Ciulla: Immunohematology

C. Hematocrit too low

1. A woman wants to donate blood. Her

physical examination reveals the following:

weight—110 Ib, pulse—73 bpm,

blood pressure—125/75 mm Hg,

hematocrit—35%. Which of the following

exclusions applies to the prospective

donor?

A. Pulse too high

B. Weight too low

C. Hematocrit too low

D. Blood pressure too low

C. 454 mL

2. A potential donor has no exclusions, but

she weighs only 95 pounds. What is the

allowable amount of blood (including

samples) that can be drawn?

A. 367 mL

B. 378 mL

C. 454 mL

D. 473 mL

A. Blood could have transmitted hepatitis

(HBVorHCV)orHIV

3. Donors who have received blood or blood

products within 12 months of when they

desire to donate are deferred to protect the

recipient because the

A. Blood could have transmitted hepatitis

(HBVorHCV)orHIV

B. Blood may have two cell populations

C. Donor may not be able to tolerate the

blood loss

D. Donor red cell hemoglobin level may

be too low

D. Mild bacteremia

4. Which of the following conditions would

contraindicate autologous presurgical

donation?

A. Weight of 100 pounds

B. Age of 14 years

C. Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL

D. Mild bacteremia

D. Recipient of human growth hormone

5. Which of the following donors would be

deferred indefinitely?

A. History of syphilis

B. History of gonorrhea

C. Accutane® treatment

D. Recipient of human growth hormone

A. CMV

6. Which of the following viruses resides

exclusively in leukocytes?

A. CMV

B. HIV

C. HBV

D. HCV

C. May be used for pooled platelet

concentrate preparation

7. A donor indicates that he has taken

two aspirin tablets per day for the last

36 hours. The unit of blood

A. May not be used for pooled platelet

concentrate preparation

B. Should not be drawn until 36 hours

after cessation of aspirin ingestion

C. May be used for pooled platelet

concentrate preparation

D. May be used for red blood cells and

fresh-frozen plasma production, but

the platelets should be discarded

C. Properly dispose of unit by autoclaving

or incineration.

8. Which of the following best describes

what must be done with a unit of blood

drawn from a donor who is found to be at

high risk of contracting acquired immune

deficiency syndrome (AIDS)?

A. Hold unit in quarantine until donor

diagnosis is clarified.

B. Use the blood for research dealing

with AIDS.

C. Properly dispose of unit by autoclaving

or incineration.

D. Use the plasma and destroy the red

blood cells.

C. Plasma protein fraction (PPF)

9. Which of the following is least likely to

transmit hepatitis?

A. Cryoprecipitate

B. RBC

C. Plasma protein fraction (PPF)

D. Platelets

B. Test each donor in the pool for HCV

10. A pooled sera product from 16 donors has

a repeatedly positive nucleic acid test

(NAT) for HCV. The next action that

should be taken is to

A. Permanently exclude all the donors in

the pool

B. Test each donor in the pool for HCV

C. Label all the donors as HCV positive

D. Confirm the positive using recombinant

immunoblot assay (RIBA)

D. Antithrombin III

11. Although Cryoprecipitate has primarily

been used for treatment of hypofibrinogenemia

and hemophilia A, it contains

other blood proteins useful in the

treatment of coagulopathies. Which of the

following is not found in Cryoprecipitate?

A. Fibronectin

B. Factor XIII

C. Factor VIILvW

D. Antithrombin III

D. Platelets

12. Even though it is properly collected and

stored, which of the following will fresh frozen

plasma (FFP) not provide?

