Rheumatology

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360 Terms

1
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What pulmonary complications are seen with RA?

Pleural effusions

Rheumatoid nodules in the lungs

2
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Osteoarthritis is known as ___

Degenerative joint disease

3
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What is the most common form of arthritis?

Osteoarthritis

4
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Osteoarthritis is a Minimally inflammatory arthropathy that results in _____________ with _________ bony changes

cartilage destruction with hypertrophic bony changes

5
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Aging, trauma, obesity, congenital hip dysplasia are all risk factors for developing ____.

OA

6
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This disease causes ur bones to grow larger and weaker than normal. Increases risk of OA

Paget's disease

7
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Explain the pathophysiology behind osteoarthritis

1. Increase in chondrocyte formation

2. Increase in cytokines

3. degrades cartilage (--> narrowed joint space)

4. Narrow and Reactive bone changes

8
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Is osteoarthritis a localized problem or a systemic problem?

Localized

9
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OA can affect virtually ______

any joint

10
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Joints affected by OA demonstrates periarticular bony _____, _____ and _____.

-hypertrophy

-crepitus

-limited ROM

11
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Joint stiffness occurring after long periods of sitting or inactivity (i.e. waking up in the morning)

where does this occur?

Gel phenomenon

OA

12
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How long does the gel phenomenon last in a patient with OA in the morning?

30 minutes

(recall, RA is > 1 hour)

13
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Morning stiffness less than 30 minutes is likely to be ___

Morning stiffness greater than 1 hour is likely to be ____

OA

RA

14
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Changing barometric pressure (weather) may increase _____ symptoms, why?

OA

When the atmosphere and water condensation increases, it increases the pressure exerted on the body causing further compression of the joints

15
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Bouchard's nodes affect the ___ joints

PIP

16
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Form of osteoarthritis associate with Heberden's nodes and Bouchard's nodes

Inflammatory Osteoarthritis

17
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Heberden's nodes affect the ___ joints

DIP

18
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Which abnormalities would you expect to see on the hands of a patient with inflammatory OA?

Heberden's nodes and Bouchard's nodes

19
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Inflammatory OA may mimic ____ or ___.

gout or RA

20
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Diagnosis of OA is based on what 3 things?

1. History

2. Physical Exam

3. X-ray changes

21
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Which condition is associated with these findings on X-ray...

Decreased joint space

Periarticular sclerosis

Bony cysts

Osteophyte formation

Osteoarthritis

22
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What can you expect to find on the X-rays of a patient with OA?

Narrowing of the joint space

Periarticular sclerosis

Osteophyte formation

Bony cysts

23
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What is an important modifiable risk factor for OA?

Obesity

24
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What is the first line non-pharmacologic therapy for patients with OA?

Physical therapy

25
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What kind of exercise regimen should you recommend to your patient with OA?

Non-weight beating exercise (i.e. swimming)

26
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What is the role of steroids in the treatment of OA?

Localized intra-articular steroid injections are helpful

NO role for systemic steroid treatment

27
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What is the first line of treatment for a patient who is 9/10 severe pain with OA ?

Analgesics and NSAIDs

NO percocets

28
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What kind of NAIDS would you prescribe to a pt with OA?

-Bextra

-Celebrex

-Vioxx (no longer on market, BBW)

(cox 2 selective agents)

29
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Synthetic medication injected into the joint line which serve to act like the normal complex sugars of the joint that have been destroyed. Treatment option for OA. Helps lubricate the joint and restore shock absorption

Visco-supplementation (Hyaluronic Acid)

30
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Hyaluronic acid (visco supplementation) injections have been FDA approved for OA in which joint?

Knee

31
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Progressive autoimmune inflammatory disorder causing a symmetric polyarthritis of diarthrodial (synovial) joints

Rheumatoid arthritis

32
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This type of arthritis is considered a systemic disease and may also affect the cardiovascular, pulmonary, dermatologic, renal, ophthalmologic, gastrointestinal and peripheral neurologic systems.

Rheumatoid arthritis

33
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Type of arthritis with constitutional symptoms such has fever, fatigue, anorexia and malaise are frequent.

RA

34
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Prolonged morning stiffness greater than 1 hour is associated with which condition?

