Lymphatic System/ Respiratory System

What is the first line of defense?

Skin and Mucous (Physical Barrier)

What is the second line of defense?

Innate, nonspecific

What is the third line of defense?

Adaptive, specific

Which line of defense included vaccines?

Third

Which line of defense includes fever and inflammation?

Second

Steps for Phagocytosis:

Chemotaxis, adherence, ingestion, digestion, killing

TEST QUESTION: Is fever in your first line of defense?

No

PO2 entering our bodies is what?

159.5mmhg

PO2 in our capillaries is what?

40mmhg

Antigen Presenting Cells (APCs) include what?

Macrophages (monocytes in tissue outside of the bloostream), dendritic cells (monocytes in mucous membranes), B cells (lymphocytes)

What is a pathogen?

Any disease causing organism

What is chemotaxis?

Attraction to chemicals released by microbes

What is Adherence?

Attachment to plasma membrane of phagocyte

What is ingestion?

Pseudopods consume microbe and form a phagosome

What is digestion/killing?

Merging with lysosome containing digestive enzymes and forming lethal oxidants. Exocystosis of residual body.

What do diagnostic tests for AIDS detect?

HIV antibodies

When does HIV transition to AIDS?

When the helper T-cell count is less than 200, frequent infections occur

Characteristics of HIV:

brief flu-like illness after the initial infection

Treatment for AIDS

A combination of reverse transcriptase and protease inhibitors

CD4 is a helper T-cell, how is it activated?

A receptor antigen complex and costimulation (secretion of interleukin 1 from APC to CD4)

TEST QUESTION: Do cytotoxic T cells need costimulation of interleukin to be activated?

Yes

What do cytotoxic T-cells secrete to kill cancer?

Perforin

TEST QUESTION: What antibody action increases the effectiveness of phagocytosis?

Opsonization

What are B cells that dont become plasma cells called?

Memory B cells

Which cells are involved in humoral immunity?

B cells, memory B cells, and plasma cells

Do B cells react more strongly against unprocessed cells?

No

Which lines of defense are non specific

First and Second

What is Cell mediated immunity?

When T cells are attacking infected cells/ pathogens

WHat is antibody/humoral mediated immunity?

When B cells, memory B cells, and plasma cells attack fluids in the body

Characteristics of lymph vessels:

Thin walls and porous

Lymphatic vessles from smallest to largest:

Cappilaries, trunks, ducts

What are the names of the two lymphatic ducts?

Right and Thoracic

Flow of lymph from lower right to upper left

Right lumbar trunk (right thigh), cysterna chyli, thoracic duct

Which lymphatic duct is lipid rich?

Thoracic

Where is the thymus gland located?

Between the anterior heart and posterior sternum

What happens to the thymus with age?

It shrinks

The thymus cortex contains what?

Immature T cells that emigrate to the medulla

What do thymic reticular epithelial cells release?

Thymosin and other hormones

Lymph nodes follow arteries ____ in the body and follows veins ____

deep, superficially

What does malignant/metastatic cancer mean?

The tumor travels and has no fibrous capsule

A benign tumor means?

The tumor has a fibrous capsule and does not travel

Where are thrombocytes stored?

Spleen

What disease are you at risk for if you lose your spleen?

Pneumonia

What side of the body is the spleen on?

Left

Are natural killer cells immunocompetent?

No

Immunological surveillance is constantly carried out by what?

Cytotoxic T cells

What happens to T cells after negative selection?

Anergy causes T cells to remain alive but they cannot be activated

What is deletion in negative feedback?

Causes apoptosis of T cells that would destroy self-tissue

Does negative selection lead to self tolerance?

Yes

What do B cells do?

They become plasma cells, recognize unprocessed antigens, proliferate and differentiate in response to helper T cell secretions, hold BCRs in their membranes that are similar to the antibodies they secrete.

What do Cytotoxic T cells do?

They come from CD8 cells, fight intracellular pathogens, require exposure to antigens associated with MHC-1 and MHC-2 to be fully effectiove, and need stimulation from interleukins to be activated

What are the inflammation response stages?

Vasodilation and increased vessel permeability, emigration, tissue repair

What do immunocompetent cells do?

