NPTE Practice Questions

A patient reports to physical therapy one week status post transtibial amputation. Which sleeping position would be the MOST appropriate to prevent a knee and hip contracture?

• Supine with a pillow placed under the knees

• Sidelying on the side of the residual limb with a pillow between the legs

• Prone lying without the use of any pillows

• sidelying on the non-amputated side without a pillow between the legs

• Prone lying without the use of any pillows

Explaination: Preventing contractures is of paramount importance in the early management of a transtibial amputation. The use of pillows under the knee or hip can influence flexion, which in turn can result in a contracture. The goal of positioning strategies should be to promote extension in the hip and knee in order to prepare the patient. Prone lying is an ideal position for preventing both hip and knee flexion contractures, as long as pillows are not used under the hips.

9/20

physical therapist participates in a community fitness program by conducting anthropometric measurements designed to determine percent body fat. Which site is NOT typically utilized when measuring skinfolds?

Suprailiac

Subscapular

Triceps

Lateral calf

• The lateral calf is not a site used for obtaining skinfold measurements; rather the medial calf is used. The medial calf site is taken by obtaining a vertical fold, at the maximum circumference of the calf on the midline of its medial border.

Explaination: Measuring body composition by determining skinfold measurements is based on the principle that the amount of subcutaneous fat is proportional to the total amount of body fat. The technique provides a better estimate of body fat than height, weight, and circumference, however, is not as accurate as hydrostatic weighing.

A physical therapist instructs a patient post fractured left hip in gait training activities. The patient is weight bearing as tolerated and uses a large base quad cane. Which of the following techniques would be the MOST appropriate?

• Using the quad cane on the left with the longer legs positioned away from the patient

• Using the quad cane on the right with the longer legs positioned away from the patient

• Using the quad cane on the left with the longer legs positioned toward the patient

Using the quad cane on the right with the longer legs positioned toward the patient

• the quad cane on the right with the longer legs positioned away from the patient

Explaination: The quad cane, positioned in the right hand with the longer legs pointing away from the patient, will allow for proper distribution of the weight during gait and as a result, the patient will be less likely to trip over the longer legs of the cane.

A physical therapist observes a patient's breathing as part of a respiratory assessment. Which muscle of respiration is MOST active during forced expiration?

• Diaphragm

• External intercostals

• Internal intercostals

• Upper trapezius

• internal intercostals assist to pull the ribs downward during forced expiration.

Explaination: Unlike quiet expiration, which is a passive process primarily dependent on the elastic properties of lung tissue, forced expiration is an active process. In addition to the rectus abdominis, external and internal obliques, and transverse abdominis contracting to compress the abdominal viscera, the ribs are pulled downward by action of the internal intercostals and quadratus lumborum.

A physical therapist employed in an outpatient physical therapy clinic attempts to obtain informed consent from a 17-year-old male prior to initiating a formal exercise test. The patient signs the informed consent form, however, the patient's parents dropped him off at the clinic and are now unavailable to sign the form. What is the MOST appropriate therapist action?

• Complete the exercise test

• Secure another physical therapist to witness the exercise test

• Contact the referring physician and request approval to complete the exercise test

• Reschedule the exercise test

• Reschedule the exercise test

Explaination: Obtaining informed consent from patients before exercise testing is an important ethical and legal consideration. Physical therapists have an obligation to obtain informed consent from patients prior to initiating intervention activities. If a patient is under the age of 18, the therapist is required to obtain informed consent from the patient and a parent or legal guardian.

A patient demonstrates diminished problem solving abilities and difficulty finding words at times. Additionally, they can only speak in a low voice unless trying to "yell" and appear to have a flattened affect. Wh medical condition is MOST consistent with the described presentation?

• Parkinson's disease

• Depression

• Multiple sclerosis

• Demential

• Parkinson's disease is a neuromuscular disorder that affects the ability of an individual to move. Cognitive deficits can mimic those of other disorders, but the flat affect and low voice, along with the other described impairments, are more typical of Parkinson's disease.

A physical therapist performs circumferential measurements on a four-year-old child and notes edema in both lower extremities. Based on the clinical presentation, which diagnosis would be MOST likely?

• Lymphadenitis

• Deep vein thrombosis

• Milroy's disease

• Wilson's disease

• Miltroy diesease

Explaination: Milroy's disease is an inherited type of primary lymphedema that typically presents in infancy. Bilateral lower extremity edema is the most common symptom of this disease, and it may worsen over time.

