Blood Bank Quizzes

One bag of red blood cells will increase the hemoglobin by what amount

1 gm/dL

Which of the following components has ALL of the coagulation factors

Fresh frozen plasma

One bag of random donor platelets will increase the platelet count by how much

5000 to 10,000/uL

Which component must be stored with constant shaking

Platelets

If a bag of leukoreduced red blood cells is washed, how long is this product good

24 hours from the start of the washing procedure.

Cryoprecipitate Antihemophilic Factor that is harvested from fresh frozen plasma can be used to treat which coagulation factor deficiencies

Factor I

Factor VIII

Factor XIII

If there is no blood that is tested CMV negative, which of the following is considered CMV "safe"

Leukoreduced components

If a patient receives a bag of single donor platelets and his platelet count does not increase (In fact, it sometimes decreases.), we say he may be refractory to platelets. How do we attempt to overcome this refractoriness

Transfuse HLA matched platelets

All blood that is drawn in CPD or CP2D can have its storage time extended by adding an additive solution (also called Adsol and Adenine Solution). When this is added within 72 hours of the unit's being drawn, what will be the new expiration date

42 days and no more.

If a unit of whole blood is drawn in CPDA-1, how long can it be stored and used

35 days

What is the minimum hemoglobin for allogeneic blood donations

12.5 g/dL

How much anticoagulant/preservative must be in a standard bag to draw 450 mLs of whole blood

63 mL

What is the minimum and maximum milliliters of blood that can be drawn in a standard bag

405 to 495 mLs

What is the minimum weight to be an allogeneic blood donor

110 pounds

What is the minimum hemoglobin and hematocrit for autologous donations

11 gm/dL and 33%

What is the pulse range for an allogeneic blood donor

50 to 100 beats per minute

What is the systolic blood pressure limits for an allogeneic donor

Less than or equal to 180

What is the upper age limit at which a person can have had hepatitis and still be an allogeneic blood donor

10 years of age

If a donor is hooked to a machine and only one component is harvested from him, he is said to be donating by what technique

Apheresis

A person who donates blood with the intent that he will receive his own blood during a future surgery is called what kind of donor

Autologous

If the antibody screen is positive after the addition of AHG and all crossmatched units are compatible after AHG, what is a probable cause

An alloantibody is present

When a clinically significant alloantibody is identified in the patient's serum, what is done prior to transfusing the unit

Confirm that the donor cells are negative for the antigen specific for the patient's antibody by testing the donor cells with commercial antisera.

Perform a crossmatch using AHG

If a patient's sample is positive with all cells (screens, auto, and crossmatches) after 37oC incubation, but negative after the addition of AHG, what could be the cause

Rouleaux

If a patient's sample is negative with the screen cells and the autocontrol, but all the crossmatched units are incompatible at all phases, what may be the cause

The patient was incorrectly ABO typed.

If a patient's sample is negative with the screen cells and the autocontrol, but one of the crossmatched units is incompatible after adding AHG, what may be the cause

The patient may have an alloantibody to a low frequency antigen present on that one donor's cells

If a patient's sample is negative with the screen cells and the autocontrol, but one of the crossmatched units is incompatible at immediate spin, what may be the cause

The patient's serum may have anti-M

If a patient's serum sample is positive with all cells (screens, auto and donor cells) after the addition of AHG, what test will be your clue that there is something in the serum reacting with something in the entire test system

The direct antiglobulin test on the patient's cells

If a patient's serum reacts with the diluent in the commercial cells, what can be done to resolve the problem

Wash the commercial cells to remove the diluent and retest

Perform the antibody screen with the cells from another manufacturer

Suspend the patient's cells in the commercial diluent that accompanies each panel and retest. If this is positive, it proves that the diluent is the problem.

