DH 102 FINAL REVIEW DENTAL HYGIENE

A) Before planning individualized patient care, the patient's oral health literacy must be assessed. B) Patients with disabilities or physical limitations will require modification to ensure adequate daily oral biofilm removal.

A. Both statements are true.
B. Both statements are false.
C. Statement A is true and statement B is false.
D. Statement A is false and statement B is true.

Both statement are true

The World Workshop in Periodontology designated 3 Bacteria as Periodontal Pathogens

1. Aggregatibacter actinomycetemcomitans (Aa)
2. Tannerella forsythia (Tf)
3. Porphyromonas gingivalis (Pg)

When moving the flat sharpening stone, which of the following does not apply?

a) Grasp the instrument with your dominant hand.

b) Use a palm grasp.

c) Place your hand against an immovable workbench.

d) Use bright light.

Grasp the instrument with your dominant hand.

What are the functions of explaining the plan to the patient?

a. It informs the patient of length of treatment

b. It lists the sequence of treatment to be rendered

c. It allows for consent of planned treatment

d. all of these

all of these

Mr. Jones is a 50-year-old male periodontal patient. He has been alternating scaling and root planing appointments every 3 months with your office and the periodontist. He has nitrous oxide sedation at each visit and says that it is the only way a hygienist can touch him. He suffers from stress-induced bronchial asthma and severe allergies. When you asked to review the medical history with him, he said that he had no changes other than an eye surgery last month. Mr. Jones's recent eye surgery a month ago required the use of intraocular gases; Perfluoropropane and sulfur hexafluoride. Would nitrous oxide be contraindicated for this appointment?
a) No, there is no problem since it was a month ago.
b) No, there is no contraindication from his surgery.
c) Yes, you need to wait due to use of the intraocular gas Perfluoropropane.
d) Yes, you should never again use nitrous as vision damage could result.

Yes, you need to wait due to use of the intraocular gas Perfluoropropane.

Mr. Jones is scheduled for scaling and root planing on the maxillary right quadrant. He currently has 4-mm pockets and very inflamed tissue. It appears as though he has an abscess on tooth #3. What effect would his dental conditions have on the use and effect of local anesthetics?
a) Local anesthetic is not required for scaling and root planing.
b) An Oraquix dispenser is best in pockets for more profound anesthesia.
c) Increase the dose as inflamed tissue has a low pH, which inhibits anesthetic.
d) Try to use topical anesthetic since the pockets are only 4 mm deep.
e) Send the patient for a medical consultation prior to anesthetic use.

Increase the dose as inflamed tissue has a low pH, which inhibits anesthetic.

Which of the following may result in slow removal of the drug, ester, from the blood, resulting in toxicity?
a) Controlled diabetes
b) Atypical plasma cholinesterase
c) Heart murmur
d) None of these are correct.

Atypical plasma cholinesterase

all of the following are criteria or drug selection of local anesthetics except one. which on is the exception:
A: duration of anesthesia required
B: medicla status o the patient
C: preference of the dentist
D: potential for prolonged discomfort after treatment
E: potential for self inflicted injury before anesthetic wears off

Preference of the dentist

Mr. Jones is a new patient to your dental practice. He has very sensitive teeth and grips the chair when you start to put the mirror in his mouth. You put the instruments down and talk calmly with Mr. Jones for a few minutes before you start the scaling. By building a trust relationship, you let him feel in control without the use of pharmacologic techniques. Which of the five pain control mechanisms best describes the technique you utilized?

