Compounding Lecture Exam (1,2) Help

A parenteral nutrition compound with a final clinisol concentration of 7% and a final dextrose concentration of 20% should be given peripherally.

A. True

B. False

B. False

Norco 5/325, 1 q4-6 hrs prn pain, #24

The necessary documentation for dispensing 24 tablets is:

a. No documentation needed

b. Acute pain exemption

c. Mild to moderate pain

d. Acute pain exception

d. Acute pain exception

Percocet 5/325, 1 q6h prn pain, #30. Which of the following is required documentation to dispense the full quantity?

a. Non-acute pain

b. Chronic pain

c. Acute pain exception

d. Severe pain

a. Non-acute pain

Prescriptions for non-controlled drugs are valid for:

a. 72 hours from the date written

b. 1 year from the date written

c. 1 year from the initial refill

d. Never expire

b. 1 year from the date written

What is incorrect about Schedule II drugs ordering?

a. The supplier must process copy 1 and 2 only, and send copy 3 to the purchaser

b. The reverse distributor must submit DEA form 41 if the drugs are subject to transfer for destruction through a reverse distribution

c. The supplier need to submit copy 2 to the DEA and send copy 1 and 3 to the pharmacy

d. The purchaser retains copy 3 of the DEA 222 form

e. None of the above

c. The supplier need to submit copy 2 to the DEA and send copy 1 and 3 to the pharmacy

Which of the following is a cause for medication errors?

a. Interruptions

b. Distractions

c. Staffing

d. All of the above

d. All of the above

Which of the following Enteral Nutrition Administration methods is the least likely to cause dumping syndrome?

a. Bolus

b. Intermittent

c. Continuous

d. Cyclic

c. Continuous

Which of the following Enteral Nutrition Administration methods is the most likely to cause dumping syndrome?

a. Bolus

b. Intermittent

c. Continuous

d. Cyclic

a. Bolus

How often are shelves cleaned

a. Daily

b. Monthly

c. Yearly

d. Bi-weekly

b. Monthly

Which of the following are indications of Parenteral nutrition therapy?

a. Massive bowel resection

b. Small bowel obstruction

c. Homelessness

d. Flatulence

e. Eating disorder

a. Massive bowel resection

b. Small bowel obstruction

e. Eating disorder

How long should you wash your hands?

a. 1 minute

b. 30 seconds

c. 5 mins

d. 10 secs

b. 30 seconds

Which of the following is (are) advantages for Enteral Nutrition over Parenteral Nutrition use? SATA

a. Lower cost

b. Using the gut which prevents atrophy and other problems

c. Benefits for critically ill patients are further enhanced if enteral nutrition is initiated after 7 days of admission to an ICU

d. Lower risk for infections

a. Lower cost

b. Using the gut which prevents atrophy and other problems

d. Lower risk for infections

(wrong) c. **after 24-48 hours

Which of the following medications do not directly fall within the 2-class drug distribution system in the state of Florida?

a. Pseudoephedrine

b. Clonazepam

c. Oxycodone

d. Acetaminophen

e. Phenazopyridine

a. Pseudoephedrine

Which US amendment created the two classes drug distribution system?

a. Prescription Drug Marketing Act of 1987

b. Durham-Humphrey Amendment (1951)

c. Orphan Drug Act (1983)

d. Kefauver Harris Amendment (1962)

e. Pure Food and Drugs Act (1906)

b. Durham-Humphrey Amendment (1951)

When filling a prescription for a controlled substance, which of the following in not a requirement of the prescription?

a. Prescriber DEA number

b. Brand and generic name

c. Patient address

d. Dosage form

e. Prescriber address

b. Brand and generic name

Which of the following are NOT common users of Drug Distribution Systems?