A patient rehabilitating from an ankle injury has a limitation of plantar flexion end range of motion. Which of the following interventions would be the MOST appropriate to address this impairment?

• Talocrural dorsal (posterior) glide using large-amplitude oscillations performed up to the limit of available motion and into tissue resistance

• Talocrural ventral (anterior) glide using small-amplitude oscillations performed at the limit of the available motion and into tissue resistance

• Subtalar lateral glide using large-amplitude oscillations performed up to the limit of available motion and into tissue resistance

• Subtalar distraction until stretch is applied to the surrounding soft tissues and separation of the joint surfaces is achieved

• Talocrural ventral (anterior) glide using small-amplitude oscillations performed at the limit of the available motion and into tissue resistance

Explanation: Small-amplitude oscillations performed at the limit of the available motion and into tissue resistance describes grade IV joint mobilizations, which are appropriate to improve joint mobility. A ventral (anterior) glide is used to increase talocrural plantar flexion.

A physical therapist inspects the progress of a partial-thickness wound on a patient's anterior forearm. The therapist notes evidence of resurfacing of the wound with notable changes in the edges of the wound. This observation is MOST consistent with which of the following conditions?

• Maceration

• Granulation

• Epithelialization

• Infection

• epithelialization

explaination: partial-thickness wound extends through the epidermis and possibly into, but not through, the dermis. Examples include abrasions, blisters, and skin tears. A partial-thickness wound will typically heal by re-epithelialization or epidermal resurfacing depending on the depth of injury. Epithelialization refers to the process of epidermal resurfacing and appears as pink or red skin. This process is a function of keratinocytes, which make up the layers of the dermis and epidermis as well as the linings of various body organs.

A physical therapist treats a patient who has multiple myeloma. Which of the following systems should the therapist expect to be targeted once symptoms of the disease begin?

• Musculoskeletal

• Cardiovascular

• Integumentary

• Neurologic

• Musculoskeletal

explaination: A patient recently diagnosed with multiple myeloma will typically experience a variety of symptoms affecting the musculoskeletal system such as skeletal muscle wasting, fatigue, and bone pain. Low-level exercise, fall prevention, and weight bearing activities as tolerated can assist the patient to manage the symptoms of this disease process. Then progresses to neuro.

A physical therapist treats a patient with osteoporosis for a generalized strengthening program. Based on this diagnosis, which of the following medications would MOST likely be included in the patient's medication list?

• esomeprazole (Nexium)

• Methotrexate (Rheumatrex)

• metformin (riomet)

• ibandronate (boniva)

• ibandronate (boniva)

explaination: Patients with osteoporosis are often prescribed bone mineral regulating agents. These medications attempt to enhance and maximize bone mass, along with preventing bone loss or decreasing the rate of bone resorption. Typical agents can include estrogens, calcium and vitamin D, bisphosphonates, calcitonin, and anabolic agents. Ibandronate (Boniva) is a bisphosphonate medication that is commonly used to treat patients with osteoporosis. Other common bisphosphonate medications include alendronate (Fosamax), risedronate (Actonel), and zoledronic acid (Reclast).

A physical therapist prepares to treat a patient using ice massage. Which objective finding would be considered a contraindication for the proposed intervention?

• Compromised circulation

• Acute trauma

• Edema

• Spasticity

• Compromised circulation

explanation: The patient must be able to adequately perceive the relative sensory changes resulting from ice massage. The ability to perceive sensory changes is often compromised with diminished circulation. Typically, a patient will experience several distinct progressive sensations including cold, stinging, burning, and numbness. Failure to perceive the stimulus places the patient at increased risk for an adverse response to treatment.

A physical therapist listens to the lung sounds of a patient with chronic bronchitis. The patient was admitted to the hospital two days ago after complaining of shortness of breath and difficulty breathing. While performing auscultation, the therapist identifies distinct lung sounds with a high constant pitch during exhalation. What is this type of sound MOST consistent with?

• Crackles

• Rales

• Rhonchi

• Wheezes

Wheezes

explaination: Wheezes are continuous, high-pitched, adventitious breath sounds that are most frequently heard on exhalation and are associated with airway obstruction or bronchospasm. There can also be inspiratory wheezing caused by movement of air through secretions. Wheezes are commonly associated with asthma and bronchitis.

A physical therapist makes wheelchair recommendations for a patient with a C4 complete spinal cord injury. Which wheelchair feature would be the MOST desirable for this patient?