Psychosedation methods (iatrosedation)

Biofilm around the titanium abutment should be removed with which of the following?

a) Ultrasonic scaler
b) Rubber cup and fine prophy paste
c) Stainless steel curette
d) Dental floss

Dental floss

Allison, a 21-year-old patient, returns for her routine maintenance visit. Allison has recently completed orthodontic treatment and had an implant placed in the area of #4, replacing a retained deciduous tooth. The implant was placed 6 months ago. The dental hygienist notes that the peri-implant tissue is red and inflamed. When probed, moderate bleeding occurs, but probe depths are normal. The dental hygienist takes a periapical radiograph of the implant site and, upon comparison to previous radiographs, sees that the bone level looks normal. The implant is not mobile. When questioned about her home care routine, Allison states that she brushes once a day and flosses when she remembers or when food gets caught in between her teeth. When probing around the implant, what should be used?

a) Surgical guide
b) Plastic probe
c) Stainless steel probe
d) Wooden rounded toothpick

Plastic probe

While each patient has a personalized appointment interval, maintenance appointments during the first year after implant placement may be every:
A) 6 to 8 months
B) 1 to 2 months
C) 3 to 4 months
D) 1 week

1 to 2 months

All of the following make a patient a poor risk for dental implants except:
A. periodontal disease
B. uncontrolled diabetes mellitus
C. alcoholism
D. anticoagulant medication
E. beta blocker medication

Beta blocker medication

All of the following are characteristics of fibrous encapsulation except:
A. Sharpey's fibers
B. fibrous integration
C. failure of osseointegration
D. implant mobility
E. infusion of connective tissue cells between implant and bone

Sharpey's fibers

The risk for implant failure in smokers is:
A. the same as in nonsmokers
B. greater than in nonsmokers
C. lower than in nonsmokers
D. so small that it is not a concern

greater than in nonsmokers

Endosseous implants are made from what material?

a) Gold
b) Titanium
c) Stainless steel
d) Ceramic-coated titanium

Titanium

Which of the following is the correct statement regarding D2 bone classification?

a) Dense cortical bone
b) Fine trabecular bone
c) Thin porous cortical bone on crest and fine trabecular bone within
d) Immature, nonmineralized bone.
e) Thick dense to porous cortical bone on crest and coarse trabecular bone within

Thick dense to porous cortical bone on crest and coarse trabecular bone within

Implants may be indicated for patients who:

a) are undergoing orthodontic treatment.
b) demonstrate poor oral hygiene.
c) have severe periodontal disease.
d) have an edentulous maxilla.

have an edentulous maxilla.

The etching process causes the surface to appear:
Select one:
A. dull.
B. rough.
C. porous.
D. chalky.

Chalky

Which of the following is not a purpose of the acid etch step in preparing a tooth for sealant application?
Select one:
A. To produce irregularities or micropores in the enamel
B. To smooth the surface of the tooth enamel
C. To allow the liquid resin to penetrate into the micropores of the enamel
D. To create a bond or mechanical locking of the sealant with the enamel

To smooth the surface of the tooth enamel

Which of the following is the definition of incipient caries?
Select one:
A. Beginning caries limited to the enamel
B. Caries formed from unknown origins
C. Caries formed as a result of a stay in a healthcare facility
D. Caries recurring around an existing restoration

Beginning caries limited to the enamel

All of the following are included in pit-and-fissure anatomy, except:
Select one:
A. a wide V-shape.
B. a narrow V-shape.
C. long wide pits.
D. long constricted fissures.

long wide pits.

Which of the following is a purpose of a sealant?
Select one:
A. To seal oral bacteria into the pit or fissure
B. To restore a decayed tooth
C. To provide a physical barrier to seal off pits and fissures
D. To prevent decay on smooth tooth surfaces

To provide a physical barrier to seal off pits and fissures

Which of the following is not true for sealant placement?
Select one:
A. Sealant should not make a flat pool.
B. Keep sealant to a minimum in the pits and fissures.
C. Mix sealant well to ensure a homogenous consistency.
D. Always follow the manufacturer's instructions.

Mix sealant well to ensure a homogenous consistency.

