Emergency Medicine EOR: ENOT and Ophthalmology (Smarty PANCE)

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Last updated 12:11 AM on 3/29/26
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202 Terms

1
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What is acute laryngitis and what is the most common cause?

Inflammation of the larynx; most common cause is viral (rhinovirus, influenza, parainfluenza) — bacterial is rare

2
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What are the classic clinical features of acute laryngitis?

Dysphonia/hoarseness, dry cough, throat discomfort, low-grade fever; symptoms last <3 weeks by definition

3
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What is the treatment for acute laryngitis?

Supportive: voice rest, humidified air, hydration, analgesics (NSAIDs); antibiotics NOT indicated for viral etiology

4
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When should you be concerned about laryngitis lasting >3 weeks?

Chronic laryngitis → must rule out malignancy (laryngeal cancer), GERD-related laryngitis, or vocal cord polyps — refer to ENT

5
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What findings on laryngoscopy suggest laryngeal cancer vs. acute laryngitis?

Cancer: fixed vocal cord, irregular/ulcerated lesion, unilateral; Laryngitis: bilateral erythema, edema, no mass

6
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What is the gold standard for diagnosing laryngeal cancer?

Laryngoscopy with biopsy

7
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What is the most common cause of acute otitis media (AOM) by age?

Children: Streptococcus pneumoniae (#1), Haemophilus influenzae, Moraxella catarrhalis; preceded by viral URI

8
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What are the diagnostic criteria for AOM?

Moderate-to-severe bulging of TM OR new-onset otorrhea NOT due to otitis externa PLUS acute onset symptoms (ear pain, fever)

9
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What is first-line treatment for AOM?

Amoxicillin 80-90 mg/kg/day x 5-10 days; PCN-allergic: azithromycin or cefdinir

10
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When is watchful waiting appropriate in AOM?

Children ≥2 years with mild unilateral AOM without otorrhea — observe 48-72 hours before antibiotics

11
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What is the most common complication of recurrent AOM?

Conductive hearing loss from persistent middle ear effusion (otitis media with effusion/OME)

12
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What are indications for tympanostomy tubes?

Recurrent AOM (≥3 in 6 months or ≥4 in 1 year), persistent OME >3 months with hearing loss

13
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What organism is associated with AOM after amoxicillin failure?

Beta-lactamase producing H. influenzae or M. catarrhalis → treat with amoxicillin-clavulanate

14
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What is the most common cause of acute pharyngitis?

Viral (70-80%): rhinovirus, adenovirus, EBV; Bacterial: Group A Strep (GAS/S. pyogenes) = 15-30% of cases

15
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What is the Centor criteria and its use?

Scores 1 point each for: Tonsillar exudates, Tender anterior cervical LAD, Fever, Absence of cough; Score ≥3 → test or treat for GAS

16
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What is the gold standard to diagnose GAS pharyngitis?

Throat culture (90-99% sensitivity); Rapid strep antigen test (RAST) is faster but less sensitive (~70-90%)

17
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What is first-line treatment for GAS pharyngitis?

Penicillin V x 10 days OR amoxicillin x 10 days; PCN-allergic: azithromycin or clindamycin

18
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What is the most feared complication of untreated GAS pharyngitis?

Acute rheumatic fever (ARF) — presents 2-4 weeks later; Jones criteria: carditis, polyarthritis, chorea, erythema marginatum, subcutaneous nodules

19
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What features of pharyngitis suggest mononucleosis (EBV)?

Exudative pharyngitis + posterior cervical LAD + splenomegaly + fatigue; heterophile antibody test (Monospot) positive

20
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Why should amoxicillin be avoided in suspected mono?

Causes diffuse maculopapular rash in ~80% of EBV-infected patients given amoxicillin/ampicillin

21
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What is the most common cause of acute sinusitis?

Viral (rhinovirus, influenza) in 90-98% of cases; bacterial most often S. pneumoniae, H. influenzae, M. catarrhalis

22
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What clinical features distinguish bacterial from viral sinusitis?

Bacterial more likely: symptoms >10 days without improvement, severe symptoms (fever >39°C + facial pain), or worsening after initial improvement ("double sickening")

23
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What is the gold standard imaging for sinusitis complications?

CT sinuses with contrast (preferred); MRI if concern for intracranial extension

24
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What is first-line antibiotic for bacterial acute sinusitis?

Amoxicillin-clavulanate x 5-7 days (adults); PCN-allergic: doxycycline or respiratory fluoroquinolone

25
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What are the serious complications of sinusitis to recognize?

Orbital cellulitis, cavernous sinus thrombosis (proptosis + CN III/IV/VI palsy), meningitis, brain abscess

26
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What is Pott's puffy tumor?