A. Factor V

B. FactorVIII

C. Factor IX

D. Platelets

C. Irradiate the RBCs before infusion

13. Blood needs to be prepared for intrauterine

transfusion of a fetus with severe

HDN. The red blood cell unit selected is

compatible with the mother's serum and

has been leuko-depleted. An additional

step that must be taken before transfusion

is to

A. Add pooled platelets and fresh-frozen

plasma

B. Check that the RBC group is consistent

with the father's

C. Irradiate the RBCs before infusion

D. Test the RBC unit with the neonate's

eluate

A. Maintaining ATP levels for red cell

viability

14. The addition of adenine in an anticoagulant-

preservative formulation aids in

A. Maintaining ATP levels for red cell

viability

B. Maintaining platelet function in stored

blood

C. Reducing the plasma K+ levels during

storage

D. Maintaining 2,3-BPG levels for

oxygen release to the tissues

D. Remove sufficient segments to

complete donor processing procedures

15. The pilot tubes for donor unit #3276 break

in the centrifuge. You should

A. Label the blood using the donor's

previous records

B. Discard the unit because processing

procedures cannot be performed

C. Discard the red cells and salvage the

plasma for fractionation

D. Remove sufficient segments to

complete donor processing procedures

C. 36%

16. A satellite bag containing 250 ml_ of fresh

plasma is selected for quality control of

cryoprecipitate production. Cryoprecipitate

is prepared according to standard operating

procedures. The final product has a total

volume of 10 ml_. The factor VIII assays are

1 ILJ/mL before and 9 ILJ/mL after preparation

.

What is the percent yield of factor VIII in

the final cryoprecipitate?

A. 11%

B. 25%

C. 36%

D. 80%

A. Yes

17. A satellite bag containing 250 ml_ of fresh

plasma is selected for quality control of

cryoprecipitate production. Cryoprecipitate

is prepared according to standard operating

procedures. The final product has a total

volume of 10 ml_. The factor VIII assays are

1 ILJ/mL before and 9 ILJ/mL after preparation.

Does this product meet AABB Standards

for cryoprecipitate production?

A. Yes

B. No; the percent recovery is too low.

C. No; the final factor VIII level is too low.

D. Data are insufficient to calculate.

D. 83%

18. A centrifuge used for platelet preparation has

been returned after major repair. A unit of whole

blood (450 mL; platelet count 200,000/ul_) is

selected for calibration of platelet production.

The platelet-rich plasma (PRP) contains 250 mL

with a platelet count of 300,000/uL. The final

platelet concentrate prepared from the PRP

contains 50 mL with a platelet count of

900,000/uL.

What is the percent yield of platelets in the

PRP from this unit?

A. 33%

B. 45%

C. 66%

D. 83%

D. 60%

19. A centrifuge used for platelet preparation has

been returned after major repair. A unit of whole

blood (450 mL; platelet count 200,000/ul_) is

selected for calibration of platelet production.

The platelet-rich plasma (PRP) contains 250 mL

with a platelet count of 300,000/uL. The final

platelet concentrate prepared from the PRP

contains 50 mL with a platelet count of

900,000/uL.

What is the percent yield of platelets in the

final product from the PRP?

A. 30%

B. 45%

C. 50%

D. 60%

B. No; the count on the final product is

too low.

20. A centrifuge used for platelet preparation has

been returned after major repair. A unit of whole

blood (450 mL; platelet count 200,000/ul_) is

selected for calibration of platelet production.

The platelet-rich plasma (PRP) contains 250 mL

with a platelet count of 300,000/uL. The final

platelet concentrate prepared from the PRP

contains 50 mL with a platelet count of

900,000/uL.

Does this product meet AABB Standards

for platelet concentrate production?

A. Yes

B. No; the count on the final product is

too low.

C. No; the percentage recovery in the

PRP is too low.

D. Data are insufficient to calculate.

B. Increase the time and/or rpm for the

second spin

21. A centrifuge used for platelet preparation has

been returned after major repair. A unit of whole

blood (450 mL; platelet count 200,000/ul_) is

selected for calibration of platelet production.

The platelet-rich plasma (PRP) contains 250 mL

with a platelet count of 300,000/uL. The final

platelet concentrate prepared from the PRP

contains 50 mL with a platelet count of

900,000/uL.

The final product was prepared with a

PRP spin time of 2 minutes at 2500 rpm.

To increase the percent platelet yield in the

final product, one would

A. Increase the time and/or rpm for the

first spin

B. Increase the time and/or rpm for the

second spin

C. Decrease the time and/or rpm for the

first spin

D. Decrease the time and/or rpm for the

second spin

B. Red blood cell ability to release O2

decreases.

