Reproduction Final

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Dr. Burd Cal Poły

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75 Terms

1
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What is the purpose of reproductive behavior?

  • To promote the opportunity for copulation

  • Increase the probability that the sperm and egg will meet

2
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What are the three stages of reproductive behavior in males?

  • Pre copulatory stage

  • Copulatory stage

  • Post copulatory stage

3
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What are the three stages of reproductive behavior in females?

  • Attractivity

  • Proceptivity

  • Receptivity

4
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Describe the stages in pre copulatory behavior in males

  • Search for sexual partner

  • Courtship

  • Sexual arousal

  • Erection

  • Penile protrusion

5
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Describe the stages in copulatory behavior in males

  • Mounting

  • Intromission

  • Ejaculation

6
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Describe the stages in post copulatory behavior in males

  • Dismount

  • Refractory period

  • Memory

7
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Describe attractivity behavior in females

  • What attracts males to the females

    • Includes postures, vocalizations, behaviors, chemical cues (pheromones)

8
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Describe proceptivity behavior in females

  • Behaviors from females that stimulate males to copulate

    • Examples include head butting or mounting females mouthing males

9
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Describe receptivity behavior in females

  • Copulatory behavior of females that ensures insemination

    • Examples: immobility or standing response

10
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True or false: reproductive behaviors are sexually differentiated

True

11
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How are reproductive behaviors controlled?

  • Endocrine system

12
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What are the main sensory inputs for reproductive behavior?

  • Olfaction

  • Vision

  • Audition

  • Tactility

13
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Why would we have bulls watch another bull mount and ejaculate?

  • It usually ‘pre stimulates’ bulls, reduces stimulation time, and increases sperm harvest

14
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What organ detects pheremones?

  • Vomeronasal organ

15
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What is the flehmen response?

  • A head elevation and curling of the upper lip so the male can evaluate pheromones better

  • Can sometimes be seen by females

16
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True or false: Auditory stimulation can serve as a long-range signal.

True

17
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True or false: Visual signals are valuable for long-range signals.

False → they are good for close encounters

18
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What is the last type of stimulation before copulation occurs?

  • Tactile stimulation

19
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What are the requirements for the penis to erect?

  • Elevated arterial blood inflow

  • Dilation of corporal sinusoids

  • Restricted venous outflow

  • Relaxation of the retractor penis muscle

  • Elevated intrapenile pressure

20
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Describe how the penis becomes erect

  • Erotogenic stimuli are present in nonadrenergic noncholinergic (NANC) neurons and fire releasing nitric oxide

  • Nitric oxide activated an enzyme, guanylate cyclase, which converts guanylate triphosphate (GTP) to cycle guanosine monophosphate (cGMP) and causes smooth muscle to relax

  • Cavernous sinusoids engorge with blood and intracorporal pressure increases

  • Venules are compressed which traps blood causing an erection

21
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22
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What is included in copulatory behavior?

  • Mounting

  • Intromission

  • Ejaculation

23
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What is ejaculation caused by?

  • Intromission

  • Stimulation of the glans penis

  • Forceful muscle contraction

24
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True or false: Ejaculation can’t be stopped once the process has started

True

25
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What factors influence the amount of time a refractory period lasts?

  • Degree of sexual rest prior to copulation

  • Age

  • Species

  • Degree of female novelty

  • Number of previous ejaculations

26
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What can enhance reproductive behavior?

  • Introducing novel stimulus animals

  • Changing stimulus settings

27
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How can you maximize the output of spermatozoa per ejaculate?

  • Sexual preparation

    • False mounting

    • Restraint

    • False-mounting plus restraint

28
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What should the design of an artificial vagina accomplish?

  • Provide a suitable environment for stimulation of the glans penis

  • Provide an environment that prevents damage to the penis

  • Provides an environment that maximizes sperm recovery and minimizes sperm insult

29
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Describe the sequence of events that follows deposition of sperm

  • Immediate Transport'

    • Retrograde loss (sperm falling out)

    • Phagocytosis

    • Entrance into cervix/uterus

  • Cervix

    • 'Privileged pathways’

    • Removal of non-motile sperm

    • Removal of some abnormalities

  • Uterus

    • Capacitation initiated (finale maturation of sperm)

    • Phagocytosis

  • Oviduct

    • Docking to oviductal cells

    • Capacitation completed

    • Hyperactive motility

  • Fertilization

    • Acrosome reaction

    • Spermatozoon penetrates oocyte

    • Male and female pronuclei form

30
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what causes spermatozoa to be lost in the female tract?

  • Phagocytosis by neutrophils

  • Retrograde transport

31
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What are the two phases that spermatozoa transport consists of?

  • Rapid and sustained phase

32
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What is crucial that sperm must do during the sustained phase to survive?

  • They have to ‘dock’ in the epithelium of the lower isthmus

    • signals cascade in the sperm that promotes viability

33
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True of false: the sperm swims up to the oviduct

  • False: the uterus transports it through contractions and fluids

34
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What is the name of the pit lining that allows sperm to move easier?

  • Privelaged pathway

    • Lined with sialomucin

35
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What is the name of the mucus produced at the tips of the cervical canals?

  • Sulfomucin

36
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What is spermatozoal capacitation?

The time that sperm takes to become mature in the female reproductive tract

37
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What can be used to activate sperm in the female to remove the caps that prevent them from fertilizing?

