when air accumulates between the chest wall and lungs. Increased ____ in the chest reduces blood flow to the ____.

tension pneumothorax, pressure, heart

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91

Patient with a tension pneumothorax presents with hypotension, ____, ____ ____, and ____ vein distention.

hypotension, hypoxemia, tracheal deviation, jugular vein distention

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92

_____ is a collection of blood in the pleural space.

Seen after motor vehicle accidents.

Decreased ____ ____ because of puncture wounds.

hemothorax, breath sounds

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93

Surfactant is a _____ that helps keep _____ open.

Low surfactant = _____ _____ _____

lipoprotein, alveoli

decreased lung function

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94

_____ _____ is excess water in the lungs. Is usually seen in someone with CHF.

pulmonary edema

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95

Manifestations of acute respiratory disease syndrome (ARDS) include dyspnea and ____, ____ and respiratory ____, hypercapnia and respiratory ____.

hypoxemia, hyperventilation, alkalosis, acidosis

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96

Obstructive lung diseases cause a ____ of airways resulting in airway ____ that is worse with _____.

Causes ____ and wheezing.

narrowing, airway restriction, expiration

dyspnea and wheezing

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97

____ is chronic inflammation of the airways. It causes bronchial hyperesponsiveness, ____ of airways, and reversible airflow ____.

It is associated with immunglobulin ___.

asthma, constriction, obstruction

IgE

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98

Symptoms of asthma include _____ _____ (d/t bronchial constriction), _____, and _____.

expiratory wheezing, dyspnea, tachypnea

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99

Beta 2 _____ agonist (albuterol medication inhaler) causes ______.

When a patient is having exacerbation of asthma (____ ____), there is a decrease in diameter of bronchi and ____, increasing airway ____.

adrenergic, bronchodilation

asthma attack, bronchioles, resistance

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100

COPD is a combination of ____ and ____, is usually progressive, and is the most common chronic lung disease in the world.

Risk factors include ____ ____, occupational dusts and chemicals, ___ pollution, and any factor affecting ____ ____ during ____ and childhood.

bronchitis, emphazema

tobacco smoke, air pollution, lung growth, gestation

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