Chapter 8

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116 Terms

1
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The skull consists of _____ cranial bones and _____ facial bones
8, 14
2
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Protection of vital organs and hematopoiesis are two functions commonly named for the __________ skeleton
Axial
3
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Which bone is not part of the axial skeleton?
Clavicle
4
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Which is not a cranial bone?
Vomer
5
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Which bone is not paired?
Mandible
6
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Which of these skull bones cannot be easily palpated?
Ethmoid
7
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The _______ suture is the articulation between the occipital bone and both parietal bones.
Lambdoid
8
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Which of these bones does not contribute to the region known as the pterion?
Occipital
9
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The zygomatic process of the temporal bone and the _________ process of the zygomatic bone form the zygomatic arch.
Temporal
10
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Which bones form the calvaria?
Occipital, parietals, and frontal
11
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Which cranial fossa supports the cerebellum?
Posterior
12
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The basin in the floor of the cranium that accommodates the temporal lobe of the brain is the
Middle cranial fossa.
13
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The sagittal suture joins the
Left and right parietal bones.
14
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Which bone is not part of the nasal complex?
Temporal
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Which bone bears the superior and inferior temporal lines?
Parietal
16
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What is the function of the nuchal lines?
Attachment for muscles and ligaments
17
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The portion of the sphenoid bone that houses the pituitary gland is the
Sella turcica.
18
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Which is not a feature of the ethmoid bone?
Inferior nasal concha
19
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Which bone bears the infraorbital foramen?
Maxilla
20
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Which is not a correct pairing of bone and feature?
Parietal bone - mental foramen
21
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The jugular foramen is located between the _____ and _____ bones.
Occipital; temporal
22
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What is the function of the cribriform plate?
Permits passage of the olfactory nerves
23
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The pterygoid spines and optic canals are features of the _____ bone.
Sphenoid
24
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Which bone is not a facial bone?
Temporal
25
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Which bone is unpaired?
Vomer
26
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The _________ process of the mandible articulates with the temporal bone.
Condylar
27
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Which bones articulate with the zygomatic bone?
Frontal, temporal, and maxilla
28
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A perpendicular plate is a feature of the _____ and _____ bones.
Palatine; ethmoid
29
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Which bone bears the mandibular fossa?
Temporal
30
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The incisive foramen and palatine process are features of which bone?
Maxilla
31
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Which of these is not a paranasal sinus?
Mastoid sinus
32
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Which bones form the inferior margin of the orbit?
Maxilla and zygomatic
33
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Which bone bears the greater and lesser cornua?
Hyoid
34
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What is the location of the auditory ossicles?
Petrous part of temporal bone
35
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Which is characteristic of a female skull, as compared to a male skull?
All of the choices are characteristic of a female skull.
36
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Developmentally, the most significant growth in the skull occurs
Before age 5.
37
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The membranous sheets that connect developing cranial bones are called
Fontanelles.
38
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Of the following list, which describe the functions of the paranasal sinuses?
a and c
39
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The ossicles are
Three small bones within each ear.
40
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The hyoid bone is located between the
Mandible and the larynx.
41
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A skull with five gracile features and one robust feature is most likely a _______ skull.
Female
42
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Which fontanel is the last to close?
Anterior
43
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Which is not a function of the vertebral column?
Passageway for cranial nerves
44
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What is the correct order for the vertebral regions, from superior to inferior?
Cervical - thoracic - lumbar - sacral - coccygeal
45
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The vertebral column protects
The spinal cord
46
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Which statement accurately describes the articulations between ribs and vertebrae?
Twelve thoracic vertebrae articulate with the ribs.
47
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The vertebral column includes ___ cervical, ___ thoracic, and ___ lumbar vertebrae.
7, 12, 5
48
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Which curves of the vertebral column are present at birth?
Thoracic and sacral
49
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Which of the spinal curves forms when a child is about 12 months of age?
Lumbar
50
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The _________ provide passageways for spinal nerves to exit the vertebral column and travel to other parts of the body.
Intervertebral foramina
51
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What is the inner, gelatinous region of each intervertebral disc called?