a. Assisted Living Facilities

b. Hospitals

c. Long-term care facilities

d. Health insurance companies

e. Nursing homes

d. Health insurance companies

For the treatment of travelers' diarrhea then usual adult dose is 1 SMZ/TMP DS tablet po every 12 hours for 5 days. If the pharmacist has SMZ/TMP suspension(200mg/40ng/5mL) in stock. How many teaspoonfuls of the suspension are required to fill the supply?

a. 45 teaspoonfuls

b. 50 teaspoonfuls

c. 40 teaspoonfuls

d. 35 teaspoonfuls

e. None of the listed answers are correct

c. 40 teaspoonfuls

A pharmacist needs to prepare a spironolactone oral liquid with a concentration of 75mg/5mL for a patient that cannot swallow tablets. The patient will take 1 tsp daily and needs a 30 days' supply.

How much liquid will be needed for the 30 days' supply?

How many mg will be needed to prepare this liquid?

How many 100mg spironolactone tablets will be needed?

a. 150 ml, 2250 mg, 23 tablets

b. 160 ml, 2250 mg, 22 tablets

c. 150 ml, 2260 mg, 21 tablets

d. 150 ml, 2250 mg, 22.5 tablets

e. 150 ml, 2250 mg, 21.5 tablets

d. 150 ml, 2250 mg, 22.5 tablets

Which of the following is NOT a legitimate need for a compounded preparation?

a. A provide a medication that is on back-order or has been discontinued

b. To compound a commercially available product to offer a less expensive preparation

c. To improve compliance by altering the taste, changing the dosage form (tablet to a liquid) or combine medications

d. To remove additives or filters which the patient may be sensitive

e. To provide anticipatory compounding based on the history of compounding

b. To compound a commercially available product to offer a less expensive preparation

One of the documents required by chapters 795 and 797 required when using bulk chemicals is a Certificate of Analysis (CofA). Which of the following is not true regarding (CofAs)?

a. It is a written agreement between the seller of a chemical and you the purchaser, warranting the content of the chemical in certain key areas

b. Provides the name of the chemical and its salt or base form

c. Provides the description of the chemical-what it looks like and if it has any characteristic odor. et cetera

d. Provides the assay of the chemical and the amount of water in the chemical

e. Does not change with each lot number

e. Does not change with each lot number

RX: Nitroglycerin 0.125 mg Ointment 30 grams

You have in stock Nitroglycerin 2% ointment and white petrolatum. How much NTG 2% and petrolatum will you need to make 30 grams of NTG 0.125%?

a. NTG 2% = 2.5 g, petrolatum 27.5 g

b. NTG 2% = 2.14 g, petrolatum 27.86 g

c. NTG 2% = 1.875 g, petrolatum 28.125 g

d. NTG 2% = 1.5 g, petrolatum 28.5 g

e. NTG 2% = 1.25 g, petrolatum 28.75 g

c. NTG 2% = 1.875 g, petrolatum 28.125 g

In the most recent edition of the chapter 795 in the absence of specific stability studies or USP monograph is the maximum BUD that can be assigned to non-aqueous dosage forms (i.e. suppositories, ointments, fixed oils, and waxes)?

a. 35

b. 60

c. 90

d. 120

e. 180

e. 180

(updated, from USP <795> 2023)

Master formula record as requested by Chapters 795 must include the following except:

a. Name, strength, and dosage form of the CNSP

b. Assigned BUD dose for the CNSP

c. Physical description of the final CNSP

d. Identities and amounts of all components

e. The lot number and patient who received the preparation

e. The lot number and patient who received the preparation

You have in the pharmacy Kenalog 0.5% and 1% cream. You receive a prescription for Kenalog 0.78% cream (1/2 lb). How much of the 1% cream (in grams) should be used to compound this prescription?