• Removable armrests

• Tilt-in-space frame

• Handrims with rim projections

• Handheld joystick controls

Tilt in space frame

Explaination: tilt-in-space frame allows the patient to change their body orientation in space without changing the angle of the back surface to the seating surface. A tilt-in-space frame is necessary for patients that are unable to perform their own weight shifting to reduce the risk for pressure ulcer development. Using a tilt-in-space frame, the patient can change their body orientation so that areas of pressure on the body are altered. A patient with a C4 spinal cord injury would have innervation of many of the neck muscles, including the trapezius and levator scapulae. However, they would not have intact innervation to any of the upper extremity muscles.

A patient begins to demonstrate signs and symptoms consistent with an emergent medical condition during a physical therapy treatment session. Which emergent condition would make assessing the patency of a patient's airway MOST critical?

• Angina pectoris

• Anaphylaxis

• Autonomic dysreflexia

• Stroke

• anaphylaxis

Explanation: Anaphylaxis is a severe, potentially life-threatening allergic reaction that can occur within seconds or minutes of exposure. Signs and symptoms can include swelling of the face or mouth, difficulty swallowing or speaking, wheezing, and difficulty breathing. It is critical to check the patient's airway to assess if it is compromised and begin cardiopulmonary resuscitation, if necessary. If the patient uses an emergency allergy medication (e.g., EpiPen), the therapist should assist the patient to administer the medication. Emergency medical services should be called if the patient is having difficulty breathing or swallowing.

A physical therapist performs a pain assessment on a patient recently referred to physical therapy. The patient reports sharp, localized pain that is consistently reproduced with mechanical testing of the painfu area. Which pain classification is MOST consistent with the patient's clinical presentation?

Nociceptive: deep somatic pain

Nociceptive: visceral pain

Nociceptive: superficial pain

Central neurogenic pain

Nociceptive: superficial pain

explaination: Superficial or cutaneous pain is found with damage to the skin and subcutaneous tissues. Pain is well-localized and can be described as stabbing, sharp, or sometimes a constant dull ache. This classification of pain tends to be reproduced through movement or mechanical testing of the target tissues. somatic pain is found with damage to bone, muscle, connective tissues, and blood vessels. Visceral pain is found with damage to organs or the linings of the body cavities. neurogenic pain is found with damage to the spinal cord and central nervous system.

A physical therapist transports a patient in a wheelchair to the parallel bars in preparation for ambulation activities. The patient is two weeks status post abdominal surgery and right tibia fracture sustained in a motor vehicle accident. What is the MOST appropriate action to ensure the patient does not exceed the prescribed weight bearing limits on the involved extremity?

• Assist the patient to standing

• Monitor the patient's vital signs

• Demonstrate ambulation in the parallel bars

• Secure an additional staff member to offer assistance

• Demonstrate ambulation in the parallel bars

Explaination: Demonstration allows the physical therapist to model the appropriate technique for the patient in a controlled learning environment. This action should increase the patient's understanding of the imposed weight bearing restrictions and therefore decrease the risk of an adverse event.

A physical therapist performs an examination on a patient diagnosed with piriformis syndrome. The patient reports experiencing pain in the low back and buttock region for the last three weeks. Which motions should the therapist expect to be weak and painful during muscle testing based on the patient's diagnosis?

• Abduction and lateral rotation of the hip

• Adduction and lateral rotation of the hip

• Flexion and medial rotation of the hip

• Extension and medial rotation of the hip

• Abduction and lateral rotation of the hip

Explaination: Piriformis syndrome refers to a condition in which the pinformis muscle irritates the sciatic nerve causing pain in the buttock and referred pain along the course of the sciatic nerve. The piriformis muscle originates on the anterior surface of the sacrum and the sacrotuberous ligament and inserts on the greater trochanter of the femur. The muscle is innervated by the sacral plexus. A patient would likely present with pain and weakness with resisted abduction and lateral rotation of the hip since those motions are consistent with the action of the piriformis muscle.

A physical therapist assesses both power and strength in a 75-year-old patient with sarcopenia. Which of the following exercises would BEST address the loss of power the therapist observed during the patient's performance of functional activities?

• Progressive walking program with light weights

• Resistance exercises with a rapid concentric phase

• Progression of static to dynamic balance exercises

• wall squats with isometric hold at 90 degrees of hip flexion

• Resistance exercises with a rapid concentric phase

explaination: Resistance exercises with a rapid concentric phase is a commonly used method to address power in older adults. Studies have shown power training to be more effective than strength training to improve function in community dwelling older adults. The concentric phase of each exercise repetition should be performed as rapidly as possible, with the eccentric phase controlled over approximately 3 seconds.

