EMT 90 Quiz one chapters 9,11,12,13,16 (via quizlet)

When working as an independent health care group member, the EMT should expect that he or she:

A. will rely on the group leader for making virtually all decisions.

B. does not have to wait for an assignment before performing a task.

C. will be specifically instructed on how to perform a specific task.

D. will receive no support or guidance from an EMS supervisor.

B. does not have to wait for an assignment before performing a task

Which comes first in EMS decision making?

A. Planning

B. Data interpretation

C. Data gathering

D. Team communication

C. data gathering

In an independent group, you would have:

A. your own work area.

B. shared transportation.

C. parallel work.

D. a common set of tasks.

A. your own work area

Health care providers who infrequently work together can function effectively as a team if they work in an environment that supports and promotes:

A. competition.

B. rigid protocols.

C. collaboration.

D. discipline.

C. collaboration

While transferring a patient to ALS staff, interference should be:

A. transformed by coordination.

B. minimized overall.

C. kept in place.

D. optimized for care.

B. minimized overall

After assuming care of a cardiac arrest patient from an EMT, the paramedic should remember that:

A. ALS interventions are fundamentally more critical than BLS interventions.

B. the BLS care provided by the EMT is the "first steps" of ALS care.

C. ALS interventions are the core interventions around which BLS care is provided.

D. BLS efforts must continue throughout the patient care continuum.

D. BLS efforta must continue throughout the patient care continuum

While transferring patient care to another healthcare provider, you should be:

A. patient.

B. aggressive.

C. respectful.

D. assertive.

C. respectful

Which step in EMS decision making comes after a patient has been transferred?

A. Data gathering

B. Outcome evaluation

C. Team communication

D. Planning

B. outcome evaluation

EMTs arrive at the scene of an ill person. The EMR, who arrived before the EMTs, advises that the patient had a syncopal episode. The patient is conscious and alert and remains so throughout transport. When transferring patient care to the emergency department nurse, the EMT should advise the nurse that:

A. she should contact the EMR about the incident.

B. there is no evidence to support the syncopal episode.

C. the EMR was probably mistaken about the episode.

D. the patient had a reported syncopal episode

D. the patient had a reported syncopal episode

During a call, the EMT observes her partner using an assessment approach that she is unfamiliar with. The patient is stable and has no life-threatening conditions. What should the EMT do?

A. Immediately engage her partner and correct his assessment approach.

B. Contact a supervisor after the call and suggest remediation for her partner.

C. Assume care of the patient and ask her partner to drive the ambulance.

D. Discuss the assessment approach that was taken after the call is over.

D. discuss the assessment approach that was taken after the call is over

The concept of consistent care across the entire health care team from first patient contact to patient discharge is called:

A. patient care advocacy.

B. the standard of care.

C. the scope of practice.

D. the continuum of care.

D. the continuum of care

Premature diagnosis during a call can be due to what error?

A. Anchoring

B. Bias

C. Overconfidence

D. Streamlining

A. anchoring

When the EMT assists a paramedic with an advanced intervention, he or she should recall that the focus of the intervention is on:

A. solving a clinical problem.

B. learning to perform the skill.

C. following local protocol.

D. completing the procedure.

A. solving a clinical problem

In an interdependent group, when one person fails:

A. that person is fired.

B. management will be changed.

C. pay is withheld.

D. everyone fails.

D. everyone fails

Which of the following would the EMT MOST likely be asked to do when assisting a paramedic with endotracheal intubation?

A. Placement of the endotracheal tube

B. Preoxygenation with a BVM

C. Suction under direct laryngoscopy

D. Visualization of the vocal cords

B. Preoxygenated with a BVM

In contrast to a health care group, a health care team:

A. is not assigned specific roles.

B. works interdependently.

C. does not function under protocols.

D. works independently.

B. works interdependently

Gathering data about a patient begins when:

A. the EMT is given dispatch information.

B. an initial patient care plan has been established.

C. a full medical history has been obtained.

D. the EMT first sets eyes on the patient.

A. the EMT is given dispatch information

When assisting an ALS worker, a BLS worker who performs a skill outside his or her level of certification:

A. risks a lawsuit.

B. needs incident command authorization.

C. is striving for promotion to ALS.

D. plays a team role.

A. risks a lawsuit

EMTs and other health care providers function as a true team when they work:

A. independently.

B. interdependently.

C. under standing orders.

D. dependently.

B. interdependently

During a resuscitation attempt, the team leader asks the EMT to ventilate the patient at a rate of 20 breaths/min, and the EMT replies, "Actually, sir, the correct ventilation rate is 10 breaths/min." This is an example of:

A. situational awareness.

B. constructive intervention.

C. closed-loop communication.

D. quality assurance monitoring.

B. constructive intervention

For patient handoff, it is important for EMTs and hospital staff to use:

A. shared training.

B. common language.

C. metric-sized tools.

D. common goals.

B. common language

Which of the following would the paramedic be LEAST likely to ask the EMT to do?

