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112 Terms
1
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The steroid hormone-receptor complex binds to __________.
hormone response elements in DNA
2
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The role of insulin is to ______.
allow cells to take in glucose
3
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Individuals with Type I diabetes ______.
do not produce insulin
4
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Individuals with type II diabetes ______.
do not respond to insulin
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Dehydration is detected by osmorecpetors in the _____.
hypothalamus
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Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is released by the _______.
posterior pituitary
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What is the function of ADH?
decrease urine volume output and cause blood vessel constriction
8
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Steroid hormones bind to _____ of the target cell
protein receptors in the cytoplasm or nucleus
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the steroid hormone receptor complex binds to _______.
hormone response elements in DNA
10
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The mode of action of steroid hormones involves
stimulation of mRNA transcription
11
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Hormones display ______ effects when one hormone enhances the target organ’s response to a second hormone that is secreted later.
permissive
12
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The body’s stress response or general adaptation syndrome (GAS) typically involves elevated levels of _______.
glucocorticoids
13
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Similar to neurotransmitters, hormones exert their action only on cells that have specific _________ that the hormones bind to.
Receptors
14
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Which hormone stimulates sperm production?
Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH)
15
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Which pituitary hormone reduces urine volume and increases blood volume ?
Antidiuretic hormone
16
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which adrenal cortical hormone helps maintain blood pressure and blood volume ?
Aldosterone
17
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Which pancreatic cells secrete insulin ?
Beta cells
18
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what defines hormone specificity ?
Each receptor binds to only one hormone
19
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peptides and catecholamines are hydrophilic and cannot penetrate a target cell. They therefore bind to receptors where?
On the cell surface
20
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The body’s reaction to stress is called what ?
General Adaptation Syndrome
21
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The structure of hemoglobin consists of ____ chains.
four
22
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Two of the chains in hemoglobin are alpha and two are beta proteins. true or false ?
true
23
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____________ is inadequate oxygen transport and can be detected by the kidneys and liver.
hypoxemia
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When hypoxemia is detected, ________ is produced and secreted.
erythropoietin
25
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EPO will stimulate the red bone marrow to produce ______ .
RBCs
26
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production of RBCS will result in an increase of ______ transport throughout the body
oxygen
27
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Hypoxemia correction is controlled by a ______ feedback loop.
negative
28
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what are the components of the circulatory system ?
heart, blood vessels, and blood
29
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Viscosity and osmolarity will both increase if the amount of ________ in the blood increases.
erythrocytes and protein
30
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all the functions of platlets include:
* they stick together to form temporary platelet plugs that seal small breaks in injured blood vessels. * they internalize and destroy bacteria * They secret growth factors that stimulate mitosis in fibroblasts and smooth muscle and thus help to maintain and repair blood vessels * they initiate the formation of a clot - dissolving enzyme that dissolves blood clots which have outlasted their usefulness
\
31
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In healthy blood vessels, platelets do not adhere because the smooth endothelium is coated with ______ .
prostacyclin
32
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What are two principal functions of erythrocytes
to pick up oxygen from the lungs and deliver it to tissues and to pick up carbon dioxide from the tissues and unload it in the lungs.
33
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How many heme groups are there in each hemoglobin molecule?
4
34
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An individual with A antigens in their RBCs, but no B antigens, has which ABO blood type?
type A
35
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What is the function of fibrin?
Fibrin creates the framework of a blood clot
36
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The AV valves close in response to the ______________.
contraction of the ventricles and resulting rise in ventricular pressure
37
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Action potentials received directly from ________________ stimulate the papillary muscles to contract, allowing for the proper _______________ of the AV valves.
purkinje fibers, opening
38
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Mitral valve prolapse severe enough to cause regurgitation may directly cause _________________ pressure in the ____________ atrium.
increased, left
39
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The semilunar valves remain open throughout the ____________________ phase of the cardiac cycle.
late ventricular systole
40
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The atria remain in diastole throughout both the _______________________ phases of the cardiac cycle.
ventricular systole, and early to mid ventricular diastole
41
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Positive inotropes allow the heart to pump ____________ blood with fewer heart beats. They do this by _____________________ the end-systolic volume (ESV).
more; decreasing
42
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An individual with high blood pressure (hypertension) is expected to benefit from the administration of ____________________ inotropic drugs that _______________ the hearts workload.
negative; decrease
43
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44
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The expected effect of the drug Digoxin is to _________________ ventricular contraction and _________________ stroke volume.
strengthen; increase
45
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First degree block is caused by ___________.
* delay of action potential between SA and AV nodes
46
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the rate of ventricular conduction is best determined by the __________ on an ECG
The number of QRS complexes
47
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An ECG tracing from someone with a Third degree AV block is best described as tracing with a _________.
2:1 ratio of P waves to QRS complexes
48
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The semilunar valves close during __________.
ventricular diastole
49
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The atrioventricular valves open during __________.
ventricular diastole
50
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Which of the following is the correct formula for calculating cardiac output?
HR X SV
51
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If a person's heart is pumping 5000 mL of blood in one minute and the heart rate is 50 beats per minute, what is the cardiac output?
