Lymphatic System/ Respiratory System

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What is the first line of defense?

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130 Terms

1

What is the first line of defense?

Skin and Mucous (Physical Barrier)

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2

What is the second line of defense?

Innate, nonspecific

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3

What is the third line of defense?

Adaptive, specific

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4

Which line of defense included vaccines?

Third

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5

Which line of defense includes fever and inflammation?

Second

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6

Steps for Phagocytosis:

Chemotaxis, adherence, ingestion, digestion, killing

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7

TEST QUESTION: Is fever in your first line of defense?

No

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8

PO2 entering our bodies is what?

159.5mmhg

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9

PO2 in our capillaries is what?

40mmhg

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10

Antigen Presenting Cells (APCs) include what?

Macrophages (monocytes in tissue outside of the bloostream), dendritic cells (monocytes in mucous membranes), B cells (lymphocytes)

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11

What is a pathogen?

Any disease causing organism

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12

What is chemotaxis?

Attraction to chemicals released by microbes

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13

What is Adherence?

Attachment to plasma membrane of phagocyte

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14

What is ingestion?

Pseudopods consume microbe and form a phagosome

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15

What is digestion/killing?

Merging with lysosome containing digestive enzymes and forming lethal oxidants. Exocystosis of residual body.

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16

What do diagnostic tests for AIDS detect?

HIV antibodies

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17

When does HIV transition to AIDS?

When the helper T-cell count is less than 200, frequent infections occur

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18

Characteristics of HIV:

brief flu-like illness after the initial infection

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19

Treatment for AIDS

A combination of reverse transcriptase and protease inhibitors

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20

CD4 is a helper T-cell, how is it activated?

A receptor antigen complex and costimulation (secretion of interleukin 1 from APC to CD4)

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21

TEST QUESTION: Do cytotoxic T cells need costimulation of interleukin to be activated?

Yes

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22

What do cytotoxic T-cells secrete to kill cancer?

Perforin

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23

TEST QUESTION: What antibody action increases the effectiveness of phagocytosis?

Opsonization

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24

What are B cells that dont become plasma cells called?

Memory B cells

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25

Which cells are involved in humoral immunity?

B cells, memory B cells, and plasma cells

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26

Do B cells react more strongly against unprocessed cells?

No

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27

Which lines of defense are non specific

First and Second

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28

What is Cell mediated immunity?

When T cells are attacking infected cells/ pathogens

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29

WHat is antibody/humoral mediated immunity?

When B cells, memory B cells, and plasma cells attack fluids in the body

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30

Characteristics of lymph vessels:

Thin walls and porous

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31

Lymphatic vessles from smallest to largest:

Cappilaries, trunks, ducts

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32

What are the names of the two lymphatic ducts?

Right and Thoracic

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33

Flow of lymph from lower right to upper left

Right lumbar trunk (right thigh), cysterna chyli, thoracic duct

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34

Which lymphatic duct is lipid rich?

Thoracic

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35

Where is the thymus gland located?

Between the anterior heart and posterior sternum

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36

What happens to the thymus with age?

It shrinks

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37

The thymus cortex contains what?

Immature T cells that emigrate to the medulla

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38

What do thymic reticular epithelial cells release?

Thymosin and other hormones

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39

Lymph nodes follow arteries ____ in the body and follows veins ____

deep, superficially

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40

What does malignant/metastatic cancer mean?

The tumor travels and has no fibrous capsule

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41

A benign tumor means?

The tumor has a fibrous capsule and does not travel

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42

Where are thrombocytes stored?

Spleen

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43

What disease are you at risk for if you lose your spleen?

Pneumonia

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44

What side of the body is the spleen on?

Left

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45

Are natural killer cells immunocompetent?

No

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46

Immunological surveillance is constantly carried out by what?

Cytotoxic T cells

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47

What happens to T cells after negative selection?

Anergy causes T cells to remain alive but they cannot be activated

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48

What is deletion in negative feedback?

Causes apoptosis of T cells that would destroy self-tissue

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49

Does negative selection lead to self tolerance?

Yes

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50

What do B cells do?

They become plasma cells, recognize unprocessed antigens, proliferate and differentiate in response to helper T cell secretions, hold BCRs in their membranes that are similar to the antibodies they secrete.

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51

What do Cytotoxic T cells do?

They come from CD8 cells, fight intracellular pathogens, require exposure to antigens associated with MHC-1 and MHC-2 to be fully effectiove, and need stimulation from interleukins to be activated

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52

What are the inflammation response stages?

Vasodilation and increased vessel permeability, emigration, tissue repair

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53

What do immunocompetent cells do?

