Psychometrics and Trauma in Psychology

What do intelligence tests measure?

Intellectual abilities.

Is there a consensus on the definition of intelligence?

No, there is no true consensus in defining intelligence.

What is a key question regarding the nature of intelligence?

Is intelligence one or many things?

What is Charles Spearman's concept of intelligence?

Spearman proposed the idea of 'g' for general intelligence, suggesting a single overarching intelligence.

What did Louis Thurstone contribute to the understanding of intelligence?

Thurstone described multiple abilities that may not relate to each other, leading to the concept of multiple intelligences.

What do hierarchical models of intelligence combine?

Hierarchical models blend singular and plural theories of intelligence, ranking abilities from general to individual.

What are the two types of intelligence proposed by Raymond Cattell?

Cattell proposed crystallized intelligence, which is knowledge accumulated through life experience, and fluid intelligence, which is the ability to reason in novel situations.

What are the three Wechsler IQ tests and their age ranges?

1. WAIS-IV (16-89 years), 2. WISC-IV (6-16 years), 3. WPPSI-III (2-7 years).

What is the mean score for Wechsler IQ tests?

The mean score for Wechsler IQ tests is 100.

What are the four index scores yielded by Wechsler IQ tests?

1. Verbal Comprehension Index, 2. Perceptual Reasoning Index, 3. Working Memory Index, 4. Processing Speed Index.

What distinguishes the Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scales from Wechsler tests?

The Stanford-Binet test covers the entire lifespan (ages 2-85+) and has more extreme scores, while Wechsler tests have separate versions for different age groups.

What are the five factor scores of the Stanford-Binet test?

1. Fluid reasoning, 2. Knowledge, 3. Quantitative reasoning, 4. Visual-spatial processing, 5. Working memory.

What is the difference between achievement tests and intelligence tests?

Achievement tests measure what a person has accomplished, while intelligence tests measure what a person could potentially accomplish.

What could a significant discrepancy between achievement and expected levels suggest?

It could suggest Specific Learning Disorders (SLD) such as dyslexia.

What do neuropsychological tests focus on?

Neuropsychological tests focus on cognitive dysfunction, often resulting from brain injury or illness.

What are some uses of neuropsychological tests?

They are used to measure cognitive functioning, assess impairment in the brain, create prognoses, determine eligibility for services, and plan rehabilitation.

What is the Bender Visual-Motor Gestalt Test?

It is a commonly used neuropsychological screen that involves a simple copying test using geometric designs.

What are the pros and cons of the Bender Visual-Motor Gestalt Test?

Pros: Quick administration (~6 minutes) and serves as an initial check. Cons: It can suggest brain damage in a non-specific way.

What does the Rey-Osterrieth Complex Figure Test involve?

It is a drawing task that includes a memory component, requiring the subject to recall and redraw a complex figure.

What are the common types of brain scans?

1. EEG (electroencephalography), 2. CT (computed tomography), 3. MRI (magnetic resonance imaging), 4. PET (positron emission tomography).

What is a pro and con of EEG?

Pro: Can detect seizure activity. Con: May be confused with psychosis or panic attacks.

What is a pro and con of CT scans?

Pro: Useful for identifying gross pathology. Con: Does not provide specific details.

What is a pro and con of MRI scans?

Pro: Provides detailed images of body slices. Con: Very expensive.

What is a pro and con of PET scans?

Pro: Offers detailed information about blood flow and brain function. Con: Expensive.

How can extraordinary stress and trauma affect psychological disorders?

Extraordinary stress and trauma can play a central role in the development of psychological disorders.

What are the four responses activated when faced with extraordinary stress or danger?

Fight, Flight, Freeze, or Fawn responses.

Which brain areas are involved in the arousal/fear response?

Prefrontal cortex (decision making), amygdala (emotions), hypothalamus (body sensations), hippocampus (memory).

What neurotransmitters are associated with the fight or flight response?

Adrenalin, cortisol, and norepinephrine.

What is the role of the sympathetic nervous system (SNS)?

It stimulates key organs during stress.

What does the parasympathetic nervous system (PNS) do?

Helps the body return to a pre-crisis state.

What can repeated exposure to stress cause in terms of brain changes?

Permanent developmental or brain changes.

What types of trauma are considered 'Big T' traumas?

War, terror, mass casualty events, accidents, disasters, abuse, and hate crimes.