Which of the following is not a criterion of an ideal sealant?
Select one:
A. Be a thick, high-viscosity material
B. Be biocompatible with oral tissues
C. Achieve prolonged bonding to the enamel
D. Have a simple application process

Be a thick, high-viscosity material

Which of the following is not true about microscopic examination of pits and fissures after sealant application.
Select one:
A. Material often does not penetrate to the bottom because residual debris.
B. Cleaning agents assist sealant penetration to the bottom.
C. Trapped air prevent passage of the material to the bottom.
D. All of these are true statements.

Cleaning agents assist sealant penetration to the bottom.

A) Cleaning the tooth with pumice prior to dental sealant placement is recommended. B) The narrow, long fissures are difficult to clean completely.
Select one:
A. Both statements are false.
B. Both statements are true.
C. Statement A is false and statement B is true.
D. Statement A is true and statement B is false.

Statement A is false and statement B is true.

Which of the following is not an indication for sealant placement?
Select one:
A. Proximal dental caries
B. Xerostomia
C. Orthodontics
D. Incipient caries

Proximal dental caries

Which of the following is not considered a cleaning choice prior to sealant placement?
Select one:
A. Bristle brush
B. Air powder polisher
C. High-speed handpiece with prophy paste
D. Low-speed handpiece with pumice

High-speed handpiece with prophy paste

What is the method of choice for teeth isolation during sealant placement?
a) Garmer clamp holders
b) Cotton rolls held by the fingers
c) Rubber dam
d) Specially designed sealant trays

Rubber dam

Which of the following is true for completion of the etching process?
a) Do not rinse.
b) Rinse thoroughly and then dry.
c) Do not dry.
d) Surface should appear shiny white.
e) It is no longer necessary to keep isolated after etching.

Rinse thoroughly and then dry.

Which of the following is an advantage of visible-light-cured sealants?
a) The need for a supplemental light source
b) Fixed working time
c) Increased working time
d) Easier to see when cured

Increased working time

Mrs. Carlson is in the process of initial therapy with the RDH. She has completed one quadrant of her nonsurgical periodontal therapy with the RDH. After scaling and root planning are completed, what type of instructions should be provided to Mrs. Carlson?

Personalized printed instructions should be provided.

Mrs. Carlson is in the process of initial therapy with the RDH. She has completed one quadrant of her nonsurgical periodontal therapy with the RDH. What occurs during the ongoing evaluation?

-Observe and explore the teeth for complete removal of deposits.

-Observe any gingival changes.
-Note any tissue regeneration.
-Observe and explore the teeth for complete removal of deposits and observe any gingival changes.

Observe and explore the teeth for complete removal of deposits and observe any gingival changes.

Mr. Herman presents to the dental office as a new patient. On completion of the initial exam, clinical findings reveal 4- to 5-mm probing depths in the posterior sextants, moderate subgingival calculus, and bleeding on probing, with gingival inflammation and generalized marginal redness. After having professional treatment with minocycline hydrochloride, Mr. Herman should be told which of the following?

Avoid touching the treated area.

Mr. Herman presents to the dental office as a new patient. On completion of the initial exam, clinical findings reveal 4- to 5-mm probing depths in the posterior sextants, moderate subgingival calculus, and bleeding on probing, with gingival inflammation and generalized marginal redness. All of the following are possible antimicrobial agents that can be used on Mr. Herman, except:

tetracycline chip

The maximum caries-inhibiting effect of fluoride is seen when there has been systemic exposure prior to tooth eruption and which of the following?

a) Home use when caries are suspect

b) Professional application of APF fluoride

c) Professional application of neutral sodium fluoride

d) Continual use of fluoride supplements after eruption

e) Frequent topical fluoride exposure throughout life

Frequent topical fluoride exposure throughout life

A light grasp in instrumentation during calculus removal is indicated for:

a)instrument insertion and positioning.

b)assessment strokes.

c)root debridement strokes in removal of biofilm.

d) all of the above.

all of the above.