Develop receptors to recognize foreign antigens

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54

Characteristics of immunocompetent cells:

Have distinct plasma membrane proteins (receptors), are able to conduct immune respinses when properly stimulated/fully activated, cells that will be CD8 or CD4 cells complete development in the Thymus.

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55

What produces/releases interferons?

Virus-infected cells

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56

What causes uninfected cells to produce antiviral proteins that prevent viral replication?

Interferons

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57

What enhances the activity of phagocytes and natural killer cells?

Interferons

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58

What is the classical pathway for activation of complement C3 protein?

C1 antigen-antibody complexes bind and activate

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59

What is the alternate pathway for activation of complement C3 protein?

Lipid-carbohydrate complexes on microbe surfaces interact with factors B,D and P

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60

What is the lectin pathway for activation of complement C3 protein?

Liver produces lectins in response to chemicals from macrophages

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61

What is complement fixation?

Activation of the classical pathway C1 to C3b to C5b which leads to formation of a membrane attack complex which leads to cytolysis

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62

What do cytotoxic T cells do when they encounter a microbial antigen?

They release granzymes that trigger apoptosis.

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63

What happens when a cytotoxic t cells binds to infected cells?

They can release perforin to cause cytolysis and granulysin to destroy the microbe. They can also release lymphotoxin so the target cell damages itself

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64

What is IGM?

Is is the early response before G is available

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65

Where is IGA found?

Saliva, tears and breast milk

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66

What dos IGD do?

Acts as a receptor on B cells

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67

What is the most abundant of the IG antibodies? and what does it do?

IGG is 80% of the IG antibodies and it crosses the placenta fetus

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68

What does IGE do?

Releases histamine from basophils

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69

What is included in the conducting zone?

Everything between your nose to your terminal bronchioles

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70

What is tidal volume?

How much air you normally breathe in, around 500ml

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71

What is the anatomical dead zone?

The air left over in the conducting zone that does not reach the respiratoy zone, average is 150ml

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72

What is included in the respiratory zone?

The bronchioles and lobules

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73

How much air generally reaches the respiratory zone?

550ml

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74

What is external (pulmonary) respiration?

Between the lungs and blood, O2 comes in and CO2 goes out

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75

What is internal (systemic) respiration?

Between blood and tissues, 25% of O2 is removed. PCO2 drops from 45 to 40mmHg

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76

What determines how much oxygen disassociates or binds to hemoglobin?

PO2

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77

What causes O2 dissociation from Hemoglobin?

Increased BPG, Increased H+ concentration, and increased temperature

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78

As airways get ___ they become more ____

Smaller, muscular

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79

What diseases increase compliance?

COPD and Tuberculosis

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80

What disease decreases compliance?

Pneumonia

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81

What diseases can be a aprt of COPD

Emphysema and chronic bronchitis, NOT pneumonia

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82

What is an asthma attack and how is it treated?

The smooth muscles on bronchioles retract. Treatment is administration of norepinephrine (relaxes the bronchioles) and antihistamine (counteracts broonchoconstriction).

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83

Whats a pneumothorax?

when air enters the pleural cavity

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84

Whats a hemothorax?

When blood enters the pleural cavity.

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85

What is atelectasis?

A collapsed lung

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86

What is a small (oat cell) carcinoma?

The least common but most dangerous form of lung cancer. The tumor invades the bronchial wall and compresses the airway which can cause a collapsed lung. 7% survive

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87

Acute pain causes a brief…?

Apnea

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88

What muscles are involved in forces exhalation?

Internal intercostals and abdominals

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89

Function of the pneumotaxic area:

Allows you to transition between inhale and exhale without effort

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90

Function of the Apneuistic area:

Stops you from exhaling to allow a longer inhale

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91

When is the expiratory center used?

During forced exhalation

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92

When in the inspiratory center used?

Constantly in use so you always breathe

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93

What is the most important factor in ventilation rate?

PCO2

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94

What does an increase in PCO2 cause?

Deep and rapid breathing

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95

What cell produces the chemical that reduces surface tension of air in the lungs?

Type 2 alveolar cells

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96

WHat muscles are involved with foced inhalation?

Sternocleidomastoid, scalenes, pectoralis minor

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97

Where do primary bronchi carry air?

Each lung

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98

Where do secondary bronchi carry air?

Each lobe of the lungs

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99

Where do tertiary bronchi carry air?

The segments of the lungs

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100

IF you were to inhale an object, where is it most likely to land?

The right primary bronchi, because the left primary bronchi has a sharp turn

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