Finals Week For Pathology
Studied by 0 people
Call Kai
Learn
Practice Test
Spaced Repetition
Match
Flashcards
Knowt Play1/362
There's no tags or description
Looks like no tags are added yet.
Name | Mastery | Learn | Test | Matching | Spaced | Call with Kai |
|---|
No analytics yet
Send a link to your students to track their progress
363 Terms
What type of sequence is STIR?
A T2‑weighted sequence with fat suppression
What are the key lumbar spine MRI sequences?
Sagittal T1, Sagittal T2, Sagittal STIR, and Axial T2
What does in‑phase vs out‑of‑phase imaging evaluate?
Fat‑water cancellation based on TE differences
What is DCE used for?
Detecting subtle enhancement differences (e.g., microadenoma, hemangioma)
What is the most common MRI artifact?
Phase mismapping (motion artifact)
What appears bright on T1?
Fat, gadolinium enhancement, and methemoglobin
What are reasons to give MRI contrast?
Tumor, infection, inflammation
How long should a patient be monitored after a contrast reaction?
30 minutes
What treats mild hives from contrast?
Benadryl
What is infiltration?
Non‑vesicant fluid entering surrounding tissue
How do you treat infiltration?
Cold compress
What is an example of a non‑vesicant?
Saline
What is Contrast‑Induced Nephropathy?
Acute renal failure within 48 hours of contrast injection
What is chelation?
Binding gadolinium to make it non‑toxic
What are common contrast reaction symptoms?
Nausea, vomiting, headache, dizziness
How much contrast is excreted within 3 hours?
About 80%
What rare disease is linked to Group I gadolinium?
Nephrogenic Systemic Fibrosis (NSF)
Who is high‑risk for contrast complications?
Diabetes, age >65, renal disease/transplant
What should you do if a pregnant patient has a contrast order?
Contact the radiologist before proceeding
Who discovered x‑rays and when?
Wilhelm Roentgen, November 8, 1895
When was CT introduced?
The 1970s
What are typical MRI findings of MS?
Multiple T2/FLAIR bright lesions with neurologic symptoms
What MRI sequences are best for stroke?
DWI and ADC maps
What shape is a subdural hematoma?
Crescent‑shaped and crosses sutures
What shape is an epidural hematoma?
Lens‑shaped and does not cross sutures
What is hydrocephalus?
Enlarged ventricles due to CSF accumulation
What is a pituitary adenoma best seen with?
Dynamic contrast enhancement (DCE)
What is an acoustic neuroma?
Enhancing mass at the internal auditory canal/CPA
What is a meningioma?
Extra‑axial mass with strong enhancement and dural tail
What is a Chiari malformation?
Cerebellar tonsils extending into the foramen magnum
What is a syrinx?
Fluid‑filled cavity within the spinal cord
Where does the conus medullaris normally end?
L1
What is a vertebral hemangioma?
Corduroy/vertical striated appearance in vertebrae
What is a compression fracture?
Wedge‑shaped vertebral collapse
What is fatty liver infiltration?
Diffuse signal loss on out‑of‑phase imaging
What is a cavernous hemangioma?
Peripheral nodular enhancement with delayed fill‑in
What is choledocholithiasis?
Stone in the common bile duct
What is an AAA?
Abdominal aortic aneurysm (enlarged aortic lumen)
What is aortic dissection?
Intimal flap creating a double lumen
What is BPH?
Enlarged central prostate compressing the urethra
What is a rotator cuff tear?
Tendon discontinuity with fluid signal
What is a Hill‑Sachs defect?
Compression fracture of the humeral head
What is a labral tear?
Linear high signal at the labrum
What is AVN?
Avascular necrosis with serpiginous lines on T1/T2
What is a Baker’s cyst?
Fluid collection in the popliteal fossa
What is a herniated nucleus pulposus (HNP)?
A disc herniation compressing the spinal cord or nerve roots
What is a compression fracture?
A wedge-shaped collapse of a vertebral body
What is a thyroid goiter?
An enlarged thyroid gland in the anterior neck
What is fatty infiltration of the liver?
Diffuse signal loss on out-of-phase imaging
What is a cavernous hemangioma?
A liver lesion with peripheral nodular enhancement and delayed fill-in
What is a hepatic cyst?
A fluid-signal liver lesion with no enhancement
A stone in the common bile duct
An enlarged abdominal aortic lumen
What is aortic coarctation?
A narrowing of the aorta best seen on MRA
An intimal flap creating a double lumen
Thickened pericardium with possible pericardial effusion
Narrowing of the renal artery seen on MRA
Benign uterine tumors that are hypointense on T1 and variable on T2
Fluid-signal lesions with no enhancement
An enhancing mass in the cervix
Enlarged central prostate compressing the urethra
Retroverted, anteverted, anteflexed, mid-position
A tear of the triangular fibrocartilage complex in the wrist
Compression of the median nerve at the wrist
Micro-trabecular fracture with edema pattern
Bone infection with marrow changes and enhancement
A fracture caused by underlying disease such as tumor or osteoporosis
A fluid collection in the popliteal fossa
Linear signal extending to the articular surface on PD/T2
Ligament discontinuity with edema
Serpiginous low/high signal lines from loss of blood supply
Fat bright, fluid dark
What is the appearance of T2-weighted images?
Fluid bright, fat moderately bright
What does FLAIR do?
Suppresses fluid so pathology becomes bright
What does STIR do?
Suppresses fat and makes fluid bright
What indicates stroke on DWI/ADC?
Restricted diffusion: bright on DWI, dark on ADC
A ______ sequence is T2-weighted with fat signal suppressed.
STIR
Key sequences for lumbar spine include sagittal T1, sagittal T2, sagittal STIR, and ______ T2.
Axial
Contrast is often used for tumor, infection, or inflammation, but not usually for ______.
CVA
After a contrast reaction, a patient should be monitored for ______ minutes.
30
If a patient develops hives after contrast, the medication usually given is ______.
Benadryl
Swelling and pain at an injection site after contrast can be relieved with a ______ compress
Cold
Infiltration is when ______ fluid enters surrounding tissue.
Non-vesicant
An example of a non-vesicant fluid is ______.
Saline
Acute renal failure within 48 hours of contrast injection is called ______.
Contrast-Induced Nephropathy (CIN)
The process of binding gadolinium to make it safe in the body is called ______.
Chelation
Common mild reactions to MRI contrast include nausea, vomiting, headache, and ______.
Dizziness
About ______% of contrast is excreted within 3 hours.
80
A rare disease linked to gadolinium in patients with renal failure is ______.
Nephrogenic Systemic Fibrosis (NSF)
If a pregnant patient is ordered for contrast, the technologist should contact the ______.
Radiologist
High-risk patients for MRI contrast include those with diabetes, age over 65, or history of ______ disease
Renal
______ discovered x-ray.
Wilhelm Roentgen
X-ray was discovered on ______ (date).
November 8, 1895
CT was introduced in the ______ decade.
1970s
A 32-year-old female with headaches, fatigue, vertigo, and paresthesias may have ______.
Multiple Sclerosis
A crescent-shaped hematoma that crosses sutures is a ______ hematoma.
Subdural hematoma
A lens-shaped hematoma that does not cross sutures is a ______ hematoma.
Epidural hematoma
Blood in the sulci and CSF spaces is called a ______ hemorrhage.
Subarachnoid hemorrhage
A pituitary ______ is best imaged with DCE since the lesion and gland enhance differently
Pituitary adenoma
A mass in the internal auditory canal/CPA is most likely an ______.
Acoustic neuroma
Note 
Flashcards (145)