RA

35
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Hyperextension of the PIP and flexion of the DIP joint. Seen in RA

Swann neck deformity

36
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Fixed flexion deformity of the PIP seen in RA patients

Boutonniere deformity

37
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Swann neck deformity + Boutonniere deformity + ulnar deviation of the MCP joints. Seen in late stage RA and may also be seen in SLE

Jaccoud's arthropathy

38
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What 3 things make up Jaccoud's arthropathy?

Swann neck deformity

Boutonniere deformity

Ulnar deviation of the MCP joints

39
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What condition is Jaccoud's arthropathy associated with?

RA

40
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Most RA patients are ____ bw the ages of_________

RA can shorten the life span by approx ____ to ____ years

women

35-50

3 to 10

41
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a first degree relative of an RA patient is ____ times more likely to develop the disease

4

42
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What cardiac complications are RA patients more prone to?

Pericardial effusion

43
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What hematologic abnormalities are common on the CBC of a patient with RA?

what happens to the infl markers? (ESR/CRP)

Thrombocytosis

Anemia

inc

44
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Presence of high platelet counts in the blood, associated with active intravascular coagulation. May be seen in patients with RA

Thrombocytosis

45
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What is the issue with Rheumatoid Factor (RF) in the diagnosis of RA?

RF is only present in less than 40% of patients with early RA

46
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What are the two new antibodies associated with RA that are much more sensitive than Rheumatoid Factor (RF) and are positive in many more patients?

Anti-RA33

Anti-CCP

47
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What is the first line therapy for RA?

NSAIDs

48
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What is the second line therapy for RA?

Disease Modifying Antirheumatic Drugs (DMARDS)

49
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What is the benefit of DMARDS? What is the down side of DMARDS?

Benefit is that DMARDS have the ability to slow the disease progression

Downside is they have many AE

50
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What are the DMARDS?

Having Some Milk And Little Cookies, Damn Good

Hydroxychloroquine

Sulfasalazine

Methotrexate

Azathioprine

Leflunomide

Cyclosporine

D-penicillamine

Gold (PO, IM)

51
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Which of the commonly used DMARDs is associated with an AE of alopecia?

Methotrexate

52
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Which of the DMARDs is associated with the AE of hirsutism?

Cyclosporine

53
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Which of the DMARDs can cause drug-induced SLE?

D-Penacillamine

54
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Which of the DMARDs can cause thrombocytopenia and proteinuria?

Gold

55
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Which drug class is the newest addition to the treatment regimen for RA?

Biologic cell modifiers

56
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Biologic cell modifiers specifically targets _______. They have the ability to ____ the progression of the disease.

cytokines

halt or significantly slow

57
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What is the MOA of Infliximab (Remicade)? How is this drug given?

TNF-alpha inhibition

Given as an IV infusion Q4-8 weeks

58
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Recombinant human IgG-1 and TNF-alpha monoclonal antibody given as a self-administered SQ injection every other week

Adalimumab (Humira)

59
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A TNF alpha receptory decoy, a twice weekly self administered SQ injection.

Enbrel

60
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A cloned copy of naturally occurring IL-1 receptor antagonist, which competitively inhibits interleukin 1 receptor. Daily self administer SQ injection.

Kineret

61
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Metabolic bone disorder that affects the micro-architecture, resulting in loss of bone mineral density (BMD). Causes decreased bone mass and increase fragility

Osteoporosis

62
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What is the MC metabolic bone disease?

Post-menopausal osteoporosis

63
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What is the precursor to osteoporosis?

osteopenia

64
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A condition where bone mineral density is lower than normal. Increases risk of osteoporosis.

Osteopenia

65
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What is the underlying mechanism in all cases of osteoporosis?

Imbalance between bone resorption (osteoclastic) and bone formation (osteoblastic)

66
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In osteoporosis, the bone resorption _____ bone formation, resulting in a decreased bone density and weaker structure

exceeds

67
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Explain how hyperparathyroidism can lead to osteoporosis

Increased PTH hormone causes the bones to release calcium into the bloodstream. This causes the bones to lose their density and harness, leading to brittle, weakened bones

68
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-Female sex

-Caucasian/Asian

-Advanced age

-Low body weight (<127lbs)

-Cigarette smoking

-Inactivity

-Alcohol

-Low calcium intake

-Estrogen deficiency

These risk factors increase risk of?

Osteoporosis

69
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What types of medications increase risk of osteoporosis ?

-Corticosteroids

-Heparin

-MTX

-Synthroid

70
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What co-morbidities increase risk of osteoporosis ?