A. Assess blood glucose

B. Apply a tourniquet

C. Obtain vital signs

D. Intubate a patient

D. intubate a patient

The effectiveness of pit crew CPR is dependent on:

A. protocols that allow the EMT to function without medical control.

B. a team leader who is capable of performing all of the patient care tasks.

C. defining clear roles and responsibilities before the call is received.

D. rapidly assessing the patient before assigning roles and responsibilities.

C. defining clear roles and responsibilities before the call is received

Which of the following would MOST likely facilitate an accurate and effective verbal handoff report at the hospital?

A. Brief pause in care to provide the verbal report.

B. Use of a mutually agreed-upon handoff format.

C. Clearly identifying your EMS certification level.

D. Providing the handoff report only to a physician.

B. use of a mutually agreed-upon handoff format

Health care teams that infrequently train and work together:

A. often work better under pressure.

B. need less-explicit verbal direction.

C. are unable to accomplish their tasks.

D. can create delays in patient care.

D. can create delays in patient care

An effective team leader should:

A. perform all difficult interventions.

B. help the team accomplish goals.

C. command his or her team.

D. refrain from any direct patient care.

B. help the team accomplish goals

Which of the following is an example of closed-loop communication?

A. The EMT requests permission from medical control to assist a patient with his prescribed nitroglycerin.

B. EMTs decide not to attempt resuscitation because the patient has rigor mortis and is cold to the touch.

C. The EMT corrects the team leader, who states that chest compressions should be greater than 3 inches deep.

D. The team leader assigns the EMT a task, and the EMT repeats the request back to the team leader.

D. the team leader assigns the EMT a task, and the EMT repoeats the request back to the team leader

A team of EMTs is caring for a critically injured patient. The team leader advises the EMT that transport will not begin until the patient's closed forearm fracture is splinted. Utilizing the crew resource management model, the EMT should:

A. repeat the request back to the team leader and then splint the patient's arm.

B. disregard the team leader's request and contact medical control for guidance.

C. advise the team leader that immediate transport is more important than splinting.

D. ensure that the entire team is aware that transport will be delayed for splinting.

C. advise the team leader that immediate transport is more important than splinting

To be a great EMT, strive for:

A. the chance to replace an EMR.

B. foundational knowledge.

C. management work.

D. retraining.

B. foundational knowledge

While providing care to a patient, the EMT informs her partner that a shotgun is leaning against the wall in the corner of the room. In making this observation, the EMT has demonstrated:

A. constructive intervention.

B. closed-loop communication.

C. crew resource management.

D. situational awareness

D. situational awareness

While caring for a patient, the EMT states to her partner, "Why even splint the patient's leg if they're only going to remove it in the ED?" This statement indicates that:

A. the EMT's focus is not on the common goal.

B. the EMT is being realistic in her thinking.

C. the EMT does not trust the hospital staff.

D. the patient's leg does not require splinting

A. the EMTs focus is not on the common goal

During patient care, the EMT instructs her partner to administer one tube of oral glucose to a conscious patient with low blood sugar. The partner's most appropriate response should be:

A. "I would rather you give it."

B. "Are you sure you want that?"

C. "We should give two tubes."

D. "Got it. I'll give oral glucose."

D. " got it. I'll give oral glucose"

If a problem with a team member is not directly or immediately impacting patient care, the team leader should:

A. discuss the problem after the call.

B. ignore the problem to avoid conflict.

C. engage the team member at once.

D. contact the medical director at once.

A. discuss the problem after the call

The EMT is assessing a man who fell and struck his head. The patient is a known alcoholic and has the odor of alcohol on his breath. The EMT assumes that the man is drunk and does not assess for signs and symptoms of a head injury. This is an example of:

A. overestimation.

B. anchoring.

C. overconfidence.

D. bias.

D. bias

A man with chest pain tells the EMTs that he hurt his chest 2 weeks ago. The EMTs conclude that the patient likely has a fractured rib or other chest wall injury. At the hospital, the man is diagnosed with acute myocardial infarction. Which of the following decision traps does this scenario depict?