A physical therapist attempts to explain to a patient how electrical stimulation can help decrease the perception of pain. Which of the following descriptions would be used to explain the gate control theory of pain?

• The threshold for stimulating peripheral nociceptors is decreased.

• The threshold for stimulating peripheral nociceptors is increased.

• Nociceptive signals are inhibited by stimulating non-nociceptive sensory nerves.

• Nociceptive signals are inhibited when endorphins bind to opiate receptors.

Nociceptive signals are inhibited by stimulating non-nociceptive sensory nerves.

Ex: The gate control theory states that nociceptive signals to the brain are inhibited through the stimulation of non-nociceptive sensory nerves. Massage, electrical stimulation, and traction are interventions that stimulate non-nociceptive sensory nerves, thereby reducing the transmission of nociceptive signals to the brain.

A patient is referred to physical therapy with a diagnosis of lateral epicondylitis. During the examination, the therapist attempts to elicit the patient's pain by placing the affected tissues on maximal stretch.Which combination of motions would MOST likely achieve the desired effect?

Elbow extension, forearm supination, wrist extension

Elbow extension, forearm pronation, wrist flexion

Elbow flexion, forearm pronation, wrist extension

Elbow flexion, forearm supination, wrist flexion

Elbow extension, forearm pronation, wrist flexion

Explaination: place maximal stretch on the wrist extensor muscles, the arm should be placed in a position of elbow extension and wrist flexion. The forearm is also typically placed in a position of pronation, though forearm rotation does not play as significant a role in stretching these muscles.

A physical therapist revievs the medical record of a patient who sustained a spinal cord injury. A note recently entered by the physician indicates that the patient contracted a respiratory infection. Which type spinal cord injury would be the MOST susceptible to this condition?

• Complete C4 tetraplegia

• Cauda equina lesion

• Brown-Sequard's syndrome

• Posterior cord syndrome

complete C4 tertaplegia

A patient with complete C4 tetraplegia will present with a loss of motor and sensory function secondary to damage to the spinal cord. Since the primary muscle of respiration, the diaphragm (C3-C5), is impaired, the patient will be unable to voluntarily or effectively ventilate. A patient with complete C4 tetraplegia will have a reduced ventilatory capacity due to muscle paralysis. The patient will exhibit limited ability to clear secretions, impaired chest mobility, and alveolar hypoventilation.

A cauda equina lesion is an injury that occurs below the L1 spinal level where the long nerve roots transcend. Cauda equina injuries are frequently incomplete due to the large number of nerve roots in the area and, as a result, are often considered to be peripheral nerve injuries. Characteristics include flaccidity, areflexia, and impairment of bowel and bladder function.

Brown-Sequard's syndrome is an incomplete lesion usually caused by a stab wound, which produces hemisection of the spinal cord. There is paralysis and loss of vibratory and position sense on the same side as the lesion due to the damage to the corticospinal tract and dorsal columns. There is a loss of pain and temperature sense on the opposite side of the lesion from damage to the lateral spinothalamic tract.

Posterior cord syndrome is an extremely rare condition that presents with a loss of proprioception, two-point discrimination, graphesthesia, and stereognosis below the level of the lesion. Patients typically present with a wide-based steppage gait.

A physical therapist participates in a research study examining the optimal frequency for performing a lower extremity strengthening exercise. The study utilizes a sample of convenience drawn from a local hig school. What is the PRIMARY shortcoming of this type of sample?

• Lack of generalizability of results

• Expensive to obtain subjects

• Inability to obtain informed consent

• Requires additional time and resources

• Lack of generalizability of results

A sample of convenience is a form of nonprobability sampling in which subjects are selected on the basis of availability. While the characteristics of subjects in a random sample can be assumed to represent the target population, this cannot be assumed with nonprobability samples. Lack of generalizability of results is the primary limitation associated with a sample of convenience. Due to the potential bias of self-selection associated with convenience sampling, it is not possible to know if the subjects who present themselves are typical of the target population.

A physical therapist applies a dressing to an area of skin on a patient's heel. The therapist decided to use the dressing as a prophylactic measure to reduce the risk of skin breakdown in an area that was determined to be particularly susceptible. Which of the following dressings would the therapist have MOST likely used?