You have a cousin living in Tempe, Arizona. She told you that her community has recently begun adding fluoride to the community drinking water. What would be the optimum concentration in the water supply for your cousin?

a) 0.7 ppm

b) 1.2 ppm

c) 1.5 ppm

d) 2.0 ppm

e) 2.5 ppm

0.7 ppm

Which of the following chemicals would most likely be used in community water fluoridation?
a) Hydrofluorosilicie acid
b) Acidulated phosphate fluoride
c) Stannous fluoride
d) Sodium monofluorophosphate

Hydrofluorosilicie acid

Which of the following enamel surfaces will absorb the most fluoride when exposed in the oral environment?

a) Sound enamel on the facial surface of #8

b) The palatal root of the maxillary first molar

c) Demineralized enamel on the facial surface of #30

d) Exposed enamel in the furcation area of #19

e) Enamel covered by a dental sealant

Demineralized enamel on the facial surface of #30

All of the following patients would indicate the need for professional topical fluoride treatment except one. Which one is the exception?

a) A patient wearing orthodontic appliances

b) A patient who exhibits xerostomia

c) A patient who does not have community water fluoridation

d) A patient with postsurgical exposed root

e) None of these are correct.

A patient wearing orthodontic appliances

Which of the following agents is currently available in a dentifrice in the United States?
A. Hydrogen peroxide
B. Triclosan
C. Alcohol
D. Chlorhexidine

Triclosan

All of the following are types of therapeutic dentifrices except one. Which one is the exception?
A. Baking soda-peroxide-fluoride dentifrice
B. Fluoride-containing dentifrice
C. Antimicrobial dentifrice
D. Baking soda whitening dentifrice

Baking soda whitening dentifrice

All of the following statements concerning triclosan are true except:
A. bisphenol.
B. bacteriolysis.
C. effective against gram-negative and gram-positive viruses.
D. low toxicity.

effective against gram-negative and gram-positive viruses.

T/F Oxygenating agents alters bacterial cell membrane, decreasing permeability.

False

Mr. Larsen, a 52-year-old, has just moved into town and is new to this dental office. In completing initial oral assessments, Eric, the dental hygienist, noted straight line cuts on the anterior facial and lingual surfaces in the middle of the interdental gingiva. Mr. Larsen had periodontal probe depths from 1 to 3 mm, and his gingiva was stippled, pink, and firm. He also had moderate biofilm accumulations around his bridge in the lower left quadrant and minimal bleeding upon probing. Mr. Larsen reports brushing two or three times a day and flossing one to two times every day. When Eric asked him to demonstrate brushing and flossing, he noticed that Mr. Larsen used a 24-inch piece of floss and snapped it between the contact areas. He also noticed Mr. Larsen used a scrubbing technique when brushing. When Eric commented on his brushing and flossing technique, Mr. Larsen stated that he has always done it this way and no one has ever said anything about it before. The reason the straight-line cuts appear are because Mr. Larsen:
a) snaps floss through the contact area.
b) uses a sawing motion to floss through the contact area.
c) does not use a sulcular brushing technique.
d) flosses too frequently.

snaps floss through the contact area.

Features of unwaxed floss include:
a) smooth surface.
b) thinner that waxed floss.
c) slides through contact area with ease

d) resists breakage or shredding

thinner that waxed floss.

The most effective power toothbrush moves in a(n) __________ motion.
a) oscillating
b) side-to-side
c) orbital
d) All of these are correct.

oscillating

Which of the following is not an accepted use of the toothbrush for oral health care?
a) Biofilm removal
b) Application of treatment or preventive agents
c) Polishing of restorations
d) Halitosis control
e) Sanitation of the oral cavity

Polishing of restorations

Which of the following is not true about bacteremia?
a) There is no clear association with infective endocarditis.
b) Oral tissues usually have a smell, and thus tooth brushing is increased.
c) Incidence is higher in patients with gingival inflammation.
d) All of these are correct.

Oral tissues usually have a smell, and thus tooth brushing is increased.