What is the protocol for transfusing neonates

They are given O negative cells of their own Rh type

When a clinically insignificant alloantibody is identified in the patient's serum, what is done prior to transfusing the unit

Perform a crossmatch using AHG

What is the cause of febrile transfusion reactions

Leukoctye antibodies present in the patient's plasma that react with leukocytes in the blood

Which of the following antibodies are implicated in delayed hemolytic transfusion reactions

Anti-A1, anti-P1, anti-Jk(a)

Urticarial transfusion reactions have no definitive cause, but it is thought IgE is involved. What are the symptoms

pruritus

hives

erythema

TRALI and TACO have similar symptoms, but they differ by which of the following

TACO patients suffer from hypervolemia and TRALI patients do not.

Which of the following is an iatrogenic transfusion reaction(If you want to get technical, I guess you could say they are all iatrogenic, but your text does focus on one.)

Transfusion Associated Circulatory Overload

What is the first procedure to be done in the laboratory investigation of a transfusion reaction

Clerical check on all the paper work.

If the Direct antiglobulin test is positive due to IgG, how will this look microscopically and what test must be done to identify the IgG antibody on the cells

It will look mixed field microscopically and the IgG antibody must be eluted from the cells. Test this eluate against a panel to identify the antibody.

If a patient has febrile transfusion reactions, how are future transfusions handled

Leukoreduce the cellular products to be infused.

What must be done to prevent graft-versus-host disease

Irradiate the cellular products to be infused.

If a patient has anaphylactic transfusion reactions, how are future transfusions handled

Wash the cellular products to be infused.

For both the DAT and the IAT the cell button should be washed at least three times prior to adding AHG. Why

To remove globulins from the serum/plasma surrounding the cells

The amount of antigen present on a cell influences the first stage of agglutination. Which of the following cells has the most antigen

A cell that is homozygous for the antigen

What is antihuman globulin

An IgG antibody against human globulin

What is the ABO type of check cells

O

What is the first stage of agglutination called

Sensitization

What is the purpose of the Direct Antiglobulin Test (DAT)

To detect in vivo sensitized red blood cells

When performing a DAT, a control consisting of 6% albumin is run concurrently. What is the result of the control

The control should always be negative.

Which immunoglobulin class is the blood banker most interested in

IgG

Which of the following clinical applications uses the DAT

Hemolytic Transfusion Reactions (HTR)

If a patient has anti-Fy(a) in his serum, he must receive red blood cells that are negative for the Fy(a) antigen. What percent of the Caucasian population is negative for the Fy(a) antigen

35%

If a person has the Le, se and H genes, what substance(s) are in his body fluids

Only Le(a) blood group substance

Select the cell below that should be used for the positive control when testing commercially prepared anti-Fy(a)

Fy(a+b+)

What do the following antigens have in common Js(b), U, I, Yt(a)

All are high frequency antigens

What do the following antibodies have in common Anti-N, anti-P1, anti-Le(a)

All are considered clinically insignificant

All are usually IgM

What do the following antigens have in common Fy(a), M, N, S

All are destroyed when treated with an enzyme

What do the following antigens have in common k, Kp(b), Js(b)

All are antigens in the Kell Blood Group System

All are high frequency antigens.

All are destroyed when treated with a thiol-reducing agent.

Which of the following antibodies reacts best in an acidic environment

Anti-M

Which of the following blood group systems produces antibodies that do not cause hemolytic disease of the newborn

Lewis

Which of the following antibodies reacts with the same strength through all dilutions of the serum until it becomes negative

Anti-Rg

Which of the following lectins will discern group A1 cells from A2 cells

Dolichos biflorus

Upon initial typing, the cells from a person with the Bombay phenotype will appear to be which ABO type

Group O

What percent cell suspension is used when testing cells for ABO antigens

4%

The commercially prepared anti-A and anti-B are

Monoclonal antibodies

IgM antibodies

Prepared with a colored dye added

If a person has the Se gene, the A gene and the B gene, what blood group substances will be found in his body fluids

D. A, B and H blood group substance.

If both the mom and the dad are Group O, what will be the ABO type of their offspring

All of the offspring will be Group O.