Subperiosteal abscess of frontal bone from frontal sinusitis — presents as doughy forehead swelling; requires urgent surgical drainage

27
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What adjunctive therapies are used for sinusitis?

Intranasal saline irrigation, intranasal corticosteroids (decongestant effect), analgesics; oral decongestants may help symptoms

28
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What is the pathophysiology of allergic rhinitis?

IgE-mediated Type I hypersensitivity — allergen cross-links IgE on mast cells → histamine, leukotrienes → sneezing, rhinorrhea, congestion

29
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What distinguishes allergic rhinitis from other rhinitis types clinically?

Allergic: clear rhinorrhea, sneezing, nasal itching, pale/boggy mucosa, nasal polyps, "allergic salute/crease," associated with atopy

30
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What is the first-line pharmacotherapy for moderate-persistent allergic rhinitis?

Intranasal corticosteroids (fluticasone, mometasone) — most effective single therapy for allergic rhinitis

31
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What is the role of antihistamines in allergic rhinitis?

2nd-generation H1 blockers (cetirizine, loratadine, fexofenadine) — preferred (non-sedating); good for sneezing/rhinorrhea, less effective for congestion

32
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What is the gold standard for identifying specific allergens?

Allergy skin prick testing (SPT); serum-specific IgE (RAST/ImmunoCAP) is alternative

33
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What is the definitive treatment for allergic rhinitis?

Allergen immunotherapy (subcutaneous or sublingual) — only disease-modifying treatment

34
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What is barotrauma and what are common scenarios?

Tissue injury from failure to equalize pressure between body cavities and environment; common in divers, air travel, mechanical ventilation

35
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What is the most common form of barotrauma?

Middle ear barotrauma (ear squeeze) — eustachian tube dysfunction prevents equalization; presents with ear pain, hearing loss, TM rupture

36
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What is the Boyle's law relevance to barotrauma?

P1V1 = P2V2 — as ambient pressure increases (descent), gas-filled spaces compress; failure to equalize → pressure damage

37
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What are signs/symptoms of pulmonary barotrauma in divers?

Pneumothorax, pneumomediastinum, arterial gas embolism (AGE) — most dangerous: neurologic symptoms immediately on surfacing

38
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What is the treatment for arterial gas embolism from barotrauma?

100% O2 → hyperbaric oxygen therapy (HBO) immediately; position supine (not Trendelenburg)

39
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What is "the bends" (decompression sickness) and how does it differ from AGE?

DCS: N2 bubbles form in tissues from too-rapid ascent (joint pain, rash, neurologic sx); AGE: air embolism from lung overexpansion; both treated with HBO

40
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What is the treatment for middle ear barotrauma?

Decongestants, analgesics, autoinflation (Valsalva); TM perforation → dry ear precautions, ENT follow-up

41
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What is blepharitis and how is it classified?

Chronic inflammation of eyelid margins; Anterior (staphylococcal, seborrheic) involves lash follicles; Posterior (meibomian gland dysfunction) involves oil glands

42
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What are clinical features of blepharitis?

Burning/itching eyelids, crusting/flaking at lash base, red lid margins, morning mattering, foreign body sensation

43
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What is the treatment for blepharitis?

Warm compresses + eyelid scrubs (baby shampoo) twice daily — cornerstone of therapy; topical azithromycin or bacitracin for bacterial component

44
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What systemic condition is strongly associated with posterior blepharitis?

Rosacea — meibomian gland dysfunction is common; treat with oral doxycycline for severe/recurrent cases

45
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What is a chalazion vs. hordeolum?

Hordeolum (stye): acute staph infection of eyelid gland (painful, red); Chalazion: chronic granulomatous inflammation of meibomian gland (painless, firm nodule)

46
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What is a blowout fracture and what causes it?

Fracture of the orbital wall (most commonly the medial wall or orbital floor) from blunt trauma increasing intraorbital pressure

47
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What is the classic clinical finding of an orbital floor blowout fracture?

Enophthalmos (sunken eye), infraorbital hypesthesia (infraorbital nerve), diplopia on upward gaze (inferior rectus entrapment)

48
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What imaging is gold standard for blowout fracture?

CT orbits (axial + coronal cuts without contrast) — shows bony defect, prolapsed fat/"teardrop sign," entrapped muscle

49
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What is the "teardrop sign" on CT?

Herniation of orbital fat/inferior rectus through orbital floor fracture into maxillary sinus — indicates floor fracture

50
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What is the indication for surgical repair of blowout fracture?

Persistent diplopia + confirmed muscle entrapment on CT, enophthalmos >2mm, large fracture >50% of orbital floor

51
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What associated injuries must be ruled out with orbital blowout fracture?

Globe rupture, hyphema, retinal detachment, traumatic optic neuropathy — always check visual acuity first

52
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What are the three main types of conjunctivitis and their key distinguishing features?