22. When 2,3-BPG levels drop in stored

blood, which of the following occurs as a

result?

A. Red blood cell K+ increases.

B. Red blood cell ability to release O2

decreases.

C. Plasma hemoglobin is stabilized.

D. ATP synthesis increases.

D. 72

23. The last unit of autologous blood for an

elective surgery patient should be

collected no later than ________

hours before surgery.

A. 24

B. 36

C. 48

D. 72

B. Patients with uncompensated anemia

24. For which of the following patients would

autologous donation not be advisable?

A. Patients with an antibody against a

high-incidence antigen

B. Patients with uncompensated anemia

C. Open heart surgery patients

D. Patients with multiple antibodies

C. HCV

25. It is generally asymptomatic but has a very

high carrier rate (70-80% have chronic

infections). About 10% of the carriers

develop cirrhosis or hepatocellular

carcinoma. These statements are most

typical of which of the following

transfusion-transmitted infections?

A. HAV

B. HBV

C. HCV

D. HEV

B. Increase in plasma K+

26. Biochemical changes occur during the

shelf life of stored blood. Which of the

following is a result of this "storage

lesion"?

A. Increase in pH

B. Increase in plasma K+

C. Increase in plasma Na+

D. Decrease in plasma hemoglobin

C. Notify the donor center that collected

the blood.

27. It has been determined that a patient has

posttransfusion hepatitis and received

blood from eight donors. There is nothing

to indicate that these donors may have

been likely to transmit hepatitis. What

action must be taken initially?

A. Defer all donors indefinitely from

further donations.

B. Repeat all hepatitis testing on a fresh

sample from each donor.

C. Notify the donor center that collected

the blood.

D. Interview all implicated donors.

C. 1-10°C

28. The temperature range for maintaining red

blood cells and whole blood during

shipping is

A. 0-4°C

B. 1-6°C

C. 1-10°C

D. 5-15°C

C. 5.5 X 10^10

29. Platelets play an important role in

maintaining hemostasis. One unit of donor

platelets derived from whole blood should

yield platelets.

A. 5.5 X 10^6

B. 5 X 10^8

C. 5.5 X 10^10

D. 5 X 10^10

C. Increase final plasma volume of

platelet concentrates.

30. The pH of four platelet concentrates is

measured on the day of expiration. The pH

and plasma volumes of the four units are

as follows: pH 6.0, 45 mL; pH 5.5, 38 mL;

pH 5.8, 40 mL; pH 5.7, 41 mL. What

corrective action is needed in product

preparation to meet AABB Standards for

platelet production?

A. No corrective action is necessary.

B. Recalibrate pH meter.

C. Increase final plasma volume of

platelet concentrates.

D. Decrease final plasma volume of

platelet concentrates.

C. Must be labeled with a 24-hour

expiration date

31. During preparation of platelet concentrate,

the hermetic seal of the primary bag is

broken. The red blood cells

A. Must be discarded

B. May be labeled with a 21-day

expiration date if collected in CPD

C. Must be labeled with a 24-hour

expiration date

D. May be glycerolized within 6 days and

stored frozen

D. Reviewed annually by an authorized

individual

32. The blood bank procedures manual must be

A. Revised annually

B. Revised after publication of each new

edition of AABB Standards

C. Reviewed prior to a scheduled

inspection

D. Reviewed annually by an authorized

individual

B. For 12 months

33. Previous records of patients' ABO and Rh

types must be immediately available for

comparison with current test results

A. For 6 months

B. For 12 months

C. For 10 years

D. Indefinitely

D. All the above

34. Which of the following weak D donor

units should be labeled Rh-positive?

A. Weak D due to transmissible genes

B. Weak D as position effect

C. Weak partial D

D. All the above

B. 80%, 5 X 10^6

35. In order to meet the current AABB

Standards for leukocyte reduction to

prevent HLA alloimmunization or CMV

transmission, the donor unit must retain at

least ________ of the original red

cells and leukocytes must be reduced to

less than ________ .

