urianalysis & body fluids exam

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Last updated 12:50 PM on 1/20/26
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212 Terms

1
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Which department would tube 1 of CSF collection go to if there are THREE tubes collected?

Chemistry and serology

2
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Which department would tube 2 of CSF collection go to if there are THREE tubes collected?

Microbiology

3
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Which department would tube 3 of CSF collection go to if there are THREE tubes collected?

Hematology

4
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Which department would tube 1 of CSF collection go to first if there is ONE tube collected?

Microbiology (to avoid contamination)

5
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What tests can be used to diagnose multiple sclerosis?

CSF IgG Index >0.70, CSF protein electrophoresis and Myelin Basic Protein

6
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What disorder is indicated by the presence of oligoclonal bands present in CSF but absent in serum?

Multiple Sclerosis, >90 patients have these bands

7
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What disorder is indicated by the presence of oligoclonal bands present in CSF and serum?

Lymphoproliferative conditions

8
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Reference range for CSF Glucose

9
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Reference for total protein

10
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Reference range for WBC

11
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What type of WBCs are present in bacterial meningitis?

Mainly Neutrophils

12
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What type of WBCs are present in viral meningitis?

lymphocytes

13
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What type of WBCs are present in fungal or tubercular meningitis?

lymphocytes and monocytes

14
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What are some characteristics of a traumatic tap?

No xanthochromia, clotting present, negative CSF D-dimer, heavy blood in tube 1 only, no erythrocytes/siderophages/macrophages, colorless supernatant

15
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What type of analytical error is patient misidentification, transcription errors and inability to identify interfering substances?

post analytical error

16
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Collection and transportation issues are considered what type of analytical error?

Pre-analytical error

17
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Test analysis issues are considered what type of analytical error?

Analytical error

18
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Reporting issues are considered what type of analytical error?

Post analytical error

19
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Why do the kidneys form urine?

As an ultrafiltrate of plasma

20
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What does urine consist of?

95% water and 5% solutes

21
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Creatinine and uric acid are examples of what type of substance?

Organic substance

22
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What 3 elements are inorganic substances of urea?

chloride, sodium and potassium

23
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What is oliguria?

decreased urine output

24
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What is anuria?

no urine production

25
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What is nocturia?

excessive urination at night

26
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What is polyuria?

excessive urination

27
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What can oliguria be associated with?

dehydration due to vomiting, diarrhea, sweating or burns

28
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What can polyuria be associated with?

diabetes inspidus and mellitus

29
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What can anuria be associated with?

serious kidney damage or reduced renal blood flow

30
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What medical condition is associated with polydipsia, polyuria and DECREASED specific gravity?

diabetes inspidus

31
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What medical condition is associated with polydipsia, polyuria and INCREASED specific gravity?

diabetes mellitus

32
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What is occurring during diabetes insipidus?

ADH is not functioning properly as it is not telling kidneys to reabsorb water, leading to very dilute urine

33
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In which condition can you most commonly observe rice bodies?

Rheumatoid arthritis

34
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What does it mean if a crystal has a strong birefringence under direct microscopy?

bright against a dark background

35
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What does it mean if a crystal has a weak birefringence under direct microscopy?

dim against a dark background

36
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What does is mean if a crystal has positive birefringence under compensated microscopy?

Blue color when parallel

37
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What does is mean if a crystal has negative birefringence under compensated microscopy?

Yellow when parallel

38
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Describe monosodium urates and their significance

Needle like crystals that are seen in gout (purine metabolism), negative strong birefringence, yellow when parallel

39
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What P-SF glucose difference is considered normal?

< 10 mg/dL

40
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What P-SF glucose difference is considered non-inflammatory/hemorrhagic?

<20 mg/dL

41
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What P-SF glucose difference signifies an inflammatory joint disorder?

>20 mg/dL

42
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What P-SF glucose difference signifies a septic joint disorder?

>40 mg/dL

43
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What color of synovial fluid may indicate a non-inflammatory/inflammatory disorder?

Yellow

44
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What color of synovial fluid may indicate a septic joint disorder?

yellow-green

45
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What color of synovial fluid may indicate a hemorrhagic disorder?

red-brown

46
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Describe calcium pyrophosphate crystals and their significance

Short stubby rods seen in pseudo-gout, weak birefringence and blue when parallel

47
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What is used in the ropes (mucin clot) test?

Synovial fluid added to 2-5% acetic acid, normal will form a clot surrounded by clear fluid (means high viscosity)

48
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what can an abnormal result in the ropes test look like and what does it indicate?

theres decreased viscosity, which can indicate inflammatory, septic and hemorrhagic joint disorders

49
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What is the purpose of a peritoneal lavage and how is it performed?

saline is injected into the peritoneal cavity and an RBC count is performed, detects early intra-abdominal bleeding from more than 100,000 RBCs/uL

50
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Thoracentesis

pleural cavity (lung)

51
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Pericardiocentesis

heart cavity

52
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Paracentesis

peritoneal cavity (stomach)

53
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In serous fluids, what type of results would a transudate effusion show?