-Hyperparathyroidism

-Hyperthyroidism

71
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Osteoporosis is known as a ____ disease, will only experience pain if a fracture occurs.

silent

72
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A pt with osteoporosis, their physical exam is often ______.

negative

73
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What are the most common osteoporotic fractures?

Vertebral fractures

74
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Enzyme secreted during bone remodeling. Serum and urinary levels can help determine the relationship between osteoblast and osteoclast activity and can aid in the diagnosis of osteoporosis

Tartrate Resistant Acid Phosphatase (TRAP)

75
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What does BDM testing stand for and what is it used to diagnose?

Bone Densitometry testing

Assess for osteoporosis

76
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Who should be screened for osteoporosis with bone densitometry testing based on the National Osteoporosis Foundation (NOF)?

1. Postmenopausal women under the age of 65 with one or more risk factors

2. All postmenopausal women over the age of 65

77
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What sites are preferred for BDM testing for osteoporosis?

Central sites, such as the lumbar spine and hips

(Most likely to predict the risk of hip fracture)

78
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Central sites are preferred for BDM but what peripheral site can be tested?

Heel and Finger

79
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What is the most common radiologic technique used for bone densitometry testing? Why?

Central dual X-ray absorptiometry (DXA)

-low radiation exposure

80
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The number of SDs above or below the mean for a young, healthy population. Used to assess BDM testing results

T score

81
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Compares the patients BDM to an age and sex matched population and can represent secondary osteoporosis

Z score

82
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What is the normal T-score for BDM testing?

> -1.0

83
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What T-score range is considered osteopenia?

< -1.0 and > -2.5

84
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What T-score is considered osteoporosis?

< -2.5

85
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What is the first line treat osteoporosis ?

1. adequate Ca2++ & Vit. D intake

2. Weight bearing activity/exercise

3. Avoid excessive amounts of alcohol

4. Avoid cigarette smoking

86
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-Correct impaired eyesight

-Reduce environmental hazards

-If poor balance or ask abnormalities consider walker or cane to assist with ambulation

These are all recommendation to prevent?

Osteoporosis (fall prevention)

87
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What is the recommended daily calcium intake for...

Ages 9-18

Ages 19-50

Ages 51+

9-18 = 1,300 mg/day

19-50 = 1,000 mg/day

51+ = 1,200 mg/day

(divided doses are recommended for inc. absorption)

88
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What is the recommended vitamin D intake?

600IU-800IU QD

89
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An abnormal Z-score after BDM testing warrants an additional workup. What can it indicate?

Secondary osteoporosis

- hyperparathyroidism, hyperthyroidism, malignancy, renal disease, medication-induced osteoporosis, osteomalacia (vit. D deficiency)

90
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This type of treatment for osteoporosis increases bone density and reduces fracture risk. FDA approved for post-menopausal women with osteoporosis, it is better to begin early in menopause and continued indefinitely. Have an increase risk of DVT's, CAD, Stroke and breast cancer.

hormone replacement therapy (HRT)

91
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Selective estrogen receptor modulator FDA approved for the prevention and treatment of postmenopausal osteoporosis

Raloxifene

92
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Raloxifene is beneficial over HRT because there is no increased risk in uterine or breast cancer. However, Raloxifene does come with an increased risk of ___ and __

DVT and hot flashes

93
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Anti-resorptive agent that is FDA approved for the treatment of postmenopausal osteoporosis. Has been found to mildly increase spine BMD and decrease new fractures

Calcitonin

94
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What is the MOA of Bisphosphonates in the treatment of osteoporosis?

Reduce osteoclastic activity/bone resorption and increase BMD over time. Reduce both vertebral and non-vertebral fractures

95
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What are the two most widely used bisphosphonates?

fosamax

actonel

96
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Bisphosphonates are not recommended in __

Not recommended in severe renal impairment

97
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Bisphosphonates are usually tolerated well, however they may cause esophageal irritation, gastric ulcers and dysphagia. How should you instruct ur patient to take?

Nothing PO for 1 hour

98
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What is the MOA of recombinant parathyroid hormone (rPTH)?

Increases bone formation by stimulating osteoblasts

99
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Recombinant parathyroid hormone should not be given to children/adolescence, individuals with _____ or with a hx of ____.

-pagets disease

-bone cancer

100
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Recombinant parathyroid hormone is generally well tolerated but may result in?

-nausea

-leg cramps

-dizziness