Anatomy 1 Exams + Quizzes

Brachy

Which of the following root words means "short". Select all that apply.

Brady

Brachi

Brachy

Branchi

Blast

Transverse

Which plane divides the limbs and tail into proximal and distal parts?

 

Parasagittal

 

Dorsal

 

Transverse

 

Median

 

Medial

Plantar

Which term is used to describe the surface of the pes on which the foot pads are located?

Caudal

Plantar

Cranial

Dorsal

Palmar

Carpal, metacarpal, and digital bones

A dog presents to your clinic with a complex fracture in the manus region, and the radiographs show fractures in multiple bones. Which of the following combinations of bones could be involved in the fracture?

Carpal and metacarpal bones only

Metacarpal and digital bones only

Metatarsal and digital bones only

Tarsal, metatarsal, and digital bones

Tarsal and metatarsal bones only

Carpal, metacarpal, and digital bones

Flexion of both humeral and cubital joints

Contraction of a muscle simultaneously crossing over the caudal aspect of the gleno-humeral joint and cranial aspect of the cubital joint would result in which of the following?

Flexion of the humeral joint only

Extension of the cubital joint only

Flexion of both humeral and cubital joints

Flexion of humeral joint and extension of cubital joint

Moving the thoracic limb away from the median plane

Which of the following motions is an example of abduction?

Movement of the paw so that the palmar surface is rotated medially

Moving the thoracic limb away from the median plane

Moving the pelvic limb towards the median plane

Movement of the paw so that the plantar surface is rotated laterally

Endochondral

A long bone grows in length by which of the following ossification process?

Appositional

Endochondral

Intramembranous

Nutrient artery

Which of the following blood vessels is the largest and main source of blood supply to a healthy bone?

Epiphyseal artery

Periosteal artery

Physeal artery

Nutrient artery

Metaphysis

Which of the following is the rapid growing, flared segment of a long bone?

Diaphysis

Epiphysis

Physis

Metaphysis

Apophysis

Calcaneus

Which of the following is an example for a short bone?

Calcaneus

Pubis

Patella

Metacarpal

Medial condyle

A dog presents with a fracture of the proximal end of the tibia. Which of the following is the most likely fractured?

Head

Medial condyle

Medial epicondyle

Medial malleolus

Phalanx

Which of the following terms is the least inclusive?

Digit

Phalanx

Manus

Phalanges

4th and 5th metatarsals only

Fourth tarsal bone articulates with which of the following metatarsal bones?

 

4th metatarsal only

 

1st metatarsal only

 

3rd and 4th metatarsals only

 

4th and 5th metatarsals only

 

2nd and 3rd metatarsals only

Supratrochlear foramen

Which of the following is present in the dog, but not present in the cat?

Supracondylar foramen

Acromion

Coracoid process

Clavicle

Supratrochlear foramen

Right and left pedicles and laminae come together to form arch

Which of the following statements is TRUE about a typical vertebra?

Thirteenth thoracic vertebra is the anticlinal vertebra.

Right and left pedicles and laminae come together to form arch

Cranial extremity of vertebral body is concave while caudal extremity is convex

Cranial and caudal costal fovea come together to form the intervertebral foramen.

3

In a typical dog, how many vertebrae fuse to form the sacrum?

4

5

3

6

Vertebral canal

The spinal cord (and associated structures) traverses (i.e. passes through) which of the following?

Vertebral canal

Lateral vertebral foramen

Alar notch

Transverse foramen

Intervertebral foramen

L5

Which of the following lumbar vertebra is the ante-penultimate vertebra?

L6

L4

L7

L5

Dolichocephalic

Which of the following types of dogs has the longest facial length?

Dolichocephalic

Mesocephalic

Brachycephalic

Palatine

Which of the following skull bones do not house a bony alveolus for teeth?

Maxilla

Incisive

Palatine

Mandible

C7 T13 L7 S3 Cd~20

Which of the following represents the vertebral formula of a typical dog?

C7 T13 L6 S3 Cd~20

C7 T13 L7 S3 Cd~20

C7 T13 L6 S5 Cd~20

C7 T18 L6 S5 Cd~20

C7 T14 L7 S4 Cd~20

C7

Which cervical vertebra lacks a transverse foramen in a dog?

C5

C7

C4

C6

C8

Suture, fibrous connective tissue

The joint formed between the frontal and parietal bones in the skull is best described as a __________, and the type of connective tissue that joins these skeletal elements is __________.

Gomphosis, fibrous connective tissue

Suture, fibrous connective tissue

Suture, fibrocartilage

Symphysis, fibrous connective tissue

Symphysis, fibrocartilage

Fibrocartilaginous joint

Pelvic symphysis is an example of what kind of joint?