Bacterial: purulent discharge, bilateral, morning crusting; Viral: watery discharge, preauricular LAD, often unilateral→bilateral; Allergic: itching, clear discharge, bilateral

53
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What is the most common cause of bacterial conjunctivitis in adults?

S. aureus, S. pneumoniae, H. influenzae; in sexually active adults: N. gonorrhoeae (hyperacute), C. trachomatis (chronic)

54
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What features suggest gonococcal conjunctivitis and how is it treated?

Hyperacute copious purulent discharge + chemosis within 12-24 hours; treat with IM/IV ceftriaxone; can cause corneal perforation

55
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What is the treatment for bacterial conjunctivitis?

Topical antibiotics (erythromycin, trimethoprim-polymyxin, fluoroquinolone drops) x 5-7 days; self-limited but treatment shortens course

56
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What is the most common viral conjunctivitis cause?

Adenovirus — highly contagious, follicular conjunctivitis, watery discharge, preauricular LAD; treatment is supportive

57
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What neonatal conjunctivitis organism is most sight-threatening?

N. gonorrhoeae (chemical prophylaxis with erythromycin ointment at birth); C. trachomatis causes conjunctivitis at 5-14 days

58
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What are indications to refer conjunctivitis immediately?

Decreased vision, severe pain, corneal involvement, contact lens wearer with symptoms (risk Pseudomonas), hyperacute purulent discharge

59
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What is a corneal abrasion and how is it diagnosed?

Disruption of corneal epithelium; diagnosed by fluorescein staining under cobalt blue/Wood's lamp — abrasion fluoresces green

60
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What are symptoms of corneal abrasion?

Severe pain, photophobia, foreign body sensation, tearing, blepharospasm, decreased visual acuity

61
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What is the treatment for corneal abrasion?

Topical NSAIDs (ketorolac) for pain; topical antibiotics (erythromycin ointment or fluoroquinolone drops); patch NOT recommended routinely

62
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What is a corneal ulcer and how does it differ from abrasion?

Ulcer: infected corneal defect with stromal involvement — appears as white opacity on slit lamp; more severe, risk of perforation

63
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What organism causes corneal ulcers in contact lens wearers?

Pseudomonas aeruginosa — most common and most aggressive; treat with topical fluoroquinolones (ciprofloxacin or moxifloxacin drops)

64
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What organism causes a dendritic corneal ulcer?

Herpes simplex virus (HSV) — dendritic pattern on fluorescein staining is pathognomonic; treat with topical trifluridine or oral acyclovir

65
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Why should topical steroids be avoided in corneal ulcers?

Can worsen bacterial/viral/fungal infections, mask progression, and lead to corneal perforation

66
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What is dacryoadenitis?

Inflammation of the lacrimal gland (superior lateral orbit); can be acute (infectious) or chronic (inflammatory/granulomatous)

67
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What are clinical features of dacryoadenitis?

Swelling/tenderness lateral upper eyelid, ptosis, S-shaped lid deformity, pain with eye movement, possible fever

68
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What are the infectious causes of acute dacryoadenitis?

Bacterial (S. aureus most common), viral (EBV, mumps, CMV, adenovirus)

69
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What systemic conditions cause chronic dacryoadenitis?

Sarcoidosis, Sjögren syndrome, IgG4-related disease, lymphoma

70
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What is the treatment for acute bacterial dacryoadenitis?

Warm compresses + systemic antibiotics (oral cephalexin or augmentin for mild; IV oxacillin for severe); incision and drainage if abscess forms

71
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What organisms most commonly cause dental abscess?

Polymicrobial: oral anaerobes (Prevotella, Fusobacterium), streptococci; Strep viridans common in periapical abscess

72
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What is the classic presentation of a dental abscess?

Throbbing toothache, tender tooth to percussion, facial swelling, possible fluctuant mass, fever; tooth may be carious or non-vital

73
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What are the two types of dental abscess?

Periapical (apex of tooth root, from pulp necrosis) and Periodontal (from gum disease, lateral pocket)

74
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What is the definitive treatment for dental abscess?

Dental referral for incision/drainage ± root canal or extraction; antibiotics (amoxicillin or amoxicillin-clavulanate) if systemic signs

75
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What are life-threatening complications of dental abscess?

Ludwig's angina (bilateral submandibular space infection → airway compromise), cavernous sinus thrombosis, descending necrotizing mediastinitis

76
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What is Ludwig's angina and how is it managed?

Rapidly spreading cellulitis of submandibular/sublingual spaces; hard board-like floor of mouth, drooling, tripod position; AIRWAY FIRST (early intubation), IV antibiotics, surgical drainage

77
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What are the primary causes of ear pain (otalgia) to consider?