A. 85%, 5 X 10^8

B. 80%, 5 X 10^6

C. 75%, 5 X 10^5

D. 70%, 5 X 10^4

D. HBsAb

36. Which of the following tests is/are not

performed during donor processing?

A. ABO and Rh grouping

B. HBsAg

C. HIV-l-Ag

D. HBsAb

C. 45,000-75,000/uL

37. A 70-kg man has a platelet count of

15,000/uL, and there are no complicating

factors such as fever or HLA sensitization.

If he is given a platelet pool of 6 units,

what would you expect his posttransfusion

count to be?

A. 21,000-27,000/uL

B. 25,000-35,000/uL

C. 45,000-75,000/uL

D. 75,000-125,000/uL

A. Confirmation of ABO group and Rh

type of blood labeled D-negative

38. Which of the following tests on donor

red blood cells must be repeated by the

transfusing facility when the blood was

collected and processed by a different

facility?

A. Confirmation of ABO group and Rh

type of blood labeled D-negative

B. Confirmation of ABO group and Rh

type

C. Weak D on D-negatives

D. Antibody screening

A. 1-6°C

39. Red blood cells (RBCs), liquid

A. 1-6°C

B. 20-24°C

C. -18°C or colder

D. -65°C or colder

D. -65°C or colder

40. Red blood cells, frozen

A. 1-6°C

B. 20-24°C

C. -18°C or colder

D. -65°C or colder

C. -18°C or colder

41. Fresh-frozen plasma

A. 1-6°C

B. 20-24°C

C. -18°C or colder

D. -65°C or colder

C. -18°C or colder

42. Cryoprecipitate

A. 1-6°C

B. 20-24°C

C. -18°C or colder

D. -65°C or colder

B. 20-24°C

43. Platelet concentrate

A. 1-6°C

B. 20-24°C

C. -18°C or colder

D. -65°C or colder

C. 35 days

44. Red blood cells in CPDA-1

A. 24 hours

B. 5 days

C. 35 days

D. 1 year

D. 1 year

45. Fresh-frozen plasma

A. 24 hours

B. 5 days

C. 35 days

D. 1 year

D. 1 year

46. Cryoprecipitate

A. 24 hours

B. 5 days

C. 35 days

D. 1 year

A. 24 hours

47. Fresh-frozen plasma, thawed

A. 24 hours

B. 5 days

C. 35 days

D. 1 year

B. 5 days

48. Platelet concentrate in PL-732 (with

agitation)

A. 24 hours

B. 5 days

C. 35 days

D. 1 year

A. 21 days

49. CPD (citrate phosphate dextrose)

A. 21 days

B. 35 days

C. 42 days

D. Not an approved anticoagulant

B. 35 days

50. CPDA-1 (citrate phosphate dextrose

adenine)