Synovial joint

Fibrocartilaginous joint

Fibrous joint

Gomphosis, periodontal ligament

What type of joint and connective tissue should be considered when performing a tooth extraction due to periodontal disease?

Syndesmosis, periodontal ligament

Gomphosis, fibrocartilage

Symphysis, fibrocartilage

Suture, fibrous connective tissue

Gomphosis, periodontal ligament

Synovial fluid

Which component of a synovial joint serves to reduce friction between the articular cartilage and is crucial for joint lubrication?

Joint capsule

Ligaments

Synovial membrane

Bursae

Synovial fluid

Synovial membrane

In a canine patient with a suspected joint infection, which part of the synovial joint would be most susceptible to inflammation?

Joint capsule

Articular cartilage

Synovial membrane

Tendons

Ligaments

Humeroradioulnar

Which of the following joints is an example of a compound joint?

Femorotibial

All of the above are examples of a compound joint.

Glenohumeral

Humeroradioulnar

Coxofemoral

Ligament

A dense fibrous connective tissue that connects two bones is called:

Ligament

Aponeuroses

Superficial fascia

Deep fascia

Tendon

Coxofemoral joint (1)

Multiaxial movement of a bone is possible in which of the following joint types?

Femorotibial joint

Coxofemoral joint (1)

Distal interphalangeal joint

Saddle joint

In feline declawing procedures that involve the removal of the distal phalanx, which type of synovial joint is severed?

Pivot joint

Saddle joint

Ball-and-socket joint

Plane joint

Hinge joint

Ball-and-socket joint

Which type of synovial joint is most capable of allowing circumduction, a complex movement that involves a combination of flexion, extension, adduction, and abduction?

Plane joint

Ball-and-socket joint

Pivot joint

Saddle joint

Hinge joint

Subscapularis muscle

In the absence of "true" collateral ligaments, which of the following muscles helps to stabilize the gleno-humeral joint medially?

Infraspinatus muscle

Deltoideus muscle

Supraspinatus muscle

Brachialis muscle

Subscapularis muscle

Cubital joint

The flexor angles of all synovial joints in the thoracic limb are located caudally (or palmarly) except for which of the following joints?

Distal interphalangeal joint

Cubital joint

Glenohumeral joint

Metacarpophalangeal joint

Proximally with the 1st metacarpal bone

With which anatomical structure does the proximal phalanx of the first digit primarily articulate?

Proximally with the middle phalanx

Proximally with the 1st metacarpal bone

Distally with the middle phalanx

Coxofemoral joint

The flexor surface of which of these pelvic limb joints is located cranially or dorsally?

Metatarsophalangeal joint

Coxofemoral joint

Stifle joint

Distal interphalangeal joint

Cranial tibial ligament of medial meniscus

Which of the following ligaments anchor the menisci to the tibia in a genual joint?

Cranial tibial ligament of medial meniscus

Lateral collateral ligament

Meniscofemoral ligament

Cranial cruciate ligament

Meniscofemoral ligament of the stifle

Which of the following is an example of an intracapsular ligament?

Meniscofemoral ligament of the stifle

Medial glenohumeral ligament of the shoulder

Medial collateral ligament of the stifle

Lateral collateral ligament of the elbow

Cranial cruciate ligament

You diagnose a positive cranial drawer and tibial thrust test in the hindlimb of a canine patient. Which structure is most likely injured in this patient??

Caudal cruciate ligament

Lateral collateral ligament

Medial collateral ligament

Cranial cruciate ligament

Tibia

The naming of the cruciate ligaments of the genual joint is based on their attachment on which of the following structures?

Menisci

Tibia

Femur

Patella

Ligament of the head of the femur

Which fibrous connective tissue structure joins the femoral head with the acetabular fossa and provides stability to the hip joint?

Transverse acetabular ligament

Lateral collateral ligament

Ligament of the head of the femur

Medial collateral ligament

3 (1)

How many intracapsular ligaments of the genual joint attach to the femur? (1)

4

3

5

2

Nucleus pulposus

Intervertebral Disc Disease (IVDD) is a spinal disorder that results from a herniated intervertebral disc. What is the central soft gelatinous layer of this disc called?

Vertebral body

Nucleus pulposus

Anulus fibrosus

10

In how many synovial articulations is the 9th thoracic vertebra involved? (assume this is a normal dog)

8

10

6

4

12

Tubercle

Which of the following structures of the rib articulates with the transverse process of a thoracic vertebra?

Head

Shaft

Tubercle

All of the above.

What is inaccurate with the following comic?

Dogs cannot talk.