• Calcium alginate

• Hydrocolloid

• Hydrogel

• Transparent film

• Transparent film

Transparent film dressings consist of thin membranes coated with a layer of acrylic adhesive. Since the film is transparent it allows for frequent assessment of the wound and offers some level of protection.The films are oxygen permeable, however, are impermeable to microorganisms and moisture.

A physical therapist works on paced breathing with a patient who has a restrictive lung disease. Which of the following conditions is LEAST likely to be contributing to the patient's dysfunction?

• Asthma

• Pulmonary edema

• C6 spinal cord injury

• Ankylosing spondylitis

• asthma

Restrictive lung conditions are characterized by a decrease in lung volumes and capacities, though airflow rates remain unchanged. Restrictive lung disease may result from pathology of any system in the body that causes a decrease in chest wall or lung compliance. Decreased compliance results in a diminished ability to expand the lungs resulting in smaller lung volumes and capacities. Asthma is a chronic inflammatory disease of the airways that is triggered by a variety of stimuli. When an individual comes into contact with these stimuli, widespread narrowing of the airways occurs and restricts airflow. Because of the obstruction of the airways, asthma is considered an obstructive lung disease.

A physical therapist in an acute care hospital performs stair training with a patient who is non-weight bearing following triple arthrodesis surgery of the ankle. After the session, the therapist observes that the dressing over the patient's incision is becoming increasingly pink and damp. Which term BEST characterizes the description of this exudate?

• Sanguineous

• Serosanguineous

• Serous

• Seropurulent

• Serosanguineous

Serosanguineous exudate is described as light red to pink in color with a thin, watery consistency. It is normally present during the inflammatory and proliferative phases of healing. Serosanguineous exudate is consistent with both the patient's phase of healing and the observed dressing discoloration.

Sanguineous exudate is described as red in color with a thin, watery consistency. It typically indicates a disruption in the growth of new blood vessels or fragile granular tissue.

Serous exudate is described as clear and light in color with a thin, watery consistency. It is normally present during the inflammatory and proliferative phases of healing.

Seropurulent drainage is described as yellow to tan in color with a thin, cloudy appearance. Seropurulent exudate is often an early sign of infection.

A physical therapist asks a patient several questions prior to administering cervical mechanical traction. During the questioning, the patient indicates they are wearing dentures and that the dentures are securely in place. What is the MOST appropriate therapist action?

• Initiate traction using normal treatment parameters with the dentures in place

• Initiate traction using normal treatment parameters after removing the dentures

• Initiate traction using fifty percent of the normal recommended force with the dentures in place

• Avoid using traction since the intervention is contraindicated for the patient

• Initiate traction using normal treatment parameters with the dentures in place

patient who wears dentures should be instructed to keep the dentures in place during cervical traction. If the dentures are removed, the alignment of the temporomandibular joints (TMJ) may be altered, causing problems if pressure is applied through the mandible.

A patient presents to physical therapy with the signs and symptoms of adhesive capsulitis of the shoulder. Which of the following imaging studies would be the MOST appropriate to confirm the diagnosis?

• Fluoroscopy

• Myelography

• Arthrography

• Computed tomography

• Arthrography

Arthrography is an invasive procedure that uses x-ray imaging and an injected contrast dye to visualize joint structures. An arthrogram can assist with the diagnosis of adhesive capsulitis by detecting a decreased volume of fluid within the joint capsule.

Fluoroscopy is designed to show motion within the body with the use of x-ray imaging and injection of a contrast dye. Fluoroscopy can show motion within joints or movement of the dye within the digestive tract. Due to the higher dose of radiation with fluoroscopy and the ability to detect joint motion restrictions on clinical exam with adhesive capsulitis, fluoroscopy is not a likely choice to confirm the diagnosis.

Myelography is an invasive test that combines flucroscopy and radiography to evaluate the spinal subarachnoid space. The test utilizes a contrast medium that is injected into the epidural space by spina puncture. Myelography is used to identify bone displacement, disk herniation, spinal cord compression or tumors.

Computed tomography is a non-invasive imaging procedure in which x-ray images are taken from multiple angles using a large circular scanner. Computed tomography scans are most commonly used to diagnose spinal lesions and in diagnostic studies of the brain.

A patient with atrial flutter suddenly becomes extremely lightheaded while exercising and appears to lose consciousness. Which of the following physiologic responses BEST explains the change in the patient's status?