What are examples of 'small t' traumas?

Phobia exposure, loss of relationship, childhood emotional abuse, bullying, harassment, and discrimination.

What are common diagnoses associated with trauma?

Anxiety, depression, borderline personality disorder, PTSD, complex-PTSD, dissociative disorders, and schizophrenia.

What percentage of US adults have been exposed to trauma?

89%.

What percentage of individuals exposed to trauma may develop a serious disorder?

Up to 6%.

What are the symptoms and duration of acute stress disorder?

Symptoms begin within four weeks of the event and last less than one month.

How does post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) differ from acute stress disorder?

PTSD symptoms begin anytime after the event and last longer than one month.

What percentage of people with PTSD may not develop a full clinical syndrome until 6 months after trauma?

25%.

What is chronic post-traumatic stress disorder (CPTSD)?

Recurring PTSD that is complex and connected to relationships.

What are some symptoms shared by acute stress disorder and PTSD?

Increased arousal, anxiety, guilt, re-experiencing the traumatic event, reduced responsiveness, and avoidance of triggers.

What is survivor's guilt?

Guilt experienced by individuals who survive a traumatic event when others did not.

What factors can increase the likelihood of developing PTSD?

History of trauma, mental health issues, and socioeconomic status.

What is the significance of the diathesis-stress model in relation to schizophrenia?

It suggests that a predisposition (diathesis) and stress can lead to the development of schizophrenia.

What is the relationship between trauma exposure and suicide attempts?

More than 20% of individuals exposed to trauma attempt suicide.

What is the role of microglia in the context of trauma?

They are involved in inflammation associated with the fight or flight response.

What are common exposures to trauma?

Accidents, assaults, child abuse, combat, disasters, domestic violence, incarceration, isolation, medical trauma, poverty, and witnessing violence.

What biological factors can contribute to PTSD?

An overactive brain in response to anxiety, childhood experiences, cognitive factors, and coping styles.

How does trauma severity relate to PTSD likelihood?

More severe trauma increases the likelihood of developing PTSD.

What is Trauma-Informed Treatment?

Evidence-based treatments for trauma that consider the impact of trauma on individuals.

What types of drug therapy are used for PTSD?

Antidepressants and antipsychotics are used to calm individuals but do not erase trauma.

What is Cognitive Processing Therapy (CPT)?

A brief therapy (3-6 months) that helps clients identify, challenge, and replace unhelpful beliefs about trauma.

What are the three phases of Cognitive Processing Therapy?

1. Psychoeducation and identification, 2. Process and learn CBT skills, 3. Practice skills and work on deep issues.

What does Narrative Exposure Therapy (NET) involve?

Clients create a chronological narrative of their life, focusing on traumatic experiences while incorporating positive events.

What is the goal of Trauma-Focused Cognitive Behavioral Therapy (tfCBT)?

To recognize the prevalence and impact of trauma, respond holistically, and avoid re-traumatization.

What are some reasons for conducting a Safety & Crisis Assessment?

Child abuse, domestic violence, psychosis, and suicide/homicide risks.

What are Freud's five stages of psychosexual development?

1. Oral stage (0-2), 2. Anal stage (2-4), 3. Phallic stage (4-6), 4. Latency stage (6-puberty), 5. Genital stage (puberty-maturity).

What key issue is associated with the Oral stage of psychosexual development?

Trust; issues can lead to distrustfulness or overly trusting behavior.

What is the key issue during the Anal stage of psychosexual development?

Control; issues can lead to obsessiveness (anal-retentive) or disorganization (anal-expulsive).

What is the Oedipal complex?

A child's desire for the opposite-sex parent and rivalry with the same-sex parent, typically seen in the Phallic stage.

What are the components of Freud's Structural Theory?

ID (unconscious instincts), Ego (realistic negotiator), and Superego (internalized societal values).

What are some defense mechanisms identified by Freud?

Repression, projection, reaction formation, displacement, sublimation, and regression.

What is transference in psychotherapy?

When a client unconsciously expects the therapist to behave like significant people from their past.

What is countertransference?

When a therapist unconsciously expects a client to behave like significant people from their past.

What is the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator?

A personality measure developed during WWII that categorizes individuals into dichotomies: Extraversion vs Introversion, Sensing vs Intuition, Thinking vs Feeling, Judging vs Perception.

What is Carl Rogers' Person-Centered Therapy?