a. 89

b. 100

c. 127

d. 154

e. None are correct

c. 127

What is the minimum frequency of cleaning and disinfecting floors in a sterile compounding area? (797)

a. Every 8 hours

b. Every 24 hours

c. Every 48 hours

d. Every 72 hours

e. Once weekly

b. Every 24 hours

Which of the following medications is on the look-a-like, sound-a-like (LASA) list? SATA

a. Hydroxyzine

b. Finasteride

c. Guaifenesin

d. Nimodipine

e. Apixaban

a. Hydroxyzine

c. Guaifenesin

d. Nimodipine

Which of the following medications is on the negative formulary? SATA

a. Digoxin

b. Pancrealipase

c. Theophylline

d. Chlorpromazine (Liquids)

e. Conjugated estrogens

b. Pancrealipase

e. Conjugated estrogens

Calculate the IV rate of flow for 1200 mL of NaCl 0.9% to be infused over 6 hours. The infusion set is calibrated for a drop factor of 15 drops per milliliter.

a. 35 drops per minute

b. 50 drops per minute

c. 65 drops per minute

d. 80 drops per minute

e. None of the above are correct

b. 50 drops per minute

Which form should be filled out to get a chemical distributor registration?

A. DEA 510

B. DEA 363

C. DEA 224

D. DEA 225

E. DEA 222

A. DEA 510

For a Schedule II opioid drug prescribe in a post-surgical setting:

A. Treatment for acute pain may not exceed 5 days

B. For the treatment of pain other than acute pain, a practitioner must indicate "NONACUTE PAIN" on the prescription.

C. For the treatment of pain related to a traumatic injury with an Injury Severity Score of 8 or greater, a practitioner must concurrently prescribe an emergency opioid antagonist

D. Treatment may not exceed 10 days maximum

E. All of the above

B. For the treatment of pain other than acute pain, a practitioner must indicate "NONACUTE PAIN" on the prescription.

Who can submit a copy of the DEA 222 to the DEA's office?

I. A DEA registered supplier

II. A DEA registered reverse distributor

III. A DEA registered pharmacy

A. I only

B. III only

C. I, II, and III

D. I and II only

E. II and III only

D. I and II only

Who can transfer a Schedule III prescription between pharmacies?

I. A technician under direct supervision of a pharmacist to another pharmacist

II. An intern to a pharmacist

III. A pharmacist to a pharmacist

A. I only

B. III only

C. I, II, and III

D. I and II only

E. II and III only

E. II and III only

Which form should be processed to destroy Schedule II drugs through a reverse distributor by a pharmacy?

A. DEA 2226

B. DEA 41

C. DEA 106

D. DEA 224

E. DEA 363

B. DEA 41

Copy 3 of the DEA form 222 is eventually kept by the:

A. DEA

B. Supplier

C. Pharmacy

D. Purchaser

E. Pharmacist

D. Purchaser

Who can transfer a Schedule III prescription between pharmacies?

I. A technician under direct supervision of a pharmacist to another pharmacist

II. An intern to a pharmacist

III. A pharmacist to a pharmacist

A. I only

B. III only

C. I, II, and III

D. I and II only

E. II and III only

E. II and III only

A pharmacy may dispense in partial quantities of Schedule II prescriptions for patients in:

I. Nursing homes

II. Long-term care facilities

III. Assisted living facilities

A. I only

B. III only

C. I, II, and III

D. I and II only

E. II and III only

D. I and II only

What is incorrect about schedule II drugs ordering?

A. The supplier has to process copy 1 and 2 only.

B. The reverse distributor has to submit DEA form 41 if the drugs are subject to transfer for destruction through a reverse distributor.

C. The supplier needs to submit copy 2 to the DEA and an invoice to the pharmacy.

D. The purchaser retains copy 3 of the DEA 22 form

C. The supplier needs to submit copy 2 to the DEA and an invoice to the pharmacy.

A pharmacist may only dispense a substitute biological product for the prescribed biological product if:

A. The FDA has determined that the substitute biological product is biosimilar to and interchangeable for the prescribed biological product.

B. The prescribing health care provider does not express a preference against

substitution in writing, verbally, or electronically.

