Test 2

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60 Terms

1
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If an ion is oxidized, its oxidation number increases.:
1)True
2)False

1) True

2
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If a substance is oxidized, it is gaining electrons.
1)True
2)False

2) False

3
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Which of the following compounds is a weak electrolyte?
A) HNO3
B) NaNO3
C) HNO2
D) NaOH

C)HNO2

4
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Which of the following compounds is a strong electrolyte?
A) H2O
B) CH3CH2OH (ethanol)
C) KOH
D) CH3COOH (acetic acid)

C) KOH

5
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Based on the solubility rules, which one of the following compounds should be insoluble in water?
A) NaCl
B) MgBr2
C) FeCl2
D) AgBr

D) AgBr

6
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The common constituent in all acid solutions is
A) H2
B) H^+
C) OH^-
D) Cl^-

B) H^+

7
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The oxidation number of N in NaNO3 is
A) +6
B) +5
C) +3
D) -3

B) +5

8
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The oxidation number of Fe in K3Fe(CN)6 is
A) +3
B) +2
C) +1
D) -3

A) +3

9
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The oxidation number of Cr in Cr2O72^- is
A) -12
B) -7
C) -2
D) +6

D) +6

10
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For which one of the following acids is chlorine in the +5 oxidation state?
A) HCl
B) HClO
C) HClO2
D) HClO3

D) HClO3

11
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In the following redox reaction
4NH3 + 3Ca(ClO)2 2N2 + 6H2O + 3CaCl2
which element is oxidized and which is reduced?
A) H is oxidized and N is reduced
B) Cl is oxidized and O is reduced
C) N is oxidized and Cl is reduced
D) Cl is oxidized and N is reduced

C) N is oxidized and Cl is reduced

12
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Which of the following represents a metal displacement reaction?
A) 2NaN3(s) --->2Na(s) + 3N2(g)
B) Fe2O3(s) + 2Al(s)---> 2Fe(s) + Al2O3(s)
C) 3NO2(g) + H2O(l)---> 2HNO3(aq) + NO(g)
D) 2P(s) + 3Cl2(g)---> 2PCl3(g)

B) Fe2O3(s)+ 2Al(s)--->2Fe(s) + Al2O3(s)

13
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Which of the following represents an acid-base neutralization reaction?
A) 2Al(s) + 3H2SO4(aq)--->Al2(SO4)3(aq) + 3H2(g)
B) SO2(g) + H2O(l)---> H2SO3(g)
C) LiOH(aq) + HNO3(aq)--->LiNO3(aq) + H2O(l)
D) 2KBr(aq) + Cl2(g)---> 2KCl(aq) + Br2(l)

C) LiOH(aq)+ HNO3(aq)--->LiNO3(aq) + H2O(l)

14
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A 20.00 mL sample of 0.1015 M nitric acid is introduced into a flask, and water is added until the volume of the solution reaches 250. mL. What is the concentration of nitric acid in the final solution?
A) 1.27 M
B) 3.25 X 10^-2 M
C) 8.12 X 10^-3 M
D) 5.08 X 10^-4 M

C) 8.12 X 10^-3 M

15
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35.0 mL of 0.255 M nitric acid is added to 45.0 mL of 0.328 M Mg(NO3)2. What is the concentration of nitrate ion in the final solution?
A) 0.481 M
B) 0.296 M
C) 0.854 M
D) 1.10 M

B) 0.296 M

16
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Identify the following compound as a strong electrolyte, weak electrolyte, or nonelectrolyte:
NH4Cl
1)weak electrolyte
2)strong electrolyte
3)nonelectrolyte
4)None of above

2) strong electrolyte

17
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The precipitate formed when barium chloride is treated with sulfuric acid is _______ .
A) BaS2O4
B) BaSO3
C) BaSO2
D) BaSO4

D) BaSO4

18
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Which name/formula combination is WRONG?
A) phosphorous acid / H3PO4
B) nitrogen oxide / NO
C) acetate ion / CH3COO^-
D) sodium chromate / Na2CrO4

A) phosphorous acid / H3PO4

19
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Which name/formula combination is WRONG?
A) chlorous acid / HClO2
B) dinitrogen tetroxide / N2O4
C) ammonium nitrate / NH4NO3
D) copper(II) periodate / CuIO4

D) copper(II) periodate/CuIO4

20
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What volume of concentrated nitric acid (15.0 M) is required to make 100. mL of a 3.0 M nitric acid solution?
A)2.0 mL
B)20 mL
C)30 mL
D)10 mL

B) 20 mL

21
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At equilibrium condition, the value of Gibbs free energy change, ΔG is
(A) Equal to zero
(B) Greater than one
(C) Less than one
(D) Equal to one

(A) Equal to zero

22
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For spontaneous reaction the value of change of Gibbs free energy, ΔG is
(A) Negative
(B) Positive
(C) Greater than one
(D) One