A. 21 days

B. 35 days

C. 42 days

D. Not an approved anticoagulant

C. 42 days

51. AS-l(Adsol®)

A. 21 days

B. 35 days

C. 42 days

D. Not an approved anticoagulant

D. Not an approved anticoagulant

52. EDTA

A. 21 days

B. 35 days

C. 42 days

D. Not an approved anticoagulant

D. Accept

53. A 65-year-old man whose birthday is

tomorrow

A. Defer temporarily

B. Defer for 12 months

C. Defer indefinitely

D. Accept

A. Defer temporarily

54. A 45-year-old woman who donated a unit

during a holiday appeal 54 days ago

A. Defer temporarily

B. Defer for 12 months

C. Defer indefinitely

D. Accept

C. Defer indefinitely

55. A 50-year-old man who had sex with

another man in 1980

A. Defer temporarily

B. Defer for 12 months

C. Defer indefinitely

D. Accept

D. Accept

56. A 25-year-old man who says he had

yellow jaundice right after he was born

A. Defer temporarily

B. Defer for 12 months

C. Defer indefinitely

D. Accept

D. Accept

57. An 18-year-old with poison ivy on his

hands and face

A. Defer temporarily

B. Defer for 12 months

C. Defer indefinitely

D. Accept

D. Accept

58. A woman who had a baby 2 months ago

A. Defer temporarily

B. Defer for 12 months

C. Defer indefinitely

D. Accept

D. Accept

59. A 35-year-old runner (pulse 46 bpm)

A. Defer temporarily

B. Defer for 12 months

C. Defer indefinitely

D. Accept

D. Transfusion not indicated

60. Patients with warm autoimmune

hemolytic anemia (AIHA) due to

a-methyldopa (Aldomet®) with

hemoglobins of 8.5 g/dL or above

A. Platelet concentrate

B. RBC

C. Leukocyte-reduced RBC

D. Transfusion not indicated

C. Leukocyte-reduced RBC

61 Patients requiring transfusion with RBC

that will not transmit cytomegalovirus

(CMV)

A. Platelet concentrate

B. RBC

C. Leukocyte-reduced RBC

D. Transfusion not indicated

B. RBC

62. Patients with normovolemic anemia

A. Platelet concentrate

B. RBC

C. Leukocyte-reduced RBC

D. Transfusion not indicated

A. Platelet concentrate

63. Patients who are thrombocytopenic

secondary to the treatment of acute

leukemia

A. Platelet concentrate

B. RBC

C. Leukocyte-reduced RBC

D. Transfusion not indicated

D. IgG and lgM

64. Most blood group antibodies are of what

immunoglobulin classes?

A. IgA and IgD

B. IgA and lgM

C. IgE and lgD

D. IgG and lgM

B. Father has one k gene and one K° gene

65.

Mother

K + k +

Father

K - k +

Child 1

K + k -

Child 2

K - k +

All other indications are that these

children are both the products of this

mating. Possible explanations for these

results would include

A. A dominant inhibitor gene has been

passed to child 1

B. Father has one k gene and one K° gene

C. Father has the McLeod phenotype

D. Mother has a cis-Kk gene

D. Group A1

66. Which of the following blood groups

reacts least strongly with an anti-H

produced in an A1B individual?

A. Group O

B. Group A2B

C. Group A2

D. Group A1

B. Two

67. How many genes encode the following Rh

antigens: D, C, E, c, e?

A. One

B. Two

C. Three

D. Four

C. Inheritance of hh genes

68. The test results could be due to:

A. Cold autoantibody

B. Inheritance of sese genes

C. Inheritance of hh genes

D. Rouleaux

B. Oh phenotype

69. If the patient's RBCs were tested against anti-H lectin and did not react, this person would be identified as a(an):

A. Acquired B

B. Oh phenotype

C. Secretor

D. Subgroup of A

C. Lea substance

70. If a person has the genetic makeup Hh,

AO, LeLe, sese, what substance will be

found in the secretions?

A. A substance

B. H substance

C. Lea substance

D. Leb substance

D. The patient's red cells give a negative

result, with a monoclonal anti-B

reagent lacking the ES-4 clone.

71. The following results were obtained when

typing a patient's blood sample.

Cell Typing

Results

Anti-A

4+

Anti-B

2 +

Serum Typing

Results

A, cells

0

B cells

4+

The tech suspects that this is a case of an

acquired B antigen. Which of the

following would support this suspicion?

A. A positive autocontrol test

B. Secretor studies show that the patient

is a nonsecretor.

C. A patient diagnosis of leukemia

D. The patient's red cells give a negative

result, with a monoclonal anti-B

reagent lacking the ES-4 clone.

B. A plant substance that chemically

reacts with certain RBC antigens

72. Lectins are useful in determining the

cause of abnormal reactions in blood bank

serology. These lectins are frequently

labeled as anti-H, anti-Ap etc. The nature

of these lectins is explained by which of

the following?

A. An early form of monoclonal antibody

produced in nonvertebrates

B. A plant substance that chemically

reacts with certain RBC antigens

C. Naturally occurring antibodies in

certain plants

D. The ability of plants to respond to

RBC antigens by antibody production

D. L-Fucose

73. Which of the following sugars must be

present on a precursor substance for A

and B antigenic activity to be expressed?

