PT 851 Musculoskeletal Assessment: Foundations of Clinical Orthopedics & Musculoskeletal Examination

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Flashcards covering musculoskeletal assessment, biological tissues, injury, healing, and orthopedic pathologies from the lecture notes.

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70 Terms

1
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What do PTs aim to understand regarding the healing process in orthopedic evaluation?

Outline physiology/pathophysiology of the healing process and identify factors that can impede it.

2
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What is a primary objective related to orthopedic evaluation?

Understand the principles of a comprehensive orthopedic evaluation.

3
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What is the primary role of collagen in connective tissues?

Structural integrity and tensile forces.

4
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What property does elastin provide to connective tissues?

Elasticity.

5
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What two components make up fascia, tendons, and ligaments?

Collagen and Elastin.

6
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What percentage of dry weight do tendons and ligaments represent?

70-86%.

7
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What type of tendon is partially surrounded by a sheath?

Gliding tendons.

8
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What term describes tendons with a sheath containing synovium?

Vascular tendons.

9
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What is "tenosynovium"?

A sheath with synovium surrounding vascular tendons.

10
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What is tendonitis defined as?

Inflammation of a tendon due to overuse.

11
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What is tendinosis defined as?

A degenerative tendon with thickening.

12
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What is paratenonitis defined as?

Inflammation of the tendon sheath due to friction.

13
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What are the clinical signs of acute tendinitis?

Acute swelling, pain, local tenderness, warmth, dysfunction.

14
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What characterizes tendinosis at a cellular level?

Intratendinous degeneration, cellular/tissue aging, vascular compromise, increased cellularity and neovascularization.

15
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What is the primary characteristic of a reactive tendinopathy?

Tensile or compressive overload leading to prominent repair proteins and proteoglycans.

16
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What indicates the start of disorganization and collagen separation in tendon pathology?

Tendon Dysrepair, with myofibroblasts present.

17
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How do tendon cells appear in a normal tendon?

Spindle-shaped.

18
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What characterizes the collagen in a normal tendon?

Linear, tight bundled.

19
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What characterizes the collagen in tendinopathy?

Disrupted collagen.

20
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What is seen regarding intratendinous nerves in tendinopathy?

Ingrowth of intratendinous nerves.

21
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What are the general characteristics of ligaments?

Dense, thick, stiff.

22
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How do ligaments respond to stress?

In accordance with the SAID principle.

23
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What effect does immobilization have on ligament strength?

It decreases strength.

24
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What degree of ligament sprain involves tearing of a few fibers with minimal loss of structural integrity?

First Degree.

25
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What degree of ligament sprain involves significant structural weakening and some abnormal motion, but a definite end-point to stress?

Second Degree.

26
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What clinical signs are common with a second-degree ligament sprain?

May have hemarthrosis and effusion, more bruising and swelling.

27
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What degree of ligament sprain involves complete tearing of ligaments and marked abnormal motion?

Third Degree.

28
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What interventions are often necessary for a third-degree ligament sprain?

Prolonged protection or surgical intervention.

29
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Is bone highly vascular or avascular?

Highly vascular.

30
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What forces can bone absorb and transmit?

Tensile forces.

31
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What is the term for the ends of a bone, containing articular cartilage?

Epiphysis.

32
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What is the physis of a bone?

The growth plate.

33
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What part of the bone is the shaft?

Diaphysis.

34
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What is the most important factor in fracture healing?

Blood supply.

35
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Name one factor that can negatively affect fracture healing.

Smoking (or Diabetes, Advanced age, Poor nutrition, NSAIDS).

36
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How does nicotine specifically affect fracture healing?

Increases time to fracture healing, increases risk of nonunion, decreases strength of the fracture callus.

37
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What are the three main stages of fracture healing?

Inflammation, Repair, Remodeling.

38
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What forms during the inflammation stage of fracture healing?

Hematoma.

39
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What cells are present at the fracture site during inflammation and contribute to granulation tissue?

Fibroblasts, mesenchymal cells, and osteoprogenitor cells.

40
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What occurs during the repair stage when bone ends are not in continuity?

Bridging (soft) callus formation.

41
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What process replaces soft callus with woven bone?

Endochondral ossification.

42
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What type of bone is formed during the hard callus stage?

Woven bone.

43
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What begins during the middle of the repair phase and continues until after clinical healing, allowing bone to assume its normal configuration?

Remodeling.

44
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What type of bone replaces woven bone during the remodeling phase?

Lamellar bone.

45
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What type of fracture occurs when a tendon or ligament pulls off a piece of the bone?

Avulsion fracture.

46
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What describes a fracture where the bone does not penetrate the skin?

Closed fracture.

47
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What is a comminuted fracture?

A fracture with more than two fragments of bone broken off.

48
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What describes a fracture where the bone has been completely fractured through its width?

Complete fracture.

49
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What type of fracture involves severe damage to the soft tissue surrounding the bone?

Complex fracture.

50
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What is a compound (open) fracture?

A fracture where bone fragments penetrate through soft tissue and break through the skin.

51
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What type of fracture occurs when the bone is compressed beyond its limits of tolerance, often seen in vertebral bodies?

Compression fracture.

52
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A fracture of the epiphysis and physis (growth plate) is known as what?

Epiphyseal fracture.

53
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What type of incomplete fracture, commonly seen in children, only breaks one side of the bone?

Greenstick fracture.

54
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What is the most common location for stress fractures, accounting for 49%?

Tibia.

55
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What is the most common type of Salter-Harris epiphyseal fracture?

Type II.

56
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Which Salter-Harris fracture type is considered the "best" prognosis?

Type I.

57
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Which Salter-Harris fracture type is considered the "worst" prognosis?

Type V.

58
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What are two characteristics of woven bone?

More random with more osteocytes than lamellar bone, increased turnover rate, weaker and more flexible, not stress oriented.

59
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What bone pathology is characterized by decreased bone mass due to genetic and environmental factors?

Osteoporosis.

60
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What pathology is characterized by decreased mineralization and "softening" of bone due to lack of vitamin D?

Osteomalacia (or rickets in children).

61
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What is osteomyelitis?

An infectious process of bone.

62
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How does the WHO define osteoporosis in terms of lumbar bone mass?

At least 2.5 SDs below the peak bone mass of a 25 y/o individual.

63
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What is osteopenia defined as?

Bone mass that is 1.0-2.5 SDs below peak bone mass of a 25 y/o.

64
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What are the two main types of osteoporosis?

Type I (Postmenopausal) and Type II (Age-related).

65
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Name one treatment for osteoporosis.

Physical activity (or Estrogen-progesterone therapy, Calcium supplementation, Vitamin D, various other drugs).

66
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What are three characteristics of hyaline (articular) cartilage?

Viscoelastic, aneural, avascular.

67
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What are the cells found in cartilage?

Chondrocytes.

68
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What type of collagen is prominent in fibrocartilage?

Type I and type II collagen.

69
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Name one example of where fibrocartilage is found.

Menisci (or IV discs, pubic symphysis, TFCC).

70
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What is a common macroscopic finding in osteoarthritis due to the body adapting to cartilage loss?

Bone spurs (osteophytes).