There is no ACL in the dogs.

All of the above.

Metal > Mineral > Soft Tissue > Fat > Gas

Select the correct list of radiographic opacities from MOST to LEAST opaque:

 

Gas > Fat > Soft Tissue > Mineral > Metal

 

Gas>Fat>Soft Tissue>Metal>Mineral

 

Fat > Gas > Soft Tissue > Mineral > Metal

 

Mineral > Metal > Soft Tissue > Gas > Fat

 

Metal > Mineral > Soft Tissue > Fat > Gas

Fat

On the radiograph below of a healthy feline patient, what opacity is highlighted by the asterisk (*)?

Soft tissue

Fat

Mineral

Gas

Metal

Summation

In the radiograph below what radiographic phenomenon is occurring as highlighted by the arrow, which makes the renal silhouettes look more opaque centrally?

Summation

Magnification

Superimposition

Border effacement

Right lateral

A dog is lying on its right side for a thoracic radiograph. The X-ray beam enters the left thoracic wall and exits the right thoracic wall. Which of the following is the correct radiographic position name?

Right lateral

Ventrodorsal

Dorsoventral

Left lateral

Impaired thermoregulation due to sweat gland damage

A patient presents with severe burns covering 35% of their total body surface area, including damage to the epidermis and dermis. Which of the following complications is MOST likely to occur as a result of the burn's impact on the integumentary system?

Increased production of pheromones

Impaired thermoregulation due to sweat gland damage

Enhanced protection against infections due to the exposed tissue

Decreased synthesis of Vitamin A

Dermis

A sub-cutaneous injection is typically given below which layer of the integument?

 

Dermis

 

Epidermis

 

Hypodermis

Caudal superficial epigastric artery

Caudal abdominal mammae in typical dog receive blood supply from which of the following blood vessel(s)?

 

Internal thoracic artery

 

Caudal superficial epigastric artery

 

Cranial superficial epigastric artery

Tarsal pads

Which of the following footpads are ABSENT in the dog?

 

Metacarpal pads

 

Metatarsal pads

 

Digital pads

 

Carpal pads

 

Tarsal pads

Left axillary l.n.

A bitch presents with mastitis localized to the left cranial abdominal mammary gland. Which lymph node (l.n.) is MOST likely to show reactive enlargement during clinical examination?

 

Right superficial inguinal l.n.

 

Right axillary l.n

 

Left superficial inguinal l.n

 

Left axillary l.n.

Thick, highly keratinized epidermis with underlying adipose cushion

A Greyhound presents with ulcerated footpads after training on rough concrete. Which feature of digital pads BEST explains their usual ability to resist such injury?

 

Thin epidermis with sparse keratinization

 

Abundant sebaceous glands secreting lubricants

 

Thick, highly keratinized epidermis with underlying adipose cushion

 

Dense distribution of vibrissae providing tactile protection

Ceruminous glands are modified sebaceous glands located in the external ear canal.

Which of the following statements about skin glands in the dog is TRUE?

 

Eccrine sweat glands are widely distributed across the entire body surface for thermoregulation.

 

Apocrine sweat glands primarily open into hair follicles and contribute to individual scent.

 

Sebaceous glands secrete primarily watery sweat to cool the body during exercise.

 

Ceruminous glands are modified sebaceous glands located in the external ear canal.

Wool hairs

Which of the following hair types form the “undercoat” in a dog?

 

Guard hairs

 

Wool hairs

 

Tactile hairs

Storage of information

Which of the following is NOT a function of the muscles?

 

Generation of body heat

 

Maintenance of the posture

 

Storage of information

 

Movement of the body

Diaphragm

Smooth muscle is NOT found in which of the following locations?

 

Diaphragm

 

Walls of blood vessels

 

Hair follicles of skin

 

Walls of gastrointestinal tract

Tendon

The triceps brachii attaching to the olecranon of the ulna is an example of which of the following types of muscle attachment to the bone?

Fleshy

Aponeurosis

Tendon

Epitenon

Which connective tissue layer directly surrounds the entire tendon?

Epitenon

Endotenon

Epimysium

Perimysium

Mesotendon

During dissection, you observe a tendon encased by two layers of synovial sheath. The inner visceral layer and outer parietal layer are connected by which structure that also provides vascular supply?

Retinaculum

Paratenon

Endotenon

Mesotendon

False (1)

In the limb, the origin of a muscle is always considered to be distal.

 

True

 

False (1)

Biceps brachii m.

Which of the following muscles decreases the angle of flexor surface on the cranial aspect of the thoracic limb?

 

Biceps brachii m.

 

Deltoideus m.

 

Triceps brachii m.