• Increased filling of the ventricles

• Increased system congestion

• Decreased atrial depolarization

• Decreased blood traveling to the brain

• Decreased blood traveling to the brain

Atrial flutter is a common abnormal heart rhythm characterized by rapid atrial tachycardia. This rapid rate creates decreased filling time of the ventricles resulting in diminished amounts of blood being ejected from the heart. This form of arrhythmia produces sawtooth shaped P waves. Atrial flutter results in decreased blood traveling to the brain as well as other areas of the body. As a result, vital organs such as the heart muscles and brain may not receive enough blood causing mild symptoms (e.g., palpitations, lightheadedness, weakness) or more serious symptoms (e.g., fainting, angina, organ failure).

A patient is 3 months post-stroke and ambulates with a cane. The therapist wants to assess static and dynamic balance during functional tasks like reaching and turning.

A. Berg Balance Scale (BBS)

B. Activities-Specific Balance Scale (ABC)

C. NIH Stroke Scale (NIHSS)

D. Stroke Impact Scale (SIS)

A. Berg Balance Scale (BBS)

A patient scores 0.55 m/s on the 10-Meter Walk Test at 6 weeks post-stroke.

Which interpretation is MOST accurate?

A. The patient is a household ambulator and unlikely to manage community

mobility

B. The patient is a limited community ambulator and may require assistive

devices

C. The patient is a full community ambulator and safe to cross streets

D. The patient demonstrates normal gait speed

B. The patient is a limited community ambulator and may require assistive devices

A patient reports an ABC Scale score of 45% and scored a 52/56 on the Berg

Balance Scale. What is the MOST appropriate clinical implication?

A. The patient has high confidence and low fall risk

B. The patient has low confidence despite good physical balance

C. The patient should discontinue therapy because physical balance is

normal

D. The patient requires inpatient rehab due to severe balance impairment

Answer: B. The patient has low confidence despite good physical balance

A patient scored 28/56 on the Berg Balance Scale at initial evaluation and 40/56

after 4 weeks of inpatient rehab. The therapist plans to discharge the patient home

in 2 weeks. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate next goal?

A. Achieve a Berg score of 56/56 to eliminate fall risk

B. Improve Berg score to at least 45/56 to reduce fall risk for home

ambulation

C. Maintain current Berg score since progress is adequate

D. Focus only on endurance training since balance is now normal

B. Improve Berg score to at least 45/56 to reduce fall risk for home ambulation

An individual post stroke is referred to PT with mild difficulties in balance. The

patient had two near falls in the past 3 months with both occurring after they were

accidently bumped in the community. Which of the following examination items is

BEST to assess the patient’s current balance and fall risk?

A. Berg Balance Scale (BBS)

B. The Mini-BEST

C. Functional Gait Assessment (FGA)

D. Timed Up and Go Cognitive (TUG-Cog)

C. Functional Gait Assessment (FGA)

A patient is admitted to an inpatient rehabilitation facility following a right

middle cerebral artery stroke. Magnetic resonance imaging confirms a lesion

in the dorsal column–medial lemniscus tract. Which sensory impairment

would you MOST expect in this patient?

A. Impaired vibration sense

B. Impaired temperature sense

C. Impaired course-touch sense

D. Impaired pain sensation

Impaired vibration sense

A patient is referred to physical therapy for rehabilitation following an anterior

cerebral artery (MCA) stroke. Based on this diagnosis, which clinical presentation

is MOST likely?

A. Contralateral hemiplegia with central poststroke pain and involuntary

movements

B. Contralateral hemiparesis and sensory deficits (arm more involved than

the leg)

C. Ipsilateral ataxia, with contralateral pain and thermal loss of the body

D. Contralateral hemiparesis and sensory deficits (leg more involved than

the arm)

D. Contralateral hemiparesis and sensory deficits (leg more involved than

the arm)

A physical therapist is examining a patient in a neurologic rehabilitation hospital

who was recently diagnosed with an acute cerebellar stroke. Which of the

following findings would the therapist MOST likely expect during the

examination?

A. Sensory deficits

B. Fine motor deficits

C. Visual deficits

D. Memory deficits

B. Fine motor deficits ✅

A patient was diagnosed with a cerebral thrombosis 4 days ago and presents

with the following symptoms:

• Decreased pain and temperature sensation of the ipsilateral face

• Nystagmus, vertigo, nausea, and dysphagia

• Ipsilateral Horner’s syndrome

• Contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation of the body

Based on these findings, what is the MOST likely site of the thrombosis?

A. Posterior cerebral artery

B. Anterior cerebral artery

C. Posterior inferior cerebellar artery

D. Anterior inferior cerebellar artery

C. Posterior inferior cerebellar artery