Clear, everything decreased, <500 WBCs

54
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In serous fluids, what type of results would an exudate effusion show?

Cloudy, >30 g/L fluid TP, >500 WBCs, >0.5 fluid:serum ratio, >0.67 fluid LD and ratio

55
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What are the conditions seen in transudate effusions?

increasing hydrostatic pressure and decreasing oncotic pressure

56
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What are the conditions seen in exudate effusions?

increase capillary permeability and cause lymphatic obstruction

57
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What are some characteristics of chylous effusion?

lymphatic obstruction/duct leakage, mostly lymphs, absent cholesterol crystals, chylomicrons present

58
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What are some characteristics of pseudochylous effusion?

chronic inflammatory disorders, mixed cells, cholesterol crystals present, no chylomicrons

59
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Where is the volume of amniotic fluid derived from in the 1ST trimester?

maternal circulation

60
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Where is the volume of amniotic fluid derived from AFTER 1ST trimester?

fetal urine production

61
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Where is the volume of amniotic fluid derived from in the 3RD trimester?

fetus secretes lung liquid

62
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How do we differentiate material urine from amniotic fluid?

amniotic fluid has LESS creatine and urea and MORE glucose and protein

63
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If change in A450 is in zone 3 of Liley graph, what test would we do next?

assess fetal lung maturity, fetus severely affected and intervention required

64
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In the tests for neural tube defects, we would start with the ____ test. If positive, we would follow up with the ___ test.

  1. Alpha-1 fetoprotein (AFP)

  2. Acetylcholinesterase (AChE) confirmatory**

65
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What is the purpose of the LS (Lecithin:Spingomyelin) ratio? How can it be interpreted?

used to assess fetal lung maturity AFTER 35 weeks, ratio >2.0, premature delivery is safe

66
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If the first portion of ejaculate is missing, what values will be affected?

Concentration DECREASED, pH INCREASED

67
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If last portion of ejaculate is missing, which values are affected?

Volume and pH DECREASED, Concentration INCREASED

68
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Concentration reference range in semen

>20 million

69
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Motility reference range for semen

>50% within an hour

70
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Volume reference range for semen

2-5 mL

71
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Viability reference range for semen

50% living semen

72
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What should a scientist look for in a post vasectomy analysis and should it be reported?

Looking for sperm and should be reported if found.

73
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When should a seminal fructose level be conducted?

decreased sperm concentration, low fructose levels

74
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Which test should be conducted when there is a normal concentration but DECREASED motility?

Eosin-negrosin stain

75
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What test should be conducted when decreased sperm motility with clumping is present?

male antisperm antibodies

76
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What test should be conducted when analysis is normal but there is infertility?

female antisperm antibodies

77
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Which structure contributes the largest volume of seminal fluid?

seminal vesicles

78
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What are the (3) fecal OCCULT blood tests?

Guaiac, immunochemical and porphyrin

79
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What does the Guaiac occult blood test look for?

upper and lower GI bleeding

80
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What does the immunochemical occult blood test look for?

Lower GI bleeding

81
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what does the porphyrin occult blood test look for?

upper GI bleeding

82
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What does a red fecal sample indicate about site of infection?

lower GI bleed

83
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What does a black fecal sample indicate about site of infection?

upper GI bleed

84
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What does a green fecal sample indicate about site of infection?

choleastasis

85
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What sample is required for a quantitative fecal test?

3 day (72 hours)

86
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What are the causes of steatorrhea?

Maldigestion (pancreatic enzyme and bile deficiency) and malabsorption (intestinal disease)

87
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How should a urine specimen be handled?

If stored at room temp, delivered and tested within 2 hours

88
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How should a urine specimen be handled if it has been refrigerated?

Refrigerated for up to 24 hours, and returned to room temperature before testing

89
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What is important to know about the refrigeration of urine specimens?

Refrigeration can cause amorphous urate and phosphate crystals

90
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What are the acid preservatives used for?

urine culture tubes, preventing bacterial growth

91
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What is the sodium fluoride preservative used for?

drug tests, inhibits reagent strip glucose, blood and leukocytes

92
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What are commercial preservative tablets used for?

when you cannot refrigerate, has controlled concentration

93
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What is the LIGHT GRAY top tune used for?

contains boric acid, useful for bacterial cultures, stable at room temp for 48 hours

94
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What is the yellow UA plus tube used for?

automation, must refrigerate within 2 hours due to no preservatives

95
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What is the cherry red/yellow preservative tube used for?

automation, stable for 72 hours at room temperature

96
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What is a random specimen?

most common received in lab, collected at any time but time must be recorded, used in routine screening

97
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What may affect results from random urine sample?

diet and physical activity

98
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what is the first morning specimen?

most concentrated specimen, prevents false negative pregnancy tests

99
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What is a catheterized specimen?

a specimen collected under sterile conditions by passing catheter through urethra into bladder

100
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What is a midstream clean catch specimen?

safe, less traumatic method, less contaminated than random specimen and is performed by patient

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