C. The pharmacist notifies the person presenting the prescription of the substitution.

D. The pharmacist retains a written or electronic record of the substitution for at least 2 years.

E. All of the above

E. All of the above

A person who willfully and knowingly fails to report the dispensing of a controlled substance as required by this section commits:

A. A misdemeanor of the first degree

B. A felony of the first degree

C. A misdemeanor of the second degree

D. A felony of the second degree

E. No criminal penalty

A. A misdemeanor of the first degree

A pharmacist may perform centralized prescription filling for multiple pharmacies:

A. Yes

B. No

C. Yes, if all pharmacies have the same owner

D. Yes, if all pharmacies are in the same state

E. Florida does not allow for centralized prescription filling

C. Yes, if all pharmacies have the same owner

Can a pharmacist accept a hard copy of a controlled substance from a Mexican physician?

A. Yes, for both controlled and non-controlled substances

B. No, for all drugs

C. Yes, if standards of Mexican laws match the US standards

D. For C-III through C-V drugs only

E. Yes, if the MD is registered with the DEA

E. Yes, if the MD is registered with the DEA

In case of a state emergency order, how many days' supply can be filled by a pharmacist without the refill authorization from the prescriber?

A. 30 days

B. 72 hours

C. 7 days

D. 14 days

E. Only the days needed to cover the emergency period

A. 30 days

What cannot be changed on a Schedule III prescription with the prescriber's permission?

A. The drug quantity

B. The date written

C. The refill information

D. The drug strength

E. The prescriber's name

E. The prescriber's name

For a TPN to be used through peripheral access, the concentration of amino acids should be between:

A. 1-2%

B. 2-4%

C. 3-5%

D. 5-10%

E. 10-15%

C. 3-5%

Which US amendment created the two-class distribution system?

A. Prescription drug marketing act of 1987

B. Durham-Humphrey Amendment of 1951

C. Orphan Drug Act of 1983

D. Kefauver-Harris Amendment of 1962

E. Pure Food and Drug Act of 1906

B. Durham-Humphrey Amendment of 1951

When filling a prescription for a controlled substance, which of the following is not a requirement of the prescription?

A. Prescriber DEA number

B. Brand and generic name

C. Patient address

D. Dosage form

E. Prescriber address

B. Brand and generic name

For the treatment of travelers' diarrhea, the usual adult dose is 1 SMZ/TMP DS tablet po every 12hours for 5 days. If a pharmacist has SMZ/TMP suspension (200mg/40mg/5mL) in stock, how many teaspoonfuls of the suspension are required to fill the supply?

A. 45 teaspoonfuls

B. 50 teaspoonfuls

C. 40 teaspoonfuls

D. 35 teaspoonfuls

E. None of the listed answers are correct

C. 40 teaspoonfuls

A pharmacist needs to prepare a spironolactone oral liquid with a concentration of 75mg/5mL for a patient that cannot swallow tablets. The patient will take 1 tsp daily and needs a 30 days' supply. How much liquid will be needed for the 30 days' supply? How many mg will be needed to prepare this liquid? How many 100mg spironolactone tablets will be needed?

A. 150mL, 2250mg, 23 tablets

B. 160mL, 2250mg, 22 tablets

C. 150mL, 2260mg, 21 tablets

D. 150mL, 2250mg, 22.5 tablets

E. 150mL, 2250mg, 21.5 tablets

D. 150mL, 2250mg, 22.5 tablets

Which of the following is NOT a legitimate need for a compounded prescription?

A. To provide medication that is on back-ordered or has been discontinued

B. To compound a commercially available product to offer a less expensive preparation

C. To improve compliance by altering taste, changing the dosage form (tablet to a liquid), or combining medications

D. To remove additives or filters which the patients may be sensitive

E. None of the above

B. To compound a commercially available product to offer a less expensive preparation

When administering fats for TPN therapy, what size filter should be used to filter IV fat emulsions?

1.2 micron