A. Overconfidence

B. Anchoring

C. Overestimation

D. Bias

B. anchoring

When working as an independent health care group member, the EMT should expect that he or she:

A. will rely on the group leader for making virtually all decisions.

B. will be specifically instructed on how to perform a specific task.

C. will receive no support or guidance from an EMS supervisor.

D. does not have to wait for an assignment before performing a task.

D. does not have to wait for an assignment before performing a task

In an independent group, you would have:

A. a common set of tasks.

B. your own work area.

C. parallel work.

D. shared transportation.

B. your own work area

During a call, the EMT observes her partner using an assessment approach that she is unfamiliar with. The patient is stable and has no life-threatening conditions. What should the EMT do?

A. Contact a supervisor after the call and suggest remediation for her partner.

B. Immediately engage her partner and correct his assessment approach.

C. Discuss the assessment approach that was taken after the call is over.

D. Assume care of the patient and ask her partner to drive the ambulance.

C. discuss the assessment approach that was taken after the call is over

Which comes first in EMS decision making?

A. Planning

B. Data gathering

C. Team communication

D. Data interpretation

B. data gathering

After assuming care of a cardiac arrest patient from an EMT, the paramedic should remember that:

A. ALS interventions are the core interventions around which BLS care is provided.

B. ALS interventions are fundamentally more critical than BLS interventions.

C. the BLS care provided by the EMT is the "first steps" of ALS care.

D. BLS efforts must continue throughout the patient care continuum.

D. BLS efforts must continue throughout the patient care continuum

A 19-year-old female is found unconscious by her roommate. Your primary assessment reveals that her breathing is inadequate. As you insert an oropharyngeal airway, she begins to gag violently. You should:

A. remove the airway and be prepared to suction her oropharynx.

B. select a smaller oropharyngeal airway and attempt to insert it.

C. continue to insert the airway as you suction her oropharynx.

D. insert the airway no further but leave it in place as a bite block.

A. remove the airway and be prepared to suction her oropharynx

A 37-year-old male has an apparent foreign body airway obstruction. He is conscious and alert and is coughing forcefully. His skin is pink, warm, and moist. The MOST appropriate treatment for this patient includes:

A. a series of back blows and chest thrusts.

B. a series of abdominal thrusts.

C. finger sweeps to remove the obstruction.

D. encouraging him to cough and transporting.

D. encouraging him to cough and transporting

Structures of the lower airway include all of the following, EXCEPT:

A. the trachea.

B. alveoli.

C. the epiglottis.

D. bronchioles.

C. the epiglottis

How does CPAP improve oxygenation and ventilation in patients with certain respiratory problems?

A. It decreases intrathoracic pressure, which allows more room for lung expansion.

B. It pushes thick, infected pulmonary secretions into isolated areas of the lung.

C. It prevents alveolar collapse by pushing air into the lungs during inhalation.

D. It forces the alveoli open and increases the concentration of oxygen in the alveoli.

D. it forces the alveoli open and increases the concentration of oxygen in the alveoli

During your assessment of a patient with respiratory distress, you hear wheezing when listening to breath sounds. This indicates:

A. secretions in the airway.

B. a lower airway obstruction.

C. fluid in the alveoli.

D. swelling of the upper airway.

B. a lower airway obstruction

You and your partner are treating a 66-year-old man who experienced a sudden onset of respiratory distress. He is conscious but is unable to follow simple verbal commands. Further assessment reveals that his breathing is severely labored and his oxygen saturation is 80%. You should:

A. assist his ventilations with a bag-mask device.

B. apply high-flow oxygen via nonrebreathing mask.

C. attempt to insert an oropharyngeal airway.

D. administer continuous positive airway pressure

A. assist his ventilations with a bag-mask device

As the single EMT managing an apneic patient's airway, the preferred initial method of providing ventilations is the:

A. mouth-to-mask technique with a one-way valve.

B. one-person bag-valve mask.

C. manually triggered ventilation device.

D. mouth-to-mouth technique.

A. mouth-to-mask technqiue with a one-way valve

How does positive-pressure ventilation affect cardiac output?