(A) Negative

23
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Which one of the following thermodynamic quantities is not a state function?
A) work
B) enthalpy
C) entropy
D) internal energy

A) work

24
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If 50 calorie are added to a system and system does work of 30 calorie on surroundings, the change in internal energy of system is:
(A) 20 cal
(B) 50 cal
(C) 40 cal
(D) 30 cal

(A) 20 cal

25
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If H^+ + OH^- → H2O + 13.7 kcal then the heat of neutralisation for complete neutralisation of 1 mole of H2SO4 by base will be
(A) 13.7 kcal
(B) 27.4 kcal
(C) 6.85 kcal
(D) 3.425 kcal

(B) 27.4 kcal

26
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Heat evolved in the reaction H2 + Cl2 → 2HCl is 182 kJ. Bond energies of H - H and Cl - Cl are 430 and 242 kJ/mol respectively. The H - Cl bond energy is:
(A) 245 kJ mol^-1
(B) 427 kJ mol^-1
(C) 336 kJ mol^-1
(D) 154 kJ mol^-1

(B) 427 kJ mol^-1

27
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ΔH of sublimation of a solid is equal to
(A) ΔHfusion + ΔHcondensation
(B) ΔHcondensation + ΔHsublimation
(C) ΔHcondensation - ΔHfusion
(D) ΔHvaporisation + ΔHfusion

(D) ΔHvaporisation + ΔHfusion

28
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Energy is measured in which of the following units?
A) Kelvin
B) Joule
C) Pascal
D) mol

B) Joule

29
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Identify the intensive quantities from the following:
(A) Enthalpy
(B) Temperature
(C) Volume
(D) Refractive index

(B) Temperature

30
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The expression, ΔHsubo = ΔHfuso + ΔHvapo is true at all
(A)Temperatures
(B) Pressures
(C) Temperatures & pressures
(D) Temperature & 1 atm pressure conditions

(D) Temperature & 1 atm pressure conditions

31
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The temperature of 5 ml of a strong acid increases by 5° C when 5 ml of a strong base is added to it. If 10 ml of each is mixed, temperature should increase by
(A) 5° C
(B) 10° C
(C) 15° C
(D) Cannot be known

(A) 5° C

32
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Enthalpy is represented by which of the following symbols?
a) H
b) K
c) S
d) U

a) H

33
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Which of the following terms describes a reaction in which there is a net transfer of energy from a system to its surroundings - that is, where more energy is released by bond formation than is consumed by bond cleavage?
a) Exothermic
b) Endothermic
c) none
d) both

a) Exothermic

34
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Which one of the following statements best describes the enthalpy change of a reaction?
a) The energy released when chemical bonds are formed during a chemical reaction
b) The energy consumed when chemical bonds are broken during a chemical reaction
c) The difference between the energy released by bond formation and the energy consumed by bond cleavage during a chemical reaction
d) The increase in disorder of the system as a reaction proceeds

c) The difference between the energy released by bond formation and the energy consumed by bond cleavage during a chemical reaction

35
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In which direction does the transfer of energy as heat happen spontaneously?
a) From cold to hot
b) From hot to cold
c) None
d) independent of temperature

b) From hot to cold

36
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Find the standard molar enthalpy for the reaction C(s) + ½ O2(g) → CO(g)
Given that C(s) + O2(g) → CO2(g) ∆Ho = -394 kJ and
CO2(g) → CO(g) + ½ O2(g) ∆Ho = +283 kJ
A) -111
B) -677
C) +677
D) +111

D) +111

37
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The standard enthalpy changes for the formation of aluminum oxide and iron (III) oxide are
2 Al(s) + 3/2 O2(g) → Al2O3(s) ∆Ho = -1676 kJ
2 Fe(s) + 3/2 O2(g) → Fe2O3(s) ∆Ho = -824 kJ
Calculate ∆Ho for the reaction: Fe2O3(s) + 2 Al(s) → Al2O3(s) + 2 Fe(s)
A) -852 kJ
B) +2500 kJ
C) -1676 kJ
D) -2500 kJ

A)-852 kJ

38
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A system suffers an increase in internal energy of 80 J and at the same time has 50 J of work done on it. What is the heat change of the system?
(a) +130 J
(b) +30 J
(c) -130 J
(d) -30 J

(b) +30J

39
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All of the following have a standard heat of formation value of zero at 25oC and 1.0 atm except:
(a) N2(g)
(b) Fe(s)
(c) Ne(g)
(d) H(g)
(e) Hg(l)

(d) H(g)

40
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The formation of a chemical bond releases energy.
A.True
B.False

A. True

41
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Which of the following statements is true?
1)Microwaves have a higher frequency than X-rays.
2)Microwaves have a longer wavelength than X-rays.
3)Microwaves travel through a vacuum faster than X-rays.
4)All the above are correct.

