Chapter 10: Instrumentation, Equipment, and Supplies

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58 Terms

1
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What is the technical name for a clamp?

a. hemostat

b. stabilizer

c. compressor

d. forceps

hemostat

2
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Which scalpel handle would accommodate a #20 disposable knife blade?

a. #7

b. #4

c. #9

d. #3

#4

3
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What term describes an instrument, such as a retractor or uterine probe, that can be bent or modified to accommodate for variances in anatomy?

a. changeable

b. malleable

c. alterable

d. shapable

malleable

4
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Weitlaner, O'Connor-O'Sullivan, and Balfour are examples of:

a. handheld retractors

b. self-retaining retractors

c. bone-holding forceps

d. no crushing clamp

self-retaining retractors

5
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Which type of instrument alloy is lightweight, durable, and no magnetizing?

a. chromium

b. stainless steel

c. tungsten carbide

d. titanium

titanium

6
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What is the term for the cut-in lines in the jaws or hemostatic clamps and tissue forceps?

a. striations

b. suppressions

c. serrations

d. secretions

Serrations

7
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Which suction tip is indicated for use in the nasopharynx and often called a "tonsil" or "oral" suction?

a. Yankauer

b. Adson

c. Frazier

d. Poole

Yankauer

8
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The joint of a hemostat where one half of the instrument passes through the other is called the:

a. articulation

b. jaw

c. box lock

d. ratchets

Box lock

9
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Which scissors are often called "suture scissors" and are typically straight and relatively blunt tipped?

a. Westcott

b. Mayo

c. Jorgenson

d. Castroviejo

Mayo

10
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The #12 blade is used almost exclusively for which surgical procedure?

a. arthroscopy

b. laparotomy

c. tonsillectomy

d. craniotomy

tonsillectomy

11
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Which classification of instruments can be of a tweezer-like or ringed and ratcheted configuration?

a. dilating and probing

b. retracting and exposing

c. grasping and holding

d. cutting and dissecting

grasping and holding

12
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In medical terminology, which suffix indicates an instrument as a cutting device?

a. -orrhaphy

b. -scope

c. -tome

d. -graph

-tome

13
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All of the following are examples of types of movement of powered surgical instruments EXCEPT:

a. operating

b. reciprocating

c. rotary

d. oscillating

Operating

14
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Which of the following instruments would be considered a power instrument?

dermatome

15
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When using a microscope, the focal length is the distance from the point the light ray focuses and the:

a. beam splitter

b. hand controls

c. objective lens

d. ocular lense

objective lens

16
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Which type of surgical device provides a bloodless surgical field by way of extremity compression?

a. phaco-emulsifier

b. pneumatic tourniquet

c. suction system

d. sequential compression device

pneumatic tourniquet

17
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Which type of surgical drape is designed to expose small anatomical structures such as the eyes and ears?

a. incise

b. aperture

c. stockinette

d. nonfenestrated

Aperture

18
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Which of the following suction tips is designed with multiple holes to prevent damage to abdominal viscera?

Poole

19
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Which device can be used sterilely by an ENT or neurosurgeon or unsterilely by an anesthesia provider to determine location, function, or conduction of certain anatomical structures?

a. bayonet ESU bipolar forceps

b. cryotherapy unit

c. phaco-emulsifier

d. nerve stimulator

nerve stimulator

20
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Which fine, pointed-tip scalpel blade could be used to incise a blood vessel or create a stab wound for drain placement?

a. #12

b. #20

c. #11

d. #10

#11

21
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What type of surgical specialty rooms would be most likely equipped with three or four overhead operating lights?

a. open heart

b. bariatrics

c. urology and cystoscopy

d. plastic reconstructive

open heart

22
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What is the term for the opening in a surgical drape that is placed over the operative site?

a. slot

b. window

c. fenestration

d. orifice

fenestration

23
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The thin, compressed sponges used during neurosurgical procedures to protect delicate neural structures are called: a. cottonoids.

b. Kitners.

c. Ray-Tecs.

d. laps.

Cottonoids

24
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Into which classification of dressings would body and Minerva jackets and walking and spica casts fall?

a. pressure

b. rigid

c. one-layer

d. bulky

rigid

25
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A drain dressing is cut into which letter shape to accommodate the drain tube exiting the patient's body?

a. Y

b. T

c. V

d. X

Y

26
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Which of the following drains works by passive action?

a. Hemovac

b. Penrose

c. Jackson-Pratt

d. Stryker

Penrose

27
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Which type of syringe has no calibrations?

a. Asepto

b. Luer-Slip

c. bulb/ear

d. Luer-Lok

bulb/ear

28
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By what action does a "cigarette" drain remove fluid from a wound?

a. active

b. capillary

c. wicking

d. suction

wicking

29
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Bougie, Heaney, Hegar, and Van Buren are types of:

a. dressings

b. drains

c. dilators

d. dissectors

dilators

30
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Which type of instrument often has a tungsten carbide insert and crosshatch serrations for stabilization?