Primary (ear pathology): AOM, otitis externa, TM perforation, mastoiditis; Referred (CN V, VII, IX, X): dental, TMJ, cervical spine, pharyngeal

78
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What nerve mediates referred otalgia from pharyngeal/tonsillar pathology?

Glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX) — Jacobson's nerve branch; explains ear pain with tonsillitis/PTA

79
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What is the most common cause of ear pain in adults without otoscopic findings?

TMJ dysfunction — pain with jaw movement, clicking, tender masseter/TMJ

80
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What exam findings point to AOM vs. otitis externa as cause of ear pain?

AOM: TM erythema/bulging, no tragal tenderness; OE: tragal tenderness, canal edema/discharge, TM usually normal

81
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What is epiglottitis and what is the classic presentation?

Life-threatening supraglottic inflammation; classic presentation: "4 D's" — Dysphagia, Drooling, Distress, Dysphonia (muffled "hot potato" voice) + fever, tripod/sniffing position

82
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What organism was the classic cause of epiglottitis and what changed?

Haemophilus influenzae type B (Hib) — dramatic decrease since Hib vaccine; now more often Strep, Staph, or viral in vaccinated children; adults increasingly affected

83
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What is the most important first step in managing suspected epiglottitis?

DO NOT disturb the patient — no throat exam, no lying flat; call anesthesia/ENT immediately, prepare for emergent airway (OR preferred)

84
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What is the "thumbprint sign"?

Classic finding on lateral neck X-ray — swollen epiglottis resembles a thumb; CT neck can confirm but airway management should never be delayed for imaging

85
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What is the treatment for epiglottitis?

Secure airway first → IV antibiotics: ceftriaxone ± vancomycin (MRSA coverage); corticosteroids may reduce inflammation

86
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What age group is most commonly affected by epiglottitis today?

Adults (30-50 years old) in the post-Hib vaccine era; children now less commonly affected

87
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What are the two categories of epistaxis and their differences?

Anterior (90%): Kiesselbach's plexus, Little's area, usually self-limited; Posterior (10%): sphenopalatine artery, often severe, higher risk complications

88
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What is Kiesselbach's plexus?

Anastomotic network of vessels on anteroinferior nasal septum (Little's area) — site of 90% of anterior epistaxis; supplied by branches of ICA and ECA

89
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What is first-line management for anterior epistaxis?

Direct pressure (pinch nose) x 10-15 min with head forward; can use oxymetazoline-soaked cotton for vasoconstriction; silver nitrate cautery if localized

90
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When is posterior nasal packing indicated?

Anterior packing fails or posterior bleed suspected (blood flowing down throat, bilateral bleeding); use Foley catheter or posterior pack

91
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What medications/conditions predispose to epistaxis?

Anticoagulants, NSAIDs, hypertension, hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia (HHT/Osler-Weber-Rendu), cocaine use, nasal trauma

92
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What is HHT (Osler-Weber-Rendu) and how does it present?

Autosomal dominant; telangiectasias on lips/tongue/fingers + recurrent epistaxis; treat with laser coagulation

93
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When should you be concerned about a neoplastic cause of epistaxis?

Unilateral nasal obstruction + epistaxis + cranial nerve deficits → rule out nasopharyngeal carcinoma (especially in Asian males) or juvenile nasopharyngeal angiofibroma

94
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What is the approach to a foreign body in the ear?

Visualization with otoscope; removal with suction, forceps, or irrigation (NOT irrigation for organic material/batteries — swell); batteries require urgent removal

95
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Why is urgent removal of button batteries in the ear/nose critical?

Generates hydroxide ions via electrolysis → liquefactive necrosis within hours; can cause septal perforation (nose) or ossicular damage (ear)

96
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What is the approach for a nasal foreign body?

"Mother's kiss" technique (occlude unaffected nostril, parent blows into child's mouth); positive pressure, or forceps/suction; watch for aspiration

97
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What is the approach for a corneal/conjunctival foreign body?

Slit lamp exam; remove with moistened cotton swab or 25-gauge needle at slit lamp; rust ring from metallic FB → ophthalmology for burr removal

98
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What are signs of a retained intraocular foreign body?

Seidel sign (fluorescein streaming from puncture wound), peaked pupil, low IOP; get CT orbits (not MRI if metallic)

99
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What is acute angle-closure glaucoma (AACG) and what causes it?

Sudden obstruction of aqueous outflow through trabecular meshwork due to forward displacement of iris occluding angle; IOP rises acutely (>21 mmHg, often >40)

100
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What are the classic symptoms and signs of AACG?

Sudden severe eye pain, headache/nausea/vomiting, halos around lights, fixed mid-dilated pupil, rock-hard eye, corneal clouding/steamy

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