Exam 2 (KIN 569)

assessment of cardiorespiratory fitness, body composition, muscular fitness, and flexibility/low-back function

which of the following is not one of the reasons for testing one’s cardiorespiratory fitness?

a. screen for coronary heart disease (CHD)

b. determine ability to perform specific work tasks

c. determine one’s muscular strength and ability to perform exercises

d. provide a basic for exercise programming

c

which of the following measures of CRF indicate liters of O2 used by the body each minute?

a. L * min-1

b. METs

c. ml * kg-1 * min-1

a

which of the following measures of CRF indicates multiples of resting metabolic rate?

a. L * min-1

b. METs

c. ml * kg-1 * min-1

b

which of the following measures of CRF indicates the milliliters of O2 used by each kilogram of body weight each minute?

a. L * min-1

b. METs

c. ml * kg-1 * min-1

c

true or false: financial cost is an important part of choosing an appropriate CRF test.

true

what is the sequence of CRF testing (initial 4)?

informed consent, health history, screening, resting CV tests and body comp

which of the following is a CRF test that measures one’s physiological responses to increasing workloads?

a. field tests

b. exercise tests

c. strength test

d. lab tests

d

which of the following is a CRF test that measures all-out performance in an endurance test?

a. field tests

b. exercise tests

c. strength test

d. lab tests

a

true or false: field tests are easier to control than lab tests.

false

which of the following is one of the advantages of field testing for CRF?

a. difficult to monitor physiological responses

b. ability to test large numbers in a short time

c. other factors can affect the outcome like motivation or the environment

d. lack of graded or submax testing protocols

b

which of the following are examples of set distance field tests?

a. 1 mile walk

b. 3 minute step test

c. 1.5 mile run

d. 12 minute walk/run

a and c

what is the step height for the queens step test protocol?

a. 10 inches

b. 5 inches

c. 11.5 inches

d. 16.25 inches

d

how long should the queens step test protocol last?

3 minutes

for the queens step test protocol, the men step at a ____ beats/min cadence and the women step at a ____ beats/min. on the metronome, these values would be ___ and ___.

24, 22, 96, 88

how soon should you start finding heart rate after stopping the queens step test protocol? how long should you count for?

5-20 seconds after stopping, count for 15 seconds

true or false: you should walk at a moderate pace during the mile walk test so that you are able to talk during it.

false

for the cooper run test, how long do you run?

a. 1 mile

b. 12 minutes

c. 1.5 miles

d. 10 minutes

b or c

true or false: the cooper run test underestimates VO2 in children and overestimates VO2 in competitive runners and those who walk.

true

true or false: the cooper run test is the most common CRF test because it is easy to administer and is not expensive.

true

the PACER test is a shuttle run that covers what distance?

20 meters

the PACER test starts at _____ mph and increases ____ mph at each level.

5.3, 0.3

for the PACER test, what is the CRF based on?

a. heart rate after completion

b. number of 20m laps completed

c. max speed reached

b

which of the following is not one of the guidelines for the modified Canadian aerobic fitness test?

a. reach 85% of age-predicted max HR

b. 3.5 minute stages of stepping

c. more fit individuals can have a higher step or additional stages

d. stage progression is based on HR response to previous stage

b

during the _______, the client stops because of exhaustion.

a. symptom limited GXT

b. maximal GXT

c. submaximal GXT

b

during the _____, the client stops at 85% of maximal heart rate.

a. symptom limited GXT

b. maximal GXT

c. submaximal GXT

c

during the _______, the client stops due to discomfort or abnormal physiological responses.

a. symptom limited GXT

b. maximal GXT

c. submaximal GXT

a

which of the following are disadvantages of using a cycle ergometer GXT?

a. pacing may be difficult to regulate

b. leg fatigue may force a client to stop before reaching VO2 max

c. each increment in intensity places greater relative load on a smaller person

d. instruments are moderately priced

a, b, and c

true or false: a cycle ergometer GXT test is safe for those with balance problems

true

when doing a cycle ergometer GXT test, you should use a _______ rpm range for low to average fitness individuals.