A. There is no effect on cardiac output because positive-pressure ventilation is the act of normal breathing.

B. It increases intrathoracic pressure, which decreases venous return to the heart and causes a decrease in cardiac output.

C. It decreases intrathoracic pressure, which facilitates venous return to the heart and increases cardiac output.

D. It causes pressure in the chest to decrease, which increases stroke volume and cardiac output.

B. it increases intrathoracic pressure, which decreases venous return to the heart and causes a decrease in cardiac output

While providing CPAP to a patient in severe respiratory distress, you note that his heart rate has increased by 20 beats/min. He is conscious, but is no longer following verbal commands. You should:

A. remove the CPAP device and apply oxygen by nonrebreathing mask.

B. increase the amount of pressure that the CPAP device is delivering.

C. decrease the amount of pressure that the CPAP device is delivering.

D. remove the CPAP device and ventilate him with a bag-mask device.

D. remove the CPAP device and ventilate him with a bag-mask device

You and your partner are caring for a critically injured patient who is unresponsive and apneic. Your partner is controlling severe bleeding from the patient's lower extremities as you attempt ventilations with a bag-mask device. After repositioning the mask several times, you are unable to effectively ventilate the patient. You should:

A. suction the patient's airway for 30 seconds and reattempt ventilations.

B. insert an oropharyngeal airway and reattempt ventilations.

C. continue attempted ventilations and transport immediately.

D. hyperextend the patient's head and reattempt ventilations.

B. insert an oropharyngeal airway and reattempt ventilations

Your protocols state that during the first few minutes of working on a cardiac arrest patient, you should provide passive ventilation. This means that you will:

A. ventilate with a bag-valve mask that is not attached to oxygen.

B. allow recoil of the chest between compressions to draw air into the lungs.

C. deliver positive-pressure ventilation at a rate of only 5 or 6 breaths/min.

D. time your positive-pressure ventilations to occur during chest recoil.

B. allow recoil of the chest between compressions to draw air into the lungs

The diaphragm is innervated by the _________ nerve, which allows it to contract.

A. phrenic

B. vestibulocochlear

C. hypoglossal

D. vagus

A. phrenic

For which of the following conditions would the EMT most likely administer humidified oxygen?

A. Blood loss

B. Apnea

C. Croup

D. Hypoxia

C. croup

Which of the following patients would MOST likely require insertion of an oropharyngeal airway?

A. A 33-year-old semiconscious patient with reduced tidal volume

B. A 51-year-old confused patient with severely labored respirations

C. A 40-year-old unconscious patient with slow, shallow respirations

D. A 64-year-old conscious patient with rapid and deep respirations

C. a 40-year old unconscious patient with slow, shallow respirations

To select the proper size oropharyngeal airway, you should measure from the:

A. center of the mouth to the posterior ear.

B. corner of the mouth to the superior ear.

C. angle of the jaw to the center of the mouth.

D. corner of the mouth to the earlobe.

D. corner of the mouth to the earlobe

Gas exchange in the lungs is facilitated by:

A. pulmonary capillary constriction.

B. surfactant-destroying organisms.

C. water or blood within the alveoli.

D. adequate amounts of surfactant.

D. adequate amounts of surfactant

The MOST significant complication associated with oropharyngeal suctioning is:

A. clogging of the catheter with thick secretions.

B. oral abrasions from vigorous suctioning.

C. hypoxia due to prolonged suction attempts.

D. vomiting from stimulating the anterior airway.

C. hypoxia due to prolonged suction attempts

You are ventilating an apneic woman with a bag-mask device. She has dentures, which are tight fitting. Adequate chest rise is present with each ventilation, and the patient's oxygen saturation reads 96%. When you reassess the patency of her airway, you note that her dentures are now loose, although your ventilations are still producing adequate chest rise. You should:

A. leave her dentures in place, but carefully monitor her for an airway obstruction.

B. leave her dentures in place and increase the rate and volume of your ventilations.

C. attempt to replace her dentures so that they fit tightly and resume ventilations.

D. remove her dentures, resume ventilations, and assess for adequate chest rise.

D. remove her dentures, resume ventilations, and assess for adequate chest rise

Oxygen toxicity is a condition in which:

A. significantly low levels of oxygen in the blood damage the cellular tissue.

B. decreased levels of oxygen in the blood result in free radical production.

C. cellular tissue damage occurs from excessive oxygen levels in the blood.

D. excessive blood oxygen levels cause the hypoxic patient to stop breathing.

C. cellular tissue damage occurs from excessive oxygen levels in the blood

A nasopharyngeal airway is inserted:

A. with the bevel facing the septum if inserted into the right nare.

B. into the larger nostril with the tip pointing away from the septum.

C. into the smaller nostril with the tip following the roof of the nose.

D. with the bevel pointing downward if inserted into the left nare.

A. with the bevel facing the septum if inserted into the right nare

The physical act of moving air into and out of the lungs is called:

A. diffusion.

B. ventilation.

C. oxygenation.

D. respiration.

B. ventilation

An unconscious patient found in a prone position must be placed in a supine position in case he or she:

A. requires CPR.

B. begins to vomit.

C. regains consciousness.

D. has increased tidal volume.

A. requires CPR

The hypoxic drive is influenced by:

A. high blood oxygen levels.

B. low blood oxygen levels.

C. high blood carbon dioxide levels.

D. low blood carbon dioxide levels.

B. low blood oxygen levels

All of the following will help minimize the risk of gastric distention when ventilating an apneic patient with a bag-mask device, EXCEPT:

A. ensuring the appropriate airway position.

B. delivering each breath over 1 second.

C. ventilating the patient at the appropriate rate.

D. increasing the amount of delivered tidal volume.

D. increasing the amount of delivered tidal volume

Based on current guidelines, in which of the following situations should supplemental oxygen be administered?

A. Any elderly patient whose oxygen saturation is less than 95%

B. Any diabetic patient whose oxygen saturation is less than 98%

C. Signs of myocardial infarction and an oxygen saturation of 97%

D. Exposure to carbon monoxide and an oxygen saturation of 94%

D. exposure to carbon monoxide and an oxygen saturation of 94%

While eating dinner, your partner suddenly grabs his throat and has a panicked look on his face. He is unable to cough and becomes cyanotic around the lips. You should:

A. encourage him to cough as forcefully as he can.

B. stand behind him and administer abdominal thrusts.

C. place him in a supine position and open his airway.

D. deliver up to five back blows and reassess him.

B. stand behind him and administer abdominal thrusts

Without adequate oxygen, the body's cells:

A. incompletely convert glucose into energy, and lactic acid accumulates in the blood.

B. cease metabolism altogether, resulting in carbon dioxide accumulation in the blood.

C. rely solely on glucose, which is completely converted into adenosine triphosphate.

D. begin to metabolize fat, resulting in the production and accumulation of ketoacids.

A. incompletely convert glucose into energy, and lactic acid accumulates in the blood

The __________ cartilage is a firm ring that forms the inferior part of the larynx.

A. cricoid

B. laryngeal

C. thyroid

D. pyriform

A. cricoid

The nasal cannula is MOST appropriately used in the prehospital setting:

A. if the patient's nasopharynx is obstructed by secretions.

B. when the patient breathes primarily through his or her mouth.

C. when the patient cannot tolerate a nonrebreathing mask.

D. if long-term supplemental oxygen administration is required.

C. when the patient cannot tolerate a nonrebreathing mask

The process of exchanging oxygen and carbon dioxide between the alveoli and the blood of the capillaries is called:

A. pulmonary ventilation.

B. external respiration.

C. alveolar ventilation.

D. cellular metabolism.

B. external respiration

What is the alveolar minute volume of a patient with a tidal volume of 500 mL, a dead space volume of 150 mL, and a respiratory rate of 16 breaths/min?

A. 5,600 mL

B. 7,400 mL

C. 6,000 mL

D. 8,000 mL

A. 5,600 mL

At a flow rate of 6 L/min, a nasal cannula can deliver an approximate oxygen concentration of up to:

A. 52%.

B. 35%.

C. 44%.

D. 24%.

C. 44%

An adult at rest should have a respiratory rate that ranges between:

A. 8 and 15 breaths/min.

B. 10 and 18 breaths/min.

C. 12 and 20 breaths/min.

D. 22 and 24 breaths/min.

C. 12 and 20 breath/min

You are performing bag-mask ventilations with oxygen connected and set at a flow rate of 15 L/min. What percentage of oxygen are you delivering?

A. Nearly 100%

B. 55%

C. 45%

D. 65%

A. Nearly 100%

Which of the following statements regarding oxygenation and ventilation is correct?