A therapeutic approach emphasizing the need for positive regard and fostering self-actualization without conditions of worth.

What is incongruence in the context of Carl Rogers' theory?

The mismatch between a person's perceived self, real self, and ideal self, leading to psychological problems.

What are conditions of worth?

External-based self-worth that leads individuals to choose behaviors based on others' expectations.

What is the focus of Humanistic Psychotherapy?

Fostering personal growth and self-actualization by addressing conflicts between internal and external needs.

What is the person-centered approach in therapy?

A therapeutic approach that emphasizes empathetic understanding, reflective listening, and the creation of a supportive environment for the client.

What are the three essential therapeutic conditions proposed by Carl Rogers?

Empathy, unconditional positive regard, and genuineness.

What does empathy entail in a therapeutic context?

The therapist's ability to sense the client's emotions as the client would, providing a deep, nonjudgmental, and compassionate understanding of their experiences.

What is unconditional positive regard?

Accepting or 'prizing' the client without judgment, regardless of their circumstances.

What does genuineness mean in therapy?

Being honest with and toward the client, rather than playing a role.

What is the purpose of clarification in person-centered techniques?

To ensure accurate understanding of the client's comments.

What is gentle confrontation in therapy?

Addressing discrepancies or inconsistencies in a client's comments in a supportive manner.

How does rephrasing function as a therapeutic technique?

It restates the client's statements to highlight their feelings or emotions.

What is the reflection of feelings technique?

Echoing the client's emotions, even if they are not explicitly mentioned.

What is the goal of summarizing in therapy?

To tie together various topics, connect statements made at different points, and identify themes.

What does Rogers argue against in terms of assessment techniques?

He argues against the use of formal assessment techniques, preferring video taping and subsequent data analysis.

What are deficiency needs according to Maslow's Pyramid of Needs?

Basic needs that must be satisfied before growth needs, including physiological, safety, and social needs.

What is the difference between deficiency love (D-love) and being love (B-love)?

D-love is selfish and gratifying one's own needs, while B-love is mature and focused on giving to benefit others.

What are growth needs in Maslow's theory?

Higher needs that may emerge once basic needs have been met, culminating in self-actualization.

What is the purpose of Motivational Interviewing?

To help clients see discrepancies between their behaviors and goals or values.

What is the focus of behavioral psychology?

A reaction against the lack of empiricism in psychodynamic and humanistic approaches, emphasizing observable and scientifically tested processes.

Who are the key figures in the origins of behavioral psychotherapy?

Ivan Pavlov (classical conditioning), John Watson (introduced CC to the U.S.), and B.F. Skinner and E.L. Thorndike (operant conditioning).

What is Thorndike's Law of Effects?

The principle that actions followed by pleasurable consequences are more likely to recur, while those followed by unpleasant consequences are less likely.

What is classical conditioning?

A learning process where an unconditioned stimulus (UCS) evokes an unconditioned response (UCR), and through pairing, a conditioned stimulus (CS) evokes a conditioned response (CR).

What are some techniques based on classical conditioning?

Assertiveness training, exposure therapy, systematic desensitization, and exposure response prevention (ERP) for OCD.

What is flooding in the context of exposure therapy?

A technique that is generally not recommended, as it involves overwhelming the client with their fear without gradual exposure.

What is the focus of operant conditioning?

An organism operates on the environment, notices the consequences of behavior, and incorporates those consequences into future decisions.

What are contingencies in operant conditioning?

Internal 'if... then...' statements that result from operant conditioning.

What is behavioral activation in the context of depression?

A technique to increase the frequency of positive behaviors, often starting with small actions.

What is contingency management?

A technique that involves changing rewards or punishments to change behaviors.

What is an 'extinction burst'?

A sudden increase in the frequency of a behavior when an expected reward is removed.

What is modeling in psychology?

A process of observational learning where individuals learn by watching others.

What is shaping in operant conditioning?

Reinforcing successive approximations of a desired behavior.

What are token economies?

A system where tokens are given as rewards for desired behaviors, which can be exchanged for privileges or items.

What is the empirical support for behavioral therapies?

Behavioral therapies have significant empirical support for treating anxiety, depression, and children's behavior disorders.

What is Rational Emotive Behavior Therapy (REBT)?

A cognitive therapy that emphasizes the connection between rationality and emotion, using the ABCDE model.