a. handheld retractor

b. vascular clamp

c. pneumatic drill

d. needle holder

needle holder

31
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Which of the following instrument parts extends from the handle to the tip?

a. jaws

b. ratchets

c. shanks

d. tips

shanks

32
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Metzenbaum, tenotomy, and Potts-Smith are examples of which type of instrument?

a. retractors

b. hemostats

c. tissue forceps

d. scissors

scissors

33
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Which of the following power sources would you likely use on for delicate bone work?a. direct current

b. air

c. nitrogen

d. alternating current

Air

34
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Which of the following types of surgical sponges are the most absorbent?a. Ray-Tecs

b. dissecting

c. cottonoids

d. laparotomy

laparotomy

35
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Op-site, collodion, adhesive gels, and Steri-strips are examples of which type of surgical dressing?

a. one-layer

b. three-layer

c. rigid

d. pressure

one-layer

36
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Kerlix fluffs, ABD pads, and plain 4 x 4 gauze sponges are examples of which part of a three-layer dressing?

a. binding outer layer

b. occlusive contact layer

c. permeable contact layer

d. absorbent intermediate layer

absorbent intermediate layer

37
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A patient with a major abdominal wound requiring frequent dressing changes might have which type of binding layer to prevent excoriation of the skin by constant removal of adhesive tape?

a. Montgomery straps

b. Minerva jacket

c. bolster

d. Queen Anne collar

Montgomery straps

38
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Normal saline, antibiotic, and Dakin's solution are used to facilitate mechanical debridement in which type of dressing?

a. pressure

b. wet-to-dry

c. bolster

d. perineal

wet-to-dry

39
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What is the term for the tread or tape sewn into a countable sponge that makes it visible on x-rays to prevent a retained item?

a. radiographic

b. radiopaque

c. radiolucent

d. radiofrequency

radiopaque

40
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What is the geometric shape usually achieved by the placement of the first layer of sterile surgical drapes?

a. square

b. triangle

c. rectangle

d. circle

square

41
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Which of the following drapes is applied to the skin, but does not obstruct vision of the underlying structures?

plastic adhesive

42
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Which device is used unsterile in surgery for deep vein thrombosis (DVT) prophylaxis?

a. sequential compression device

b. intravascular catheter

c. pneumatic tourniquet

d. nerve stimulator

sequential compression device

43
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Which of the following types of temporary dressings is used to cover trauma and burn wounds?a. drain

b. wet-to-dry

c. rigid

d. biologic

biologic dressings

44
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The following should never be cut into pieces:

radiopaque surgical sponges

45
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Which of the following catheters is used to drain the kidney and is placed with the aid of a cystoscope?

a. Malecot

b. Pezzer

c. ureteral

d. Foley

ureteral

46
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The three lumens of a three-way Foley catheter are used for balloon inflation, urinary drainage, and:

a. extraction of calculi

b. continuous irrigation

c. decompression of the urethra

d. insufflation of carbon dioxide

continuous irrigation

47
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Which type of urinary drainage catheter requires an incision and anchoring to the skin to prevent dislodgement?

a. Foley

b. suprapubic

c. red Robinson

d. Coude´

suprapubic

48
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What do Broviac and Hickman catheters do?

a. instill contrast media into the biliary system

b. provide access for peritoneal dialysis

c. monitor central venous pressure changes

d. decompress the bladder

monitor central venous pressure changes

49
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Which of the following containers has a handle for pouring?

graduated pitcher

50
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The minimum number of suction systems or units required in an operating room is:

Two

51
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In general, after which of the following periods of time should a pneumatic tourniquet be deflated after continuous on a lower extremity

90 minutes

52
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How are Ray-Tec sponges used during laparotomy procedures when the peritoneum is open?

a. They should have rings attached to them.

b. They should be mounted on a ring forceps as "sponge sticks."

c. They should be opened to full length.

d. They cannot be used at all.

They should be mounted on a ring forceps as "sponge sticks."

53
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GI, chest, and airway are types of:

a. tubes

b. catheters

c instruments

d. drains

tubes

54
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Why must chest tubes be attached to a water-seal drainage system?

a. to keep the pleural cavity humid

b. to keep the microbial count in the drainage from reentering

c. to keep air from reentering thoracic space to reestablish negative pressure for respiration

d. to add weight to the drainage device to keep it upright

to keep air from reentering thoracic space to reestablish negative pressure for respiration

55
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Which of the following blades is used the most?

#10

56
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Which of the following movements cuts side-to-side?

oscillating

57
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The main function of _____ is viewing.

a. Richardson

b. Vienne speculum

c. Bookwalter

d. Greenburg

Vienne speculum

58
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Pulse lavage is often used during which of the following procedures?

a. arthroscopy

b. myringotomy

c. turbinectomy

d. arthroplasty

arthroplasty