50-60

when doing a cycle ergometer GXT test, you should use a _______ rpm range for highly fit or competitive cyclists.

70-100

true or false: for a treadmill GXT test, the grade of the treadmill should be 5%

false, 0

which of the following is NOT a benefit of doing a treadmill GXT?

a. natural activity

b. treadmill maintains speed, so it’s a reproducible test

c. accommodates all fitness levels

d. some clients may want to use the handrail

d

true or false: it is easy to take BP, HR, or blood measurements while a client does the treadmill GXT.

false

what are the three common variables measured during GXTs?

HR, BP, and RPE

during rest or steady-state activity, how long should you take someone’s HR? postexercise?

30 seconds, 10-15 seconds

true or false: obtaining true maximal HR can improve the accuracy of prescribing optimal training HR.

true

systolic blood pressure should _______ with increasing workloads.

a. increase

b. decrease

c. remain the same

a

diastolic blood pressure _____ with increasing workloads.

a. increase

b. decrease

c. remain the same

b or c

which of the following measurements provides subjective information regarding intensity of activity?

a. systolic BP

b. HR

c. RPE

d. diastolic BP

c

true or false: submax or maximal tests can use the same GXT criteria. they also have the same criteria for test termination.

false

which of the following tests can effectively identify ischemic heart disease?

a. maximal

b. submaximal

c. stepping test

d. submaximal cooper run

a

which of the following tests are useful in assessing fitness and are less expensive to administer?

a. maximal

b. submaximal

c. stepping test

d. maximal cooper run

b

true or false: VO2 max estimated from a submaximal test is not as accurate as that obtained from a maximal test.

true

VO2 max is usually estimated from the ___ stage achieved during the GXT.

a. first

b. middle

c. postexercise

d. final

d

stage ____ may affect the accuracy of determining functional capacity.

a. intensity

b. order

c. length

d. number

c

functional capacity is determined from the highest work rate during which _________ responses is/are still normal.

a. BP

b. ECG

c. HR

d. all of the above

d

because estimation of VO2max is based on submax HR responses, conditions that affect HR should be noted. which of the following factors can affect submaximal HR, BP, and RPE responses of a GXT?

a. amount of sleep

b. time of day

c. medications

d. emotional state

e. all of the above

e

true or false: an active cool-down procedure is not necessary after an exercise test.

false

how long should active recovery/cool-down last after an exercise test?

3 minutes

if your client is showering after the CRF testing protocol, how long should they wait after the test to take one?

30 minutes

what is the range of essential fat for women?

8-12%

what is the range of essential fat for men?

3-5%

which of the following indicates the minimal amount of fat needed for normal body function?

a. fat-free mass

b. percent body fat

c. essential fat

d. fat mass

c

which of the following indicates lean body mass aka everything but fat?

a. fat-free mass

b. percent body fat

c. essential fat

d. fat mass

a

what BMI level indicates obesity?

30 or greater

what BMI level indicates overweight?

25-29.9

what body fat percentage for men indicates obesity?

25% or greater

what body fat percentage for women indicates obesity?

38% or greater

what fraction of American adults are classified as overweight or obese?

2/3

what fraction of American adults are classified as obese?

1/3

Nearly ___ of children and adolescents are overweight or obese.

1/3

which of the following is not one of the health consequences of obesity?

a. sleep apnea

b. type 2 diabetes

c. hypertension

d. rheumatoid arthritis

d

which of the following is not one of the health consequences of obesity?

a. coronary artery disease (CAD)

b. stroke

c. osteoarthritis

d. dyslipidemia

e. all of the above are health consequences

e

______ obesity is a male-pattern obesity described as an apple shape. Fat is stored in the trunk and abdomen and is associated with increased risk for chronic disease.

android

______ obesity is a female-pattern obesity described as a pear shape. Fat is stored in the hips and thighs.

gynoid

excessive _____________ can adversely affect health by decreasing mood, fertility, temperature regulation, and longevity.

weight loss

in young men, a waist-to-hip ratio of >____ is indicative of android fat pattern.