The horizontal brushing method is not recommended for all of the following reasons except one. Which one is the exception?
a) This method bears pressure on teeth that are most facially inclined or prominent.
b) With use of an abrasive dentifrice, this method may produce tooth abrasion.
c) This method does not allow access to the interdental areas.
d) This method allows greater coverage in a short amount of time.

This method allows greater coverage in a short amount of time.

Which one of the following is NOT an accurate statement concerning testing instrument sharpness?
a) Apply the testing stick along the entire cutting edge.
b) Test for sharpness after one or two strokes.
c) Use a metal quarter-inch rod, 3 inches long.
d) When the instrument is sharp, it engages the test stick.

Use a metal quarter-inch rod, 3 inches long.

Using the acronym PACE with MI, the "A" stands for which of the following?
a) Assessing
b) Approving
c) Acceptance
d) None of these are correct.

Acceptance

The clinician comments, "You know you can quit smoking if you have something to assist with quitting. You mentioned using patches or medications in assisting." This is an example of use of which of the following?
a) Readiness Ruler
b) Mobilizing Change Talk
c) Mimicking Change Talk
d) None of these are correct.

Mobilizing Change Talk

The letter "A" in the acronym CAT in mobilizing change talk represents which of the following?
a) Acceptance
b) Awareness
c) Ambivalence
d) Action

Action

Learning occurs when individuals:
a) understand the concepts presented to them.
b) change their beliefs and attitudes about oral health.
c) are motivated practice good oral health habits.
d) have received thorough oral hygiene instructions.
e) acquires the knowledge or skills through study or instruction.

acquires the knowledge or skills through study or instruction.

Which one of the following is true concerning the readiness ruler?
a. This approach can discourage a patient from explaining their real reasons.
b. It can elicit change talk.
c. Is beneficial in explaining decisional balance
d. Is an auditory aid during the discussion

It can elicit change talk.

In creating a preventive care plan, all of the following should be considered except:
a. physical abilities.
b. cultural factors.
c. current oral health practices.
d. gender.

gender

Your patient Jimmy Smith, age 16, is in for his 6-month recare appointment. At Jimmy's last visit he had six areas of decay and very poor oral hygiene. Mrs. Smith has refused radiographs or fluoride for Jimmy because she thinks that they are not necessary. What must you have Mrs. Smith do?
A) Sign the informed consent
B) Sign the informed refusal
C) See another dentist, because you refuse to treat Jimmy
D) Ask Jimmy to sign the informed consent

Sign the informed refusal

In a dentifrice, what is the function of the humectant?
A. Produces a smooth tooth surface
B. Prevents separation of ingredients
C. Maintains the consistency of the product
D. Prolongs a product's shelf life
E. Retains moisture

Retains moisture

Even when the patient's caries risk level is low, the plan includes all the following except:
a) a minimum frequency of professional oral examinations.
b) preventive recommendations.
c) routine radiographs.
d) none of the above.

routine radiographs.

A) Using a review of systems approach while discussing the plan can help determine and respond to the patient's readiness to change health behaviors. B) a clinician with good verbal communication skills and the ability to build a trusting relationship can influence patient acceptance of treatment needs and compliance with recommendations.

A. Both statements are true.
B. Both statements are false.
C. Statement A is true and statement B is false.
D. Statement A is false and statement B is true.

Statement A is false and statement B is true

The procedure to present the care plan to the patient includes:

a) proper terminology for patient understanding.
b) face-to-face interaction.
c) prepayment for services to be rendered.
d) proper terminology for patient understanding and face-to-face interaction.

Proper terminology for patient understanding and face-to-face interaction.

Periodontal disease is a risk factor for which one of the following systemic conditions?

A. Infective endocarditis
B. Diabetes mellitus
C. Respiratory disease
D. All of these are correct

all of these are correct

A) Risk factors increase the patient's potential for diminished oral health status. B) Anticipatory guidance is an optional component of the care plan.