Tensor fascia latae m.

Which of the following muscles is an antagonist to the action of biceps femoris m. at the coxal joint?

 

Semitendinosus m.

 

Triceps brachii m.

 

Middle gluteal m.

 

Tensor fascia latae m.

Infraspinatus m.

An example for a bipennate type of muscle in a dog is:

 

Infraspinatus m.

 

Deep digital flexor m.

 

Biceps brachii m.

A single motor neuron and all the muscle fibers it innervates.

Which of the following best describes a motor unit in skeletal muscle?

 

A single muscle fiber and its surrounding capillaries.

 

A group of muscle fibers that contract in unison but are innervated by different motor neurons.

 

A single sarcomere and its associated myofibrils.

 

A single motor neuron and all the muscle fibers it innervates.

Golgi tendon organ

Which of the following sensory receptors provide feedback to the central nervous system on muscle tension?

 

Pacinian corpuscle

 

Golgi tendon organ

 

Muscle spindle

Middle gluteal m.

Which of the following muscles is an agonist to the action of the semitendinosus muscle at the coxal joint?

 

Middle gluteal m.

 

Quadriceps femoris m.

 

Iliopsoas m.

Supraspinatus m.

Which of the following muscles (including any of its heads if applicable) does NOT have a flexor action on any joint?

 

Ulnaris lateralis m.

 

Quadriceps femoris m.

 

Supraspinatus m.

 

Long digital extensor m.

None of the above

Which of the following muscles has three heads in the dog?

 

All of the above

 

Quadriceps femoris muscle

 

Biceps brachii muscle

 

None of the above

 

Triceps brachii muscle

Coracobrachialis m.

Which of the following muscle is a medial stabilizer of the shoulder joint?

 

Infraspinatus m.

 

Supraspinatus m.

 

Coracobrachialis m.

Transversospinalis muscle system

Which of the following muscle group would most likely be dissected during a laminectomy to access the spinous processes of the vertebrae?

Longissimus muscle system

Iliocostalis muscle system

Transversospinalis muscle system

Epaxial muscles lie dorsal to the transverse processes and are innervated by dorsal branches of spinal nerves.

Which of the following correctly distinguishes epaxial from hypaxial trunk muscles?

Epaxial muscles lie ventral to the transverse processes and are innervated by ventral branches of spinal nerves.

Epaxial muscles lie dorsal to the transverse processes and are innervated by dorsal branches of spinal nerves.

Hypaxial muscles lie dorsal to the transverse processes and produce lateral bending of the spine.

Hypaxial muscles lie dorsal to the transverse processes and extend the vertebral column.

Diaphragm (1)

During quiet inspiration, inspiratory muscles enlarge the thoracic cavity by rotating the ribs craniolaterally. Which muscle is primarily responsible for this action?

 

Serratus dorsalis caudalis

 

Diaphragm (1)

 

External abdominal oblique

 

Internal intercostals

4

A typical dog has how many pairs of asternal ribs?

 

5

 

3

 

4

 

1

Vagal trunks

A surgeon notes a mass compressing the esophageal hiatus of the diaphragm in a dog. Which of the following structures would be most directly affected?

 

Sympathetic trunk

 

Vagal trunks

 

Thoracic duct

 

Caudal vena cava

Diaphragm

The caudal boundary of the thoracic cavity in a dog is formed by which structure?

 

Costal arch

 

Diaphragm

 

Manubrium

 

13th rib

The middle of the last rib, curving cranially to the 12th intercostal space

During thoracocentesis in a dog, the veterinarian must avoid puncturing the abdominal cavity. Which landmark corresponds to the caudal extent of the line of pleural reflection?

 

The cranial border of the 6th rib at the costochondral junction

 

The middle of the last rib, curving cranially to the 12th intercostal space

 

The 2nd rib at the manubrium

 

The costal arch formed by ribs 10–12

Thoracic cavity

The right caudal lung lobe is contained inside which of the following?

 

Thoracic cavity

 

Right pleural cavity

 

Pericardial cavity

Pulmonary pleura

Which of the following layers is a visceral serous membrane?

 

Costal pleura

 

None of these

 

Diaphragmatic pleura

 

All of these

 

Mediastinal pleura

 

Pulmonary pleura

Right cranial and middle

In a typical dog, cardiac notch is present between what two lobes of lungs?

Left caudal part and caudal lobe

Left cranial part and caudal part

Right cranial and middle

Right middle and caudal

Fibrous pericardium prevents significant acute distension of the pericardial cavity

A dog presents with acute cardiac tamponade following trauma. Which structural property of the pericardium explains why even a small accumulation of fluid can rapidly impair cardiac filling?