A. Oxygenation is the movement of air into and out of the lungs, whereas ventilation is the exchange of gases.

B. In carbon monoxide (CO) poisoning, ventilation is impaired because CO binds to oxygen very quickly.

C. In mines or confined places, where oxygen levels are low, ventilation may continue despite inadequate oxygenation.

D. Oxygenation without adequate ventilation can occur in climbers who quickly ascend to an altitude of lower atmospheric pressure.

C. in mines or confined places, where oxygen levels are low, ventilation may continue despite inadequate oxygenation

You are ventilating a 40-year-old uninjured man who is apneic but has a pulse. When your partner reassesses his blood pressure, she notes that he has decreased significantly from previous readings. You should:

A. increase the rate at which you are ventilating and reassess his blood pressure.

B. perform a head-to-toe assessment to look for signs of bleeding.

C. increase the volume of your ventilations and reassess his blood pressure.

D. reduce the rate or volume of the ventilations you are delivering.

D. reduce the rate or volume of the ventilations you are delivering

The nasopharyngeal airway is MOST beneficial because it:

A. is generally well tolerated in conscious patients with an intact gag reflex.

B. can effectively stabilize fractured nasal bones if it is inserted properly.

C. can maintain a patent airway in a semiconscious patient with a gag reflex.

D. effectively maintains the airway of a patient in cardiopulmonary arrest.

C. can maintain a patent airway in a semiconscious patient with a gag reflex

Which of the following statements regarding the one-person bag-mask technique is correct?

A. The bag-mask device delivers more tidal volume and a higher oxygen concentration than the mouth-to-mask technique.

B. The C-clamp method of holding the mask to the face is not effective when ventilating a patient with a bag-mask device.

C. Adequate tidal volume is often difficult to achieve when one EMT is operating the bag-mask device.

D. Bag-mask ventilations should be delivered every 2 seconds when the device is being operated by one person.

C. adequate tidal volume is often difficult to achieve when one EMT is operating the bag-mask device

Which of the following statements regarding normal gas exchange in the lungs is correct?

A. Blood that returns to the lungs from the body has low levels of carbon dioxide.

B. Oxygen and carbon dioxide diffuse across the alveolar walls and capillaries.

C. The actual exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide occurs in the capillaries.

D. The oxygen content in the alveoli is highest during the exhalation phase.

B. oxygen and carbon dioxide diffuse across the alveolar walls and capillaries

High-flow oxygen with a nasal cannula during the preoxygenation phase of endotracheal intubation is called:

A. denitrogenation.

B. active ventilation.

C. apneic oxygenation.

D. passive ventilation.

C. apneic oxygenation

Which of the following medication routes delivers a drug through the skin over an extended period of time, such as a nitroglycerin or fentanyl patch?

A. Transcutaneous

B. Intraosseous

C. Subcutaneous

D. Sublingual

A. Transcutaneous

Which of the following medication routes would be the MOST appropriate to use in an unresponsive patient when intravenous access cannot be obtained?

A. Intraosseous

B. Subcutaneous

C. Transcutaneous

D. Intramuscular

A. Intraosseous

Which of the following is an example of a generic of a drug?

A. Bayer

B. Excedrin

C. Advil

D. Aspirin

D. Aspirin

Medications encased in a gelatin shell that are taken by mouth are called:

A. pills.

B. tablets.

C. caplets.

D. capsules.

D. capsules

Which of the following statements regarding the epinephrine auto-injector is correct?

A. The auto-injector delivers epinephrine via the subcutaneous route.

B. The adult auto-injector delivers 0.5 to 1 mg of epinephrine.

C. The epinephrine auto-injector delivers a preset amount of the drug.

D. EMTs do not need physician authorization to use the auto-injector.

C. The epinephrine auto-injector delivers a preset amount of the drug

Which of the following statements regarding parenteral medications is correct?

A. Compared to enteral medications, parenteral medications have fewer side effects.

B. Tylenol is an example of a parenteral medication because it is taken orally.

C. Parenteral medications are absorbed more quickly than enteral medications.

D. Parenteral medications are absorbed by the body through the digestive system.

C. Parenteral medications are absorbed more quickly than enteral medications

A medication with antagonistic properties is one that:

A. stimulates receptor sites and allows other chemicals to attach to them.

B. produces a cumulative effect when mixed with the same type of medication.

C. blocks receptor sites and prevents other chemicals from attaching to them.

D. enhances the effects of another medication when given in a higher dose.

C. blocks receptor sites and prevents other chemicals from attaching to them

EMTs respond to a known heroin abuser who is unresponsive. If they give naloxone (Narcan) to this patient, the EMTs should recall that:

A. naloxone should be administered in increments of 2 mg.

B. naloxone should not be given if the patient's breathing is slow.

C. naloxone administration could cause seizures in this patient.

D. the effects of naloxone last longer than most opioid drugs.

C. naloxone administration could cause seizures in this patient

With the flowmeter set at 6 L/min, the nasal cannula will deliver up to _______ oxygen.