2) Microwaves have a longer wavelength than X-rays

42
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In the Bohr model of the hydrogen atom, which of the following quantities decreases as the value of the principal quantum number of the electron increases?
Given: E=(-2.18 x 10-18 J) (1/n2)
1. The energy of the electron
2. The energy required to ionize (remove an electron) the atom
3. The distance from the electron to the nucleus
4. The frequency of the photon emitted when the electron relaxes back to the ground state

2. The energy required to ionize (remove an electron) the atom

43
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The resolution of a microscope is limited to approximately one-half the wavelength of the light source. Because of this limitation, microscopes capable of obtaining atomic scale images use electrons instead of visible light of illuminate samples. To distinguish atoms separated by a few hundred picometers, as they are in most solids, the electron wavelength should be less than or equal to approximately 200 pm. To what speed must the electron be accelerated to attain this wavelength?
Given: Planck constant=6.626 × 10^-34 J/s
a) 3.6 x 10^-6 m/s
b) 3.6 x 10^6 m/s
c) 36 x 10^-6 m/s
d) 36 x 10^6 m/s

b) 3.6 x 10^6 m/s

44
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The average speed of an N2 gas molecule is a container with a temperature of 100 °C is 500 m/s. If the uncertainty in our measurement of the molecule's velocity is 1% (5 m/s), what is the lower limit on the uncertainty with which we can measure its position?Given: Planck constant=6.626 × 10^-34 J/s
a) 3.8 x 10^-37 m
b) 2.3 x 10^-13 m
c) 2.3 x 10^-10 m
d) 2.3 x 10^-11 m

c) 2.3 x 10^-10 m

45
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An orbital has n=4 and m1=-1. What are the possible values of l for this orbital?Given= Planck constant=6.626 × 10^-34 J/s
a) 0, 1, 2, 3
b) 1, 2, 3
c) -3, -2, -1, 0, 1, 2, 3
d) -2, 0, 1, 2

b)1, 2, 3

46
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How many orbitals are in fourth electron shell?
a) 4
b) 8
c) 32
d) 16

d) 16

47
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Which of the following statements about the 3d orbital of a hydrogen atom is false?
a) The orbitals in this subshell can hold a maximum of five electrons.
b) All orbitals in this subshell have l =2
c) The orbitals in this subshell are at the same energy as those in the 3p subshell.
d) none

b) All orbitals in this subshell have l =2

48
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A 3s orbital has ____ radial nodes and _____ nodal planes.
a) 2, 2
b) 2, 0
c) 0, 0
d) 3, 2

b) 2, 0

49
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If two electrons in a multielectron atom are in degenerate orbitals, which quantum numbers must be the same?
a) l
b) n
c) n, l, m
d) n, l

d) n, l

50
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How many of the elements in the second row of the periodic table (Li through Ne) will have at least one unpaired electron in their electron configuration?
a) 3
b) 5
c) 6
d) 7

b) 5

51
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Based on the structure of the periodic table, which becomes occupied first, the 6s orbitals or 5d orbitals?
a) 6s
b) 5d
c) both at same time
d) none

a) 6s

52
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In which column of the periodic table would you find an atom with a valance electron configuration of ns^2 np^3?
a) Group 2A
b) Group 7A
c) Group 3A
d) Group 5A

d) Group 5A

53
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What is the full electron configuration for Ti?
a) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d2
b) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2
c) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d4
d) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 4p2

b) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2

54
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In which part of the periodic table would you expect to find the elements with the largest number of unpaired electrons?
1)The transition elements
2)The representative elements
3)The rare earth elements
4)None of above

1) The transition elements

55
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What is the frequency of light having a wavelength of 4.50 x 10^-6 cm?
(a) 2.84 x 10^-12 s^-1
(b) 2.10 x 10^4 s^-1
(c) 4.29 x 10^14 s^-1
(d) 6.67 x 10^15 s^-1

(d) 6.67 x 10^15 s^-1

56
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The Heisenberg Principle states that _____________.
(a) no two electrons in the same atom can have the same set of four quantum numbers.
(b) two atoms of the same element must have the same number of protons.
(c) it is impossible to determine accurately both the position and momentum of an electron simultaneously.
(d) electrons of atoms in their ground states enter energetically equivalent sets of orbitals singly before they pair up in any orbital of the set.

(c) it is impossible to determine accurately both the position and momentum of an electron simultaneously.

57
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The maximum number of electrons that can be accommodated in a sublevel for which l = 3 is:
(a) 2
(b) 10
(c) 6
(d) 14

(d) 14

58
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How many p electrons are there in an atom of rubidium?
(a) 12
(b) 18
(c) 24
(d) 9

(b) 18

59
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In the ground state of a cobalt atom there are _____ unpaired electrons and the atom is _____.
(a) 3, paramagnetic
(b) 5, paramagnetic
(c) 2, diamagnetic
(d) 0, diamagnetic

(a) 3, paramagnetic

60
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The outer electronic configuration ns2np4 corresponds to which one of the following elements in its ground state?
(a) S
(b) Ca
(c) Cr
(d) Br

(a) S