Mosby's CT Review Practice Test 1

The pathological process indicated by number 3 on the figure most likely corresponds to:

A) atelectasis

B) lymphadenopathy

C) pleural effusion

D) ground- glass opacity

D) ground- glass opacity

Number 1 on the figure corresponds to what?

A) right atrium

B) pulmonary trunk

C) ascending aorta

D) right ventricle

C) ascending aorta

This HRCT image of the chest was most likely acquired with a section width of:

A) 1mm

B) 5mm

C) 7mm

D) 10mm

A) 1mm

Number 2 on the figure corresponds to which of the following?

A) Left mainstem bronchus

B) anterior segment of the left upper lobe bronchus

C) posterior segment of left upper lob bronchus

D) anterior segment of left lower lobe bronchus

B) anterior segment of the left upper lobe bronchus

Number 7 on the figure corresponds to which of the following?

A) Duodenum

B) pancreatic head

C) jejunum

D) gallbladder

B) pancreatic head

Number 2 on the figure corresponds to which of the following?

A) superior mesenteric vein

B) superior mesenteric artery

C) renal artery

D) portal vein

B) superior mesenteric artery

Number 8 on the figure corresponds to which of the following?

A) duodenum

'B) descending colon

C) jejnum

D) ascending colon

B) ascending colon

Number 1 on the figure corresponds to which of the following?

A) sphenoid sinus

B) ethmoid sinus

C) frontal sinus'

D) maxillary sinus

B) ethmoid sinus

The section thickness that would demonstrate the greatest detail of paranasal sinuses is:

A) 3 mm

B) 5 mm

C) 7 mm

D) 10 mm

A) 3 mm

Which number on the figure corresponds to the zygomatic bone?

A) 3

B) 1

C) 2

D) 6

C) 2

Number 4 corresponds to which of the following?

A) navicular

B) cuboid

C) calcaneus

D) talus

B) cuboid

Which of the following best describes the type of image displayed in the figure?

S) sagittal maximum intensity project (MIP)

B) direct sagittal acquisition

C) sagittal multiplanar reformation (MPR)

D) volume- rendered (3D)

C) sagittal multiplanar reformation (MPR)

Number 6 in the figure corresponds to which of the following?

A) navicular

B) cuboid

C) calcaneus

D) talus

A) navicular

Number 1 corresponds to which of the following?

A) navicular

B) cuboid

C) calcaneus

D) talus

D) talus

Which number corresponds to the anterior horn of the lateral ventricle

A) 1

B) 5

C) 3

D) 2

B) 5

Number 3 on the figure corresponds to?

A) caudate nucleus

B) thalamus

C) third ventricle

D) pineal gland

B) thalamus

Which number on the figure corresponds to the septum pellucidum?

A) 2

B) 3

C) 4

D) 5

C)4

An average range for activated PTT is:

25- 35 seconds

What is the correct angle of insertion for placing a butterfly needle into a vein for IV contrast?

A) 5 degrees

B) 15 degrees

C) 45 degrees

D) 60 degrees

1B?)5 degrees

A total volume of 125mL of iodinated contrast is administered IV via automatic injector is 50 seconds. The flow rate for this injection is?

2.5 mL/. sec

T0)he acronym CTDl is used to describe?

A) a specialized CT technique. used. to measure bone mineral density

B) a quality control test that measures the accuracy of the laser lighting system

o a patC) the radiation dose t

radiation dose to patient during CT. scan

While obtaining a thorough history from patient prior IV contrast, what should be included?

• any prior allergic reaction to contrast

  • history of asthma

What is calculated into the globmerular filtration rate (GFR)?

• age

• sx

• race

What IV contrast technique provides the greatest overall plasma iodine concentration?

bolus technique

Which of the following components of CT image quality are being evaluated in the figure?

1. low contrast detectability

2. noise

   1. uniformity

D) 2 & 3 only

The differences in Hounsfield value exhibited the ROIs measured on this CT image of a water filled phantom are most likely due to the phenomenon referred to as:

A) partial volume averaging

B). noise

C) beam hardening

D) detector drift

C) beam hardening

Which region of interest (ROI) on the figure demonstrates the greatest amount of image noise?

A) 1

B) 2

C) 3

D) impossible to determine from the info provided

A) 1

The artifact present on the lateral borders of the image in the figure most likely represent which of the following?

A) edge gradient

B) out of field artifact

C) tube arcing

D) beam hardening

B) out of field artifiact

The image in the figure was produced using: large (FULL) SFOV; max DFOV (48cm); 200mA; 120 kVp; soft tissue algorithm. Which technical adjustment would serve to reduce the artifact present?

A) switching to a detail or bone algorithm

B) using a smaller SFOV
C) increasing the mA to 240 and the kVp to 140

D) centering the patient within the SFOV

D) centering the patient within the SFOV

The acronym CTDl is use to describe which?