A. 44%

B. 34%

C. 24%

D. 14%

A. 44%

An example of an anti-inflammatory is:

A. Oxygen.

B. Narcan.

C. Nitroglycerin.

D. Aspirin.

D. Aspirin

You are dispatched to a state park for a young female experiencing an allergic reaction. Your assessment reveals that her breathing is severely labored and her blood pressure is very low. You carry epinephrine auto-injectors on your ambulance and have been trained and approved by your medical director to administer them. As your partner gives the patient supplemental oxygen, you attempt to contact medical control but do not have a signal from your cell phone. You should:

A. immediately load the patient into the ambulance, begin transport, and reattempt to contact medical control when you receive a cell signal.

B. notify dispatch and request that a paramedic unit respond to the scene so they can administer epinephrine to the patient.

C. place her in a supine position, keep her warm, begin transport to the hospital, and request a paramedic intercept en route.

D. administer epinephrine to the patient, begin immediate transport, and attempt to contact medical control en route to the hospital.

D. administer epinephrine to the patient, begin immediate transport, and attempt to contact medical control en route to the hospital

A 62-year-old male is seen with crushing chest pain, which he describes as being the same kind of pain that he had with a previous heart attack. He has prescribed nitroglycerin but states that he has not taken any. After administering supplemental oxygen, if needed, and contacting medical control, you should:

A. administer up to three doses of nitroglycerin before assessing his blood pressure.

B. assist him with his nitroglycerin unless his systolic blood pressure is less than 100 mm Hg.

C. administer the nitroglycerin unless he has taken Viagra within the past 72 hours.

D. begin immediate transport and request a rendezvous with a paramedic unit.

B. assist him with his nitroglycerin unless his systolic blood pressure is less than 100 mmHg.

When administering naloxone (Narcan) via the intranasal route, the EMT should administer:

A. a maximum of 0.5 mL.

B. at least 2 mL into each nostril.

C. a minimum of 2.5 mg.

D. a half dose into each nostril.

D. a half dose into each nostril

Which of the following medication routes has the slowest rate of absorption?

A. Rectal

B. Sublingual

C. Inhalation

D. Oral

D. Oral

Which of the following is the MOST rapidly acting medication administration route?

A. Intravenous (IV)

B. Intramuscular (IM)

C. Sublingual (SL)

D. Subcutaneous (SC)

A. Intravenous (IV)

A 31-year-old female is experiencing an acute asthma attack. She is conscious and alert, but in obvious respiratory distress. After assisting her with her prescribed MDI, you should:

A. check the drug's expiration date to ensure that it is still current.

B. administer another treatment in 30 seconds if she is still in distress.

C. contact medical control and apprise him or her of what you did.

D. reassess the patient and document her response to the medication.

D. reassess the patient and document her response to the medication

You are dispatched to a movie theater for a 39-year-old female with signs and symptoms of a severe allergic reaction. As you are assessing her, she pulls an epinephrine auto-injector out of her purse and hands it to you. After confirming the drug's name and expiration date, you should:

A. ask her if she takes other medications.

B. administer the drug.

C. contact medical control.

D. request an ALS ambulance to administer the drug.

C. contact medical control

Which of the following is an example of a rules-based medication error?

A. The EMT administers the correct drug, but gives it by the wrong route.

B. The EMT administers a drug that is not approved by the medical director.

C. The EMT accidentally gives a higher drug dose than what is indicated.

D. The EMT administers a drug that is contraindicated for the patient.

B. The EMT administers a drug that is not approved by the medical director

The term "pharmacology" is MOST accurately defined as:

A. the study of drug excretion from the human body.

B. the study of how medications affect the brain.

C. the study of drugs that are produced illegally.

D. the study of drugs and their actions on the body.

D. the study of drugs and their actions on the body

The medical term for a low blood glucose level is:

A. hypertension.

B. hypotension.

C. hypoglycemia.

D. hyperglycemia.

C. hypoglycemia