0.95

in young women, a waist-to-hip ratio of >____ is indicative of android fat pattern.

0.86

in men ages 60 to 69 years old, a waist-to-hip ratio of >____ is indicative of android fat pattern.

1.03

in women ages 60 to 69 years old, a waist-to-hip ratio of >____ is indicative of android fat pattern.

0.9

in men, a waist circumference of >____ cm is indicative of android fat pattern.

102

in women, a waist circumference of >____ cm is indicative of android fat pattern.

88

what is the BMI for someone with the underweight classification?

less than 18.5

what is the BMI for someone with a normal classification?

18.5 to 24.9

what is the BMI for someone with the overweight classification?

25 to 29.9

what is the BMI for someone with the obesity class I classification?

30 to 34.9

what is the BMI for someone with the obesity class II classification?

35 to 39.9

what is the BMI for someone with the obesity class III classification?

greater than or equal to 40

when determining the BMI classification for young children to teenagers, they would be classified as underweight if

a. their BMI is the 85th to 95th percentile for their age

b. their BMI is 5th to 85th percentile for their age

c. their BMI is greater than or equal to the 95th percentile for their age

d. their BMI is <5th percentile for their age

d

when determining the BMI classification for young children to teenagers, they would be classified as healthy weight if

a. their BMI is the 85th to 95th percentile for their age

b. their BMI is 5th to 85th percentile for their age

c. their BMI is greater than or equal to the 95th percentile for their age

d. their BMI is <5th percentile for their age

b

when determining the BMI classification for young children to teenagers, they would be classified as overweight if

a. their BMI is the 85th to 95th percentile for their age

b. their BMI is 5th to 85th percentile for their age

c. their BMI is greater than or equal to the 95th percentile for their age

d. their BMI is <5th percentile for their age

a

when determining the BMI classification for young children to teenagers, they would be classified as obese if

a. their BMI is the 85th to 95th percentile for their age

b. their BMI is 5th to 85th percentile for their age

c. their BMI is greater than or equal to the 95th percentile for their age

d. their BMI is <5th percentile for their age

c

true or false: as a person gains adipose tissue, the increase in skinfold thickness is proportional to the additional fat weight.

true

what are the seven commonly used skinfold sites?

abdomen, triceps, chest, midaxillary, subscapular, suprailiac, and thigh

true or false: the two-compartment model divides the body into three or more components, commonly fat, water, and solids (protein and minerals).

false

what amount of fat is assumed to be subcutaneous?

1/3

true or false: there are separate skinfold measurement for men and women because women have more body fat and store it differently.

true

as someone ages, there is a _____ in subcutaneous fat.

decrease

fat tissue is ____ dense than muscle or bone.

less

which of the following procedures is the most accurate when it comes to measuring someone’s fat content?

a. hydrostatic weighing

b. DEXA

c. BodPod

d. skinfold measurement

b

_____________________ is the ability of a muscle group to develop maximal contractile force against a resistance in a single contraction (1RM).

muscular strength

____________________ is the ability of a muscle group to exert a submaximal force for extended periods.

muscular endurance

___________________ is the ability to produce a force per unit of time or the rate of performing work.

muscular power

auxotonic muscle action indicates lifting using _____.

a. isokinetic dynamometers

b. machines with cams

c. machines with pulleys

d. free weights

e. b and c

d

isokinetic muscle action indicates lifting using _____.

a. isokinetic dynamometers

b. machines with cams

c. machines with pulleys

d. free weights

e. b and c

a

variable resistance muscle action indicates lifting using _____.

a. isokinetic dynamometers

b. machines with cams

c. machines with pulleys

d. free weights

e. b and c

e

to warm-up for a 1RM test, one should engage in ________ minutes of light aerobic, dynamic movements and submaximal repetitions of specific exercises.

5-10