HR X SV
52
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The difference between the maximum and resting cardiac output is called __________.
cardiac reserve
53
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Which of the following has a strong, positive inotropic effect, meaning it increases the strength of each contraction of the heart?
hypercalcemia
54
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The Frank-Starling law of the heart states that an additional stretch of the myocardium produces a significant increase in __________ on the next beat.
contraction force
55
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As exercise progresses, muscular activity __________ venous return. This increases the __________ on the right ventricle.
increases, preload
56
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Which circuit carries blood from the right ventricle to the lungs for gas exchange and returns it to the left atrium of the heart?
pulmonary
57
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What is the double layered sac that surrounds the heart called?
pericardium
58
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The passage from atria to the ventricles is regulated by which valve?
Atrioventricular
59
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What is the ability to rhythmically depolarize without outside stimulation called?
autorhythmic
60
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Why do fluids leave the capillaries at the arterial end?
the net filtration pressure of the blood is higher at the arterial end than it is at the venous end.
61
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\ Approximately what percent of fluid that exits the capillaries at the arterial end reenters the capillaries at the venous end?
\
90%
62
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Which of the following is *not* detected by chemoreceptors in the carotid and aortic bodies?
Blood pressure
63
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64
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the medulla oblongata contains Chemoreceptors
true or false
true
65
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Which of the following will *not* increase the heart rate?
increased blood pressure
66
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Where are baroreceptors found?
carotid sinuses
67
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\ \ \ Action potentials are conducted from the baroreceptors to the brain via which nerve?
glossopharyngeal
68
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The action potential from the brain to the heart travels along which nerve(s)?
vagus nerve
69
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What is the best way to estimate the MAP? (mean arterial pressure)
take the diastolic pressure and add one - third of the pulse pressure
70
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Why does exercise increase venous return?
the heart beats faster and harder increasing cardiac output and pressure
71
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During exercise, the adrenal medulla and sympathetic nerves cause which of the following to occur?
arterioles dilate in response to epinephrine and norepinephrine.
72
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Which term refers to the feedback response to blood pressure changes?
baroreflex
73
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Which of the following sequences for the processing of proteins produced within the cell is correct?
Proteins are broken into fragments, transported to the rough endoplasmic reticulum, combined with class I MHCs, move to the Golgi apparatus, then to the plasma membrane.
74
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Which of the following sequences for the processing of proteins originating outside of the cell is correct?
Proteins are broken into fragments within a vesicle, which fuses with a Golgi vesicle containing class II MHCs, and this complex is transported to the plasma membrane.
75
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Foreign antigens presented on class I MHC molecules __________.
stimulate cell production by activated T cells
76
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Arrange the following in the proper sequence in which they occur during the inflammatory response. \n 1. Neutrophils roll along endothelium \n 2. Integrin activation \n 3. Margination
1,2,3
77
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During the inflammatory response ______ degranulate and release ________.
mast cells; histamine
78
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Which of the following terms describes the migration of neutrophils from blood vessels?
extravasation
79
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What are monocytes that migrate to the tissue and function as phagocytes called?
macrophages
80
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What does the first line of defense against pathogens consist of?
external barriers
81
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Which of the following is involved in the development of cell-mediated immunity?
antigen- presenting cells
82
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Loss of fibrinogen within the plasma would most likely cause which of the following?
loss of blood clotting
83
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 If intrapulmonary pressure was 760 mm Hg, what would you expect the intrapleural pressure to be?
756
84
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Contraction of the diaphragm and external intercostal muscles results in ____________ in the thoracic volume which results in _______________ of the intrapulmonary pressure.
* an increase; a decrease
85
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Negative pressure ventilation, demonstrated by iron lungs, allows a person to breathe by producing an intermittent negative pressure that moves across the chest and diaphragm. This specific action would artificially induce the intrapulmonary pressure to _____________ atmospheric pressure thus resulting in ______________
Â
drop below;inspiration
86
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When this negative pressure stops being applied, the lungs __________________and the intrapulmonary pressure __________________
Â
recoil;increases
87
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 Using new positive pressure ventilation produces an intermittent positive pressure that moves air into the airways. This specific action would artificially induce the intrapulmonary pressure to ____________ atmospheric pressure thus resulting in ____________.
Â
drop below; inspiration
88
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Respiratory gases cross the respiratory membrane by ___________________
Â
simple diffusion
89
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Which environment separated by the respiratory membrane would display the highest oxygen partial pressure?
alveolar air
90
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Surfactant is produced by __________________
type II pneumocytes
91
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Increased production of surfactant would __________________.
\
result in an increase in the thickness of the respiratory membrane, which would decrease diffusion of respiratory gases.
92
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93
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Insufficient surfactant production would result in __________________ .
A tendency for the lungs to collapse
94
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Oxygen molecules bind ___________________ of the hemoglobin.
Â
specifically to the heme region
95
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A single hemoglobin displaying a saturation level of 75% would be bound to ___________________________
three oxygen molecules
96
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The binding of CO to hemoglobin causes the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve to ___________________
shift to the left, indicating that the carboxyhemoglobin is less likely to release bound oxygen.
97
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Acute carbon monoxide poisoning would result in ____________________ of the tissues because oxygen ____________________
hypoxia, is not released from hemoglobin in sufficient amounts at the tissues.
98
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 Oxygen unloading occurs at the _________________________ This process causes a(n) _________________ in the oxygen partial pressure of the blood leaving this region.
Â
tissues; decrease
99
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Hyperpnea would result in ___________________________ within the blood.
an increase in pressure ( oxygen) and a decrease in (carbon dioxide)
100
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Decreased Pressure (carbon dioxide) results in an increase in blood pH levels. Both of these conditions result in a shift of the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve to the ______________________. This shift _______________ hemoglobin’s affinity for oxygen.