A. Both statements are true.
B. Both statements are false.
C. Statement A is true and statement B is false.
D. Statement A is false and statement B is true.

Statement A is true and statement B is false

all of the following are components of the dental hygiene process of care EXCEPT:

a. assessment

b. dental diagnosis

c. treatment planning

d.implementation

dental diagnosis

inflammation into the deeper periodontal structures with slight bone loss and connective tissue attachment describes which periodontal classification

type;

A.STAGE 1

STAGE 2

STAGE 3

STGE 4

STAGE 1

-Prognosis is considered a look ahead to an anticipated __________ or end point expected from the dental hygiene intervention selected for an individual patient.

-A judgement regarding the results (outcomes) expected to be achieved from oral treatment provided by the dental hygienist is called:

outcome

dental hygiene prognosis

The ASA 3 status is defined as:

systemic disease that limits activity but is not incapacitated

-the dental hygiene diagnosis is part of the process of care involved the use of what

-The dental hygiene diagnosis is part of the process of care, involving the use of __________-based analysis of the assessment findings to determine the patient's of community's dental hygiene needs.

evidenced based analysis

The dental hygiene diagnosis serves which function?

A) Identify patient needs that can be met by implementing treatment and education interventions that are within the scope of dental hygiene practice
B) Identify diseases and conditions for which the dentist will provide treatment
C) Identify chronic diseases affecting the patient's cardiovascular health
D) Prescribe medications to alleviate pain

Identify patient needs that can be met by implementing treatment and education interventions that are within the scope of dental hygiene practice

Which of the following is a behavioral risk factor for dental caries?
Select one:
A. Xerostomia
B. Immune response
C. Inadequate biofilm removal
D. Family history of dental caries

inadequate biofilm removal

Which one of the following is not a risk factor for dental caries?
a) Genetic factors
b) Tooth morphology and position
c) Xerostomia
d) Bleeding on probing

Bleeding on probing

Which one of the following is NOT a risk factor for periodontal disease?

A) Inadequate biofilm removal
B) Tobacco use
C) Frequent use of cariogenic foods
D) Diabetes

frequent use of cariogenic food

which one of the following is not a risk factor for oral cancer ?

tobacco

alcohol

sun

calculus

calculus

A) A plan for treatment or personal oral care outcomes, created in consultation with the patient, contains an unrealistic time frame for measuring success.
B) A plan for treatment or personal oral care outcomes, created in consultation with the patient, contains at least one goal for each oral health problem identified in the dental hygiene diagnosis.
a) Statement A is true and statement B is false.
b) Statement A is false and statement B is true.
c) Both statements are true.
d) Both statements are false.

Statement A is false and statement B is true.

The dental hygiene care plan includes all of the following except:
a) periodontal/gingival health plan.
b) economic considerations for services.
c) interventions to reduce caries.
d) plans for prevention

economic consideration for services

. Which of the following is an example of a dental hygiene diagnostic statement?
a) Caries present require restorations.
b) Gingival bleeding related to plaque accumulation.
c) White keratotic lesion is leukoplakia.
d) Blood pressure of 160/95 mm Hg is hypertension.

Gingival bleeding related to plaque accumulation.

Which of the following is the primary objective of the dental hygiene plan for periodontal therapy?

a) To restore and maintain health of the periodontal tissues
b) To reduce the patient's risk for dental caries
c) To remineralize the patient's teeth
d) To reduce the patient's overall accumulation of biofilm

to restore and maintain the health of the periodontal tissue

Which of the following steps should be first in developing a care plan?
-Teach proper use of oral hygiene aids.
-Determine goals based upon patient needs.
-Decide maintenance interval.
-Obtain consent for periodontal treatment.

determine goals based on the patient needs

All of the following are steps in a preventive care program except:
a. create the setting.
b. implement interventions.
c. educate about oral disease.
d. identify an approach that will motivate the patient.