A. D-Galactose

B. N-Acetylgalactosamine

C. Glucose

D. L-Fucose

B. Complement

74. An antigen-antibody reaction alone

does not cause hemolysis. Which of the

following is required for red blood cell

lysis?

A. Albumin

B. Complement

C. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase

(G6PD)

D. Antihuman globulin (AHG)

B. DCe/dce

75. A white female's red blood cells gave the

following reactions upon phenotyping:

D+ C+ E- c+ e+. Which of the

following is the most probable Rh

genotype?

A. DCe/Dce

B. DCe/dce

C. DCe/DcE

D. Dce/dCe

C. DCe/dcE

76. A black patient has the following Rh

phenotype: D+ C+ E+ c+ e+. Which of

the following genotypes is the least

probable?

A. DCE/dce

B. DCe/DcE

C. DCe/dcE

D. DcE/dCe

A. The antibody is anti-G.

77. An individual of the dee/dee genotype

given dCe/dce blood has an antibody

response that appears to be anti-C plus

anti-D. What is the most likely explanation

for this?

A. The antibody is anti-G.

B. The antibody is anti-partial D.

C. The antibody is anti-Cw.

D. The reactions were read incorrectly.

B. Anti-c

78. If a patient has the Rh genotype DCe/DCe

and receives a unit of red blood cells from

a DCe/dce individual, what Rh antibody

might the patient develop?

A. Anti-C

B. Anti-c

C. Anti-d

D. Anti-E

C. 50%

79. What percentage of this couple's offspring can be expected to be D-negative?

A. 0%

B. 25%

C. 50%

D. 75%

C. The husband cannot be excluded from being the infant's father.

80. Which of the following conclusions regarding the family typing is most likely?

A. The husband is not the infant's father.

B. The husband is proved to be the infant's father.

C. The husband cannot be excluded from being the infant's father.

D. The D typing on the infant is a false positive.

C. Wife

81. Which, if any, of these three individuals can make anti-D?

A. Husband

B. Husband and wife

C. Wife

D. None

A. Partial D

82. If a D-positive person makes an anti-D,

this person is probably

A. Partial D

B. D-negative

C. Weak D as position effect

D. Weak D due to transmissible genes

A. People who lack the k antigen are rare

83. A serum containing anti-k is not frequently

encountered. This is because

A. People who lack the k antigen are rare

B. People who possess the k antigen are

rare

C. The k antigen is not a good immunogen

D. Kellnull people are rare

C. Anti-Jka

84. A victim of an auto accident arrives in the

emergency department (ED) as a transfer

from a hospital in a rural area. The patient

has been in that facility for several weeks

and has received several units of red blood

cells during that time. The ED resident

orders 2 units of RBCs for transfusion.

The sample sent to the blood bank is

centrifuged and the cell-serum interface

is not discernable. A subsequent sample

produces the same appearance. You would

suspect that the patient has

A. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia

B. Anti-Fya

C. Anti-Jka

D. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria

A. The Xga antigen has a higher

frequency in women than in men.

85. Which of the following is a characteristic

of the Xga blood group system?

A. The Xga antigen has a higher

frequency in women than in men.

B. The Xga antigen has a higher

frequency in men than in women.

C. The Xga antigen is enhanced by

enzymes.

D. Anti-Xga is usually a saline-reacting

antibody.

D. Testing a cell that is negative for the

antigen and one that is heterozygous

for the antigen

86. Testing needs to be done with an antiserum

that is rarely used. The appropriate

steps to take in using this antiserum

include following the manufacturer's

procedure and

A. Performing a cell panel to be sure that

the antiserum is performing correctly

B. Performing the testing on screen cells

C. Testing in duplicate to ensure the

repeatability of the results

D. Testing a cell that is negative for the

antigen and one that is heterozygous

for the antigen

D. Often implicated in delayed hemolytic

transfusion reactions

87. Which of the following is a characteristic

of Kidd system antibodies?

A. Usually IgM antibodies

B. Corresponding antigens are destroyed

by enzymes.

C. Usually strong and stable during

storage

D. Often implicated in delayed hemolytic

transfusion reactions

B. React well with enzyme-treated panel

cells

88. Which of the following statements is not

true of anti-Fya and anti-Fyb?