Develop receptors to recognize foreign antigens

Characteristics of immunocompetent cells:

Have distinct plasma membrane proteins (receptors), are able to conduct immune respinses when properly stimulated/fully activated, cells that will be CD8 or CD4 cells complete development in the Thymus.

What produces/releases interferons?

Virus-infected cells

What causes uninfected cells to produce antiviral proteins that prevent viral replication?

Interferons

What enhances the activity of phagocytes and natural killer cells?

Interferons

What is the classical pathway for activation of complement C3 protein?

C1 antigen-antibody complexes bind and activate

What is the alternate pathway for activation of complement C3 protein?

Lipid-carbohydrate complexes on microbe surfaces interact with factors B,D and P

What is the lectin pathway for activation of complement C3 protein?

Liver produces lectins in response to chemicals from macrophages

What is complement fixation?

Activation of the classical pathway C1 to C3b to C5b which leads to formation of a membrane attack complex which leads to cytolysis

What do cytotoxic T cells do when they encounter a microbial antigen?

They release granzymes that trigger apoptosis.

What happens when a cytotoxic t cells binds to infected cells?

They can release perforin to cause cytolysis and granulysin to destroy the microbe. They can also release lymphotoxin so the target cell damages itself

What is IGM?

Is is the early response before G is available

Where is IGA found?

Saliva, tears and breast milk

What dos IGD do?

Acts as a receptor on B cells

What is the most abundant of the IG antibodies? and what does it do?

IGG is 80% of the IG antibodies and it crosses the placenta fetus

What does IGE do?

Releases histamine from basophils

What is included in the conducting zone?

Everything between your nose to your terminal bronchioles

What is tidal volume?

How much air you normally breathe in, around 500ml

What is the anatomical dead zone?

The air left over in the conducting zone that does not reach the respiratoy zone, average is 150ml

What is included in the respiratory zone?

The bronchioles and lobules

How much air generally reaches the respiratory zone?

550ml

What is external (pulmonary) respiration?

Between the lungs and blood, O2 comes in and CO2 goes out

What is internal (systemic) respiration?

Between blood and tissues, 25% of O2 is removed. PCO2 drops from 45 to 40mmHg

What determines how much oxygen disassociates or binds to hemoglobin?

PO2

What causes O2 dissociation from Hemoglobin?

Increased BPG, Increased H+ concentration, and increased temperature

As airways get ___ they become more ____

Smaller, muscular

What diseases increase compliance?

COPD and Tuberculosis

What disease decreases compliance?

Pneumonia

What diseases can be a aprt of COPD

Emphysema and chronic bronchitis, NOT pneumonia

What is an asthma attack and how is it treated?

The smooth muscles on bronchioles retract. Treatment is administration of norepinephrine (relaxes the bronchioles) and antihistamine (counteracts broonchoconstriction).

Whats a pneumothorax?

when air enters the pleural cavity

Whats a hemothorax?

When blood enters the pleural cavity.

What is atelectasis?

A collapsed lung

What is a small (oat cell) carcinoma?

The least common but most dangerous form of lung cancer. The tumor invades the bronchial wall and compresses the airway which can cause a collapsed lung. 7% survive

Acute pain causes a brief…?

Apnea

What muscles are involved in forces exhalation?

Internal intercostals and abdominals

Function of the pneumotaxic area:

Allows you to transition between inhale and exhale without effort

Function of the Apneuistic area:

Stops you from exhaling to allow a longer inhale

When is the expiratory center used?

During forced exhalation

When in the inspiratory center used?

Constantly in use so you always breathe

What is the most important factor in ventilation rate?

PCO2

What does an increase in PCO2 cause?

Deep and rapid breathing

What cell produces the chemical that reduces surface tension of air in the lungs?

Type 2 alveolar cells

WHat muscles are involved with foced inhalation?

Sternocleidomastoid, scalenes, pectoralis minor

Where do primary bronchi carry air?

Each lung

Where do secondary bronchi carry air?

Each lobe of the lungs

Where do tertiary bronchi carry air?

The segments of the lungs

IF you were to inhale an object, where is it most likely to land?

The right primary bronchi, because the left primary bronchi has a sharp turn