 

Pericardial sac communicates with pleural cavities, limiting pressure buildup

 

Fibrous pericardium prevents significant acute distension of the pericardial cavity

 

Parietal layer of the serous pericardium promotes fluid absorption

 

Elasticity of the visceral pericardium allows immediate expansion

Yes

Dwight Schrute from 'The Office' says, "The chest (thoracic) cavity is where the heart is." Is he correct?

No

Yes

Left ventricular free wall and interventricular septum

Occlusion of the paraconal interventricular branch in the dog would MOST directly compromise blood supply to which region of the heart?

 

Right atrial wall and coronary sinus

 

Left ventricular free wall and interventricular septum

 

Interatrial septum

 

Right ventricular outflow tract (conus arteriosus)

Intervenous tubercle

A catheter is advanced from the cranial vena cava into the right atrium of a dog. Which internal feature helps divert the incoming blood flow toward the right atrioventricular orifice?

 

Coronary sinus

 

Intervenous tubercle

 

Pectinate muscles

 

Chordae tendineae

Great cardiac vein and middle cardiac vein

A blockage at the coronary sinus would impair venous return from which vessels?

 

Cranial and caudal venae cavae

 

Pulmonary veins

 

Great cardiac vein and middle cardiac vein

 

Azygous vein and thoracic duct

Visceral serous pericardium

You are performing a partial pericardiectomy (surgical removal of a section of the “clinical” / “surgeon’s” pericardial sac) through an intercostal thoracotomy (opening the thoracic and pleural cavities through an intercostal incision) in order to extend the survival time of a dog with a heart-based tumor by creating an opening in the pericardial sac and allowing excessive fluid to drain from the pericardial cavity. Which of the following structures/layers would NOT be cut during this procedure?

 

Visceral serous pericardium

 

Costal pleura

 

Fibrous pericardium

 

Pericardial mediastinal pleura

Right ventricle from left ventricle on the right side.

Subsinuosal interventricular groove separates what two chambers of the heart?

 

Left atrium from right atrium on the left side.

 

Right ventricle from left ventricle on the right side.

 

Right atrium from right ventricle on the right side.

 

Left ventricle from left ventricle on the left side.

Outflow area of the right ventricle

The conus arteriosus is which of the following?

 

Inflow area of the left ventricle

 

Outflow area of the left ventricle

 

Outflow area of the right ventricle

 

Inflow area of the right ventricle

Aortic arch

Left subclavian artery in a typical dog is a direct branch of which of the following vessel?

 

Brachiocephalic trunk

 

Descending aorta

 

Aortic arch

 

Ascending aorta

Left ventricle

The systemic circulation of the body is dependent on the contractile force of the __________.

 

Left ventricle

 

Right ventricle

 

Left atrium

 

Right atrium

Left side, low 5th

Mitral (left atrioventricular) valve can best be auscultated at which of the following intercostal spaces?

 

Right side, high 5th

 

Right side, low 4th

 

Left side, high 5th

 

Left side, low 5th

Opening of aortic valve

Contraction of ventricles

Closure of atrioventricular valves

During the systolic phase of a healthy dog's cardiac cycle, which of the following events are likely to occur? (Select all that apply)

Closure of aortic valve

Opening of aortic valve

Contraction of ventricles

Contraction of atria

Opening of atrioventricular valves

Closure of atrioventricular valves

Umbilical vein

Which of the following blood vessels in the fetus have the highest concentration of oxygen in the blood flowing through them?

 

Cranial venacava

 

Pulmonary vein

 

Umbilical artery

 

Umbilical vein

Aorta and pulmonary trunk

Ductus arteriosus in the fetus connects what two structures?

 

Umbilical artery with placenta

 

Aorta and pulmonary trunk

 

Umbilical vein and caudal venacava

 

Right atrium with left

Left atrium

Which heart chamber does not contribute to the margin of the cardiac silhouette on DV/VD projection?

Left auricle

Left atrium

Right atrium

Main pulmonary artery

Thymus

All of these structures are generally seen only in diseased states except:

 

Thymus

 

Caudal vena cava

 

Thoracic lymph nodes

 

Esophagus

The stomach contains gas in the body on DV projection and contains gas in the fundus and pylorus on VD projection

All of these can be used to differentiate a VD from a DV projection except:

 

The cardiac silhouette is usually more elongate in VD projection

 

In VD projection, the diaphragm may have 3 domes visible, while on DV, the diaphragm will only have one dome

 

Caudal lobar vessels are more conspicuous in DV projection

 

The stomach contains gas in the body on DV projection and contains gas in the fundus and pylorus on VD projection