Nucleus pulposus
52
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Transverse foramina are found in _____ vertebrae.
Cervical
53
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The vertebral processes that are most easily palpated along the midline of the back are the _____ processes.
Spinous
54
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The cervical and lumbar curvatures are ________ curves, and they arch ________.
Secondary; anteriorly
55
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The spinal curvature that develops as a child learns to walk shifts the trunk weight over the legs. It is an example of a ________ curve.
Secondary
56
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The occipital condyles articulate with the
Atlas
57
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Which cervical vertebra is also known as the vertebra prominens?
C7
58
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Which of these features is found in a lumbar vertebra?
All of the choices are correct.
59
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Which features are found only on thoracic vertebrae?
Costal facets and demifacets
60
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Which feature is unique to the axis?
Dens
61
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The inferior termination of the sacral canal is an opening called the
Sacral hiatus.
62
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Each auricular surface of the sacrum is located on a(n)
Ala
63
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The clavicles articulate with the sternum at the _____ notches.
Clavicular
64
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What is the superior portion of the sternum called?
Manubrium
65
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The sternal angle can be used as an anatomical landmark to identify the position of the
Second rib.
66
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How many pairs of ribs articulate (directly or indirectly) with the sternum?
10
67
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How many pairs of ribs are "floating ribs" that do not articulate with the sternum?
2
68
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Rib 1 articulates with vertebra ______ and the ______.
T1; manubrium of the sternum
69
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Which bone count is not correct for a normal adult human?
7 lumbar vertebrae
70
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The part of a rib that articulates with the demifacets on the bodies of vertebrae is the
Head
71
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Which bone does not belong to the appendicular skeleton?
Sacrum
72
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Which statement accurately compares the hand and the foot?
The hand and the foot each have 14 phalanges.
73
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The only direct connection between the pectoral girdle and the axial skeleton is where the _____ articulates with the _____.
Clavicle; sternum
74
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Which bones comprise each pectoral girdle?
Scapula and clavicle
75
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What bone(s) does the clavicle articulate with?
Scapula and sternum
76
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The ___________ of the scapula is the point where the medial and lateral borders meet.
Inferior angle
77
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The costal tuberosity is a feature of the
Clavicle.
78
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The bones of the antebrachium are the
Radius and ulna.
79
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Which bones articulate with the humerus?
Scapula, radius, and ulna
80
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The head of the humerus articulates with the
Glenoid cavity.
81
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The bony projections that can be palpated medially and laterally at the wrist are the
Styloid processes.
82
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In anatomic position, the radius lies _____ to the ulna
Lateral
83
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Which is not a feature of the ulna?
Ulnar notch
84
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The biceps brachii muscle attaches to the _________ of the radius.
Radial tuberosity
85
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Which is not among the bones in the proximal row of carpals?
Trapezoid
86
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A pollex has ______ phalanges.
2
87
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Which is not a carpal bone?
Capitulum
88
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At what location do the three bones of the os coxae fuse?
Acetabulum
89
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Which is not correct regarding the pelvis?
In anatomic position, the pubis is posterior and inferior to
the ischium.
90
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On the os coxae, the ischial ramus is fused to the
Inferior pubic ramus.
91
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The ___________ subdivides the pelvis into the "true pelvis" and the "false pelvis"
Pelvic brim
92
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Which does not contribute to the pelvic brim?
Gluteal line
93
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Which is not characteristic of a male pelvis?
Coccyx tilted posteriorly
94
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What are you resting your hands on when you rest them on your hips, just below the waist?
Iliac crests
95
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As an adult ages, the symphysial surface of the pubis
Becomes more flattened, and a bony rim forms at its circumference
96
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Which is not a site for muscle attachment on the femur?
Lateral condyle
97
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Which is not correct regarding the femur?
The intercondylar fossa is located on the anterior surface of the bone.
98
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Which is a sesamoid bone?
Patella
99
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Which bones articulate with the femur?
Os coxae, tibia, patella
100
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Which is not correct regarding the patella?
The broad superior portion of the patella is called the apex.