Create the setting

Reflective listening:
a) is rephrasing the content that was relayed to you by the patient.
b) adds meaning to what the patient has said.
c) requires guessing based on the unspoken content.
d) is rephrasing the content that was relayed to you by the patient and adds meaning to what the patient has said.
e) is rephrasing the content that was relayed to you by the patient and requires guessing based on the unspoken content.
F) adds meaning to what the patient has said and requires guessing based on the unspoken content.

is rephrasing the content that was relayed to you by the patient and adds meaning to what the patient has said.

Which of the following statements represents a high level of commitment?
a) I'll think about it.
b) I plan to.
c) I intend to.
d) I hope to.

I intend to

1. Within the process of dental hygiene care, the needs of a patient are assessed on the basis of which of the following?
a) Initial instruction session
b) Histories and clinical findings
c) Preventative care plan
d) Health education

Histories and clinical findings

A habit, behavior, lifestyle. or condition that when present increases the probability of a disease occurring is a term often used in medical research. Which of the following best fits this description?

a. risk factor
b. common factor
c. likely factor
d. arbitrary factor

risk factor

A.) Sealants are recommended for patients with low risk factors. B.) Properly placed sealants close off the pits and fissures where microorganisms can live.

Statement A is false and statement B is true

Remineralizing tooth surfaces should not be scratched or altered in any way. Which of the following techniques would be the most acceptable way to detect coronal caries on a demineralized surface?
a) Panorex radiograph
b) Sharp explorer
c) Irrigating syringe
d) Curing light
e) Blunt probe

blunt probe

Saliva has many protective functions in the oral cavity. Which of the following is the most important protective property of saliva in the caries process?
a) Buffering of acids
b) Aid in digestion
c) Aid in speech
d) Carrier of antibodies

buffering of acids

The reduction in caries in the United States since 1945 has been attributed to the fluoridation of the water supplies in certain communities. Which of the following is the percentage reduction in caries found?
a) 10%
b) 30%
c) 40%
d) 70%
e) 80%

40%

What does the "M" in CAMBRA stand for?
a) Mean
b) Management
c) Moderate
d) None of these are correct.

management

Which of the following actions of fluoride is not associated with the prevention of caries?
a) It inhibits demineralization.
b) It passes through diffusion channels to increase acid levels.
c) It enhances remineralization.
d) It inhibits bacteria in the biofilm.
e) It interferes with enzyme activity in bacteria.

It passes through diffusion channels to increase acid levels.

Which of the following bacteria are the infectious organisms that colonize the teeth, help form dental biofilm, and are responsible for the dental caries process?

a. Bacteroides forsythus
b. Streptococcus mutans
c. Prevotella intermedia
d. Eubacterium nodatum
e. Streptococcus intermedius complex

streptococcus mutans

Which one of the following is a moderate risk factor for dental caries?

a. no or few medications
b. multiple restorations
c. dentally aware
d. uses xylitol gum between meals

multiple restorations

Which of the following is NOT a factor in contributing to demineralization?

a. acidogenic bacteria
b. fermentable carbohydrates
c. salivary calcium
d. xerostomia

salivary calcium

Which of the following is not a fermentable carbohydrate?
a) Xylitol
b) Sucrose
c) Fructose
d) Cooked starch
e) Glucose

xylitol

Which of the following is not true of dental caries?
a) Caries is an infectious disease.
b) Caries is a transmissible disease.
c) Caries is an eradicated disease.
d) Caries is a preventable disease.

caries is eradicated disease

Your patient presents with a definitive carious lesion diagnosed by the dentist. What is the treatment plan for a cavitated carious lesion?

a) Take a "wait and see" approach
b) Send the patient for a second opinion
c) Expose a radiograph just to be sure
d) Wait until symptoms develop before treatment
e) Appoint for a restoration

Appoint for a restoration

Most current toothbrushes have __filaments.
a) natural
b) polyester
c) boar
d) nylon

nylon