A. Are clinically significant

B. React well with enzyme-treated panel

cells

C. Cause hemolytic transfusion reactions

D. Cause a generally mild hemolytic

disease of the newborn

B. Anti-Cha and anti-Rga

89. Which of the following antibodies can be

neutralized with pooled human plasma?

A. Anti-Hy and anti-Ge: 1

B. Anti-Cha and anti-Rga

C. Anti-Coa and anti-Cob

D. Anti-Doa and anti-Jsb

D. Only occurs in Fy(a-b-) individuals

90. Which of the following statements is not

true about anti-U?

A. Is clinically significant

B. Is only found in black individuals

C. Only occurs in S-s- individuals

D. Only occurs in Fy(a-b-) individuals

B. Type the donor units for the E antigen

and crossmatch the E-negative units.

91. A patient had an anti-E identified in his

serum 5 years ago. His antibody screening

test is now negative. To obtain suitable

blood for transfusion, what is the best

procedure to use?

A. Type the patient for the E antigen as an

added part to the crossmatch procedure.

B. Type the donor units for the E antigen

and crossmatch the E-negative units.

C. Crossmatch donors with the patient's

serum and release the compatible units

for transfusion.

D. Perform the crossmatch with enzymetreated

donor cells, because enzymetreated

red cells react better with Rh

antibodies.

B. Fy(a+b+)

92. A patient's red blood cells are being typed

for the Fya antigen. Which of the following

is the proper cell type of choice for a

positive control of the anti-Fya reagent?

A. Fy(a+b-)

B. Fy(a+b+)

C. Fy(a-b+)

D. Fy(a-b-)

B. Anti-K

93. Which of the following antibodies has been

clearly implicated in transfusion reactions

and hemolytic disease of the newborn?

A. Anti-I

B. Anti-K

C. Anti-Lea

D. Anti-N

A. Anti-E, -K, -Kpa, -Jsa, -Jkb

94. Which of the following antibodies would require additional testing in order to be ruled out?

A. Anti-E, -K, -Kpa, -Jsa, -Jkb

B. Anti-E, -S, -Leb, -K, -Kpa, -Fya

C. Anti-E, -S, -Lea, -K, -Kpa, -Jsa, -Fya, -Jka

D. Anti-E, -Lea, -K, -Kpa, -Jsa, -Fyb, -Jka, -Jkb

B. Anti-E and anti-K

95. The most likely antibody(ies) in the patient's serum is (are)

A. Anti-S and anti-E

B. Anti-E and anti-K

C. Anti-Fyb showing dosage

D. Anti-K, anti-Jsa, and anti-Lea

C. 1, 4, 7

96. From the cells in red cell panel chart 2, choose a selected cell panel to help identify the antibody(ies) in the patient described in question 95.

A. 1, 2, 5, 9, 10

B. 2, 6, 7, 10

C. 1, 4, 7

D. 2, 3, 4, 6, 9

C. Anti-Lea

97. Often when trying to identify a mixture of

antibodies, it is useful to neutralize one of

the known antibodies. Which one of the

following antibodies is neutralizable?

A. Anti-D

B. Anti-Jka

C. Anti-Lea

D. Anti-M

C. Anti-N

98. Which of the following antibodies does

not match the others in terms of optimal

reactive temperature?

A. Anti-Fya

B. Anti-Jkb

C. Anti-N

D. Anti-U

D. Enzyme panel

99. A recently transfused patient's serum has

a positive antibody screen. The panel

performed at IS, in LISS at 37°C, and at

AHG shows a strong anti-Fya and a weak

possible anti-C. To confirm the anti-C, you

would perform an

A. Elution

B. Absorption

C. Antigen typing

D. Enzyme panel

B. Gel test

100. The antiglobulin test does not require

washing or the addition of IgG-coated

cells in which of the following antibody

detection methods?

A. Solid-phase red cell adherence assays

B. Gel test

C. Affinity column technology

D. Polyethylene glycol (PEG) technique