A) a specialized CT imaging technique used to measure bone density

B)a quality control that measures the accuracy of the laser. lighting system

C) radiation dose to the patient during a CT scan

D) a high speed CT scanner useds for cardiac imaging

C) radiation dose to the patient during a CT scanW

While one is obtaining a thorough history from patient prior to IV injection of iodinated contrast, which topics should be included?

1. any prior allergic reactions to contrast

2. presence of HIV or hepatitis infection

3. history of asthma

1 and 3 only

Which of the following factors may eaffect a patient’s calculated glomerular filtration rate (GFR)?

1. age

2. sex

3. race

1, 2, & 3

Which of the following IV contrast agent administration methods provides the greatest ove all plasma iodine concentration?

a) drip infusion

b) bolus technique

c) biphasic technique

d) CT portography

b) bolus technique

A patient in shock may exhibit which of the following symptoms?

1. tachycardia

2. rapid, shallow breathing

3. cyanosis

1, 2, & 3

The drug SOLU- CORTEF may be classified as which of the following?

a) anticholinergic

b) bronchodilator

c) antihistamine

d) corticosteroid

d) corticosteroid

Which of the following is a non- ionic contrast?

a) iodamide

b) iothalamate

c) iohexol

d) diatrizoate

c) iohexol

Which technical factors has a direct effect on patient dose?

a) matrix size

b) algorithm

c) mAs

d) window level

mAs

Which of the following terms is used to describe a patient who is having difficulty breathing?

a) dyslexia

b) dyspnea

c). dysphagia

d) dysphasia

d) dyspnea

Which of the following is used to measure the patient dose from a CT exam?

a) Geiger counter

b) proportional counter

c) ionization chamber

d) film badge

c) ionization chamber

Which of the following describes the situation in which an assumption is made that an unconscious or otherwise physically unable patient consents to medical treatment?

a) informed consent

b). witnessed consent

c) patient proxy

d) implied consent

d) implied consent

Complete cardiac diastole corresponds to which portion of the cardiac cycle on an electrocardiogram. (ECG)?

a) P wave

b) QRS complex

c) alpha wave

d) T wave

d) T wave

DuringCT arthrography, iodinated contrast media is injected directly into the:

joint space

Which of the following is considered one of the iso- osmolar contrast media (IOCM)?

a) idixanol

b) ipomidol

c) iohexol

d) ioversol

a)iodixanol

A common sitre for the IV administration of iodinated contrast media is the anterior recess of the elbow, otherwise known as the:

antecubital space

The potentially serious decline in renal function following an IV administration of contrast material is called:

CIN contrast induced nephrotoxicity

The quantity of absorbed radiation dose based on the radiosensitivity of a particular tissue type is called:

effective dose

Advantages of a saline flush immediately following the IV administration of iodinated contrast material include:

1. reduction in required contrast agent dose

2. reduction in the incidence of CIN

3. reduction of streaking artifact from dense contrast agent in the vasculature

1, 2, & 3

Which of the following medications may be administered to dilate the coronary vasculature prior to cardiac CT exam?

a) sublingual nitroglycerine

b) ab- adrenergic receptor blocking agent (b - blocker)

c) atropine

d) albuterol

a) sublingual nitroglycerine ?????

A normal range for diastolic blood pressure in an adult is:

60- 90 mm Hg

Which of the following is a parenteral route of medication administration?

a) sublingual

b) intramuscular

c) transfermal

d) oral

b) intramuscular

Which of the following methods may be employed to reduce the radiation dose to the pediatric patient undergoing CT?

1. reduce mA

2. limit phases of acquisition

3. increase pitch

1, 2,& 3

Radiation exposure and it’s potentially harmful effects have a relationship that is termed _____

stochastic

Which of the following types of isolation techniques protects against infection transmitted through fecal matter?

a) acid fast bacillus isolation

b) contact isolation

c) enteric precautions

d) drainage secretion precautions

c) enteric precautions

Which of the following is considered one of the ionic radiopaque contrast media (RCM)?

a) iohexol

b). iothalamate meglumine

c) iopamidol

d) ioversol

b) iothalamate meglumine

The radiation dose index calculation that. takes into account the variations in absorption across the field of view due to beam hardening is termed:

CTDlw

Direct contraindications to the administration of iodinated contrast media include:

1. prior life threatening reaction to iodinated contrast material

2. multiple myeloma

3. diabetes

1 only

Which of the following units is used to express the total patient dose from a helically acquired CT exam?

a) roentgens (R)

b) curies (Ci)

c) R-cm (roentgens per cm)

d). mGy-cm (milligrays per cm)

d) mGy- cm

Components of a comprehensive CT stroke management protocol typically include:

1. pre contrast sequence of the brain

2. CTA of the brain and carotids

3. CT perfusion (CTP) of the brain

1, 2, & 3

Simple cysts of the kidney have average attenuation values in the range of:

0 to +20 HU

After initiation of rapid bolus administration of an iodinated contrast enhancement occurs at approx:

25- 35 seconds

The abdominal aorta bifurcates at the level of:

L4