If a person has only H blood group substance, what antigens will be found on his red cells

H antigens only

If a patient is blood type A, which of the following antibodies are in his serum/plasma

Anti-B

Which of the following carbohydrates are needed to produce blood type B

Fucose and Galactose

If a patient is blood type O, which of the following antigens are on his cells

H antigen only

False positive results and false negative results can be obtained by sloppy technique. Which of the following causes a false positive result

Bacterial contamination of the reagent

If a cell is positive for the antigens D, C, E, c and e, what is the most probable Rh phenotype

R1R2

If a patient has a weakly expressed D antigen, how is it detected

By the indirect antiglobulin test (IAT)

What antibodies in the Rh system can be made by a person whose Rh phenotype is R1R1

Anti-c and anti-E

Anti-LW is negative (does not react) with which of the following cells

Rhnull cells

If a person's most probable Rh phenotype is R1R1, what is that in Fisher-Race nomenclature and in Rosenfield

CDe/CDe Rh: 1, 2, -3, -4, 5

What percent of the caucasian population is negative for the D antigen

15%

If a dad is R1R2 and the mom is rr, what percent of the offspring will be positive for the D antigen

100%

Which of the following Rh typing reagents must ALWAYS be used with a control

High protein anti-D

If a cell is positive for the c and e antigens and negative for the D, C and E antigens, what is the most probable Rh phenotype

rr

A person can make an alloantibody as a result of

exposure to a foreign antigen through a blood transfusion

exposure to a foreign antigen through pregnancy

exposure to a foreign antigen in the environment

Choose the correct statement below regarding screening cells and panel cells.

Screening cells include 3 separate vials and a panel includes 8-20 vials.

Commercially prepared red blood cells for the purpose of detecting unexpected antibodies in serum/plasma are

typed for 18 common antigens

If the antibody screen is positive after the addition of AHG and the autocontrol is negative after the addition of AHG, this means that

an alloantibody is present.

The procedure used to detect and identify clinically significant antibodies is the

indirect antiglobulin test

To be sure that a tech is 95% confident when identifying an antibody, how many cells, at the very least, must be positive for the antigen and yield a positive result and how many cells must be negative for the antigen and yield a negative result

3 positive and 3 negative

What is the characteristic of a clinically significant antibody

It is IgG.

Which is a low frequency antigen

Js(a)

Which of the following antigens are destroyed by enzymes such as ficin or bromelin

Fy(a), Fy(b), S

Which of the following phenotypes is homozygous for the Fy(a) antigen

Fy(a+b-)

What is the minimal information that must be on a properly labeled tube of blood that will be used for compatibility testing

Patient's full name, unique identification number and date drawn

If a patient is receiving saline by IV, where should the phlebotomist stick the patient

Draw the blood below the IV line

Which of the following methods can be used to overcome a delay in clot formation when a patient has a prolonged clotting time

Add liquid thrombin to the tube of blood

Add dry thrombin to the tube of blood

Add glass beads to the tube of blood

Why is it important to check for previous records

To know if a clinically significant antibody was identified

Full compatibility testing consists of

ABO (cells and serum) and Rh typing of the sample and ABO cell typing of the donor

An antibody screen at 37oC and AHG on the patient's serum/plasma

A major crossmatch consisting of mixing patient's serum with donor cells

When is it permissible to do only an immediate spin crossmatch

When there is no history of a clinically significant antibody and no clinically significant antibody is detected in the current sample.

If there is no time to determine a patient's ABO and Rh type because he is profusely bleeding, what ABO/Rh type should be transfused

Group O, Rh negative

After a sample is drawn from the patient, how long can the lab continue to crossmatch from

72 hours

How long must the sample be stored following a transfusion of the patient

Seven days after the last transfusion

At what temperature should the patient's sample and the segment from the bag of blood be stored

1 to 6 degrees Celsius

We find ABO hemolytic disease most often in babies born to moms who are which ABO type

Group O