  • Calcium

38
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What type of motility occurs in the oviduct once the sperm arrive?

  • Hyperactive motility

    • Frenzied movement that is localized in a small area

39
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What is needed for the sperm to bind to the zona pellucida?

  • Zona-binding proteins on the spermatozoal membrane

40
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What is the name of the physical gap between the oocyte cytoplasm and the zona pellucida?

  • Perivitelline space

41
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What does the zona pellucida consist of?

  • Three glycoproteins

    • ZP1, ZP2, and ZP3

42
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Describe how the sperm binds to the oocyte

  • The sperm has zona-binding regions that attaches to ZP3 that causes physical attachment

  • The sperm also has acrosome reaction promoting regions that interact with ZP3 which causes sperm plasma membrane to fuse

  • Essentially more ZP3 means better binding

43
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What prevents penetration of additional spermatozoa to an egg?

  • Cortical reaction

44
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How do cortical reactions occur?

  • After membrane fusion between the oocyte and sperm, cortical granules undergo exocytosis and their contents are released into the perivitelline space

  • Known as a Zona Block

45
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What is polyspermy?

  • Fertilization of an oocyte by more than one spermatozoon which results in embryo death

46
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True or false: the closer you are to mating (ovulation) the increased pregnancy rates

True

47
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True or false: sperm must be delivered to the proper anatomical region of the female tract for successful artificial insemination

True

48
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What are the four steps that must be achieved before the embryo can attach to the uterus?

  • Development within the confines of the zona pellucida

  • Hatching of the blastocyst from the zona pellucida

  • Maternal recognition of pregnancy

  • Formation of the extraembryonic membranes

49
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What are the stages to get from ootid to blastocyst

  • Ootid → zygote → 2-celled embryo → morula → early blastocyst → hatching blastocyst → expanded blastocyst

50
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What do the outer blastomeres that line the morula become?

  • Placenta

51
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What do the inner blastomeres that line the morula become?

  • Fetus

52
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What causes zona pellucida to break for a blastocyst to leave?

  • Trophoblasts

53
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What three forces govern the hatching of the blastocyst?

  • Growth and fluid accumulation within the blastocyst

  • Production of enzymes by the trophoblastic cells

  • Contraction of the blastocyst

54
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What does the extra embryonic membranes of the reattachment embryo consist of?

  • Yolk sak

  • Chorion

  • Amnion

  • Allantois

55
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When yolk sac disappears and allantois grows what does that mean?

  • Embryo is viable

56
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What is the job of trophoblasts?

  • Secretes IFN-t which inhibits oxytocin production so PGF2a is not produced

57
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What is the job of trophoblasts IN SOWS?

  • Estradiol is the recognition of pregnancy so trophoblasts still make estrogen and PGF2a but it is moved away from endometrium and degraded

58
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What is unique about the equine pregnancy?

  • Conceptus moves around the uterus so maternal recognition is present

59
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What are the advantages of embryo transfer?

  • Circumvention of seasonal reproduction

  • Enhanced generation of offspring in monotonous species

  • Assisted reproduction for infertility in humans

  • Enhanced reproductive potential of endangered species

  • Enhanced genetic diversity across a wide geographical region

60
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What does a successful embryo transfer involve?

  • Synchronizing the cycles of donors and recipients

  • Super ovulation of the donor

  • Artificial insemination of the donor female

  • Recovery of embryos from the donor

  • Maintenance of viable embryos in vitro

  • Transfer of embryos to recipient females

61
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How is oocyte recovery from ovaries accomplished?

  • Surgically exposing the ovary and aspiring follicles

  • Non-surgically aspirating follicles utilizing ultrasonography

  • Aspirating follicles postmortem in an abattoir

62
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What are the final prepartum steps of reproduction?

  • Formation of a placenta

  • Acquisition of endocrine function of the placenta

  • Initiation of parturition

63
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What are the different types of placentas?

  • Diffuse

  • Zonary

  • Discoid

  • Cotyledonary

64
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Describe diffuse placentas

  • Uniform distribution of chorionic will that cover the surface of the chorion

  • Example: pigs and mares

65
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Describe zonary placentas

  • Band-like zone of chorionic villi

  • Example: dogs and cats

66
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Describe discoid placentas

  • Regionalized disc.

  • Maternal recognition from blood

  • Example: rodents and primates

67
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Describe cotyledonary placentas

  • Numerous, discrete button-like structures

  • Example: ruminants

68
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What type of placental layer do diffuse and cotyledonary placentas have?

Epitheliochorial → 6 layers that proteins have to travel through

69
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What type of placental layer do discoid placentas have?

Hemochorial → 3 layers that proteins have to travel through

70
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What type of placental layer do zonary placentas have?

Endotheliochorial → 5 layers that proteins have to travel through

71
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What can the hormones that the placenta discrete do?

  • Stimulate ovarian function

  • Maintain pregnancy

  • Influence fetal growth

  • Stimulate mammary function

  • Assist in parturition

72
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What are the three stages of parturition?

  • Stage 1: initiation of myocetrial contractions

  • Stage 2: Expulsion of the fetus

  • Stage 3: Expulsion of the fetal membrane

73
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What are the four major events of the puerperium?

  • Myometrial contractions and expulsion of lochia

  • Endometrial repair

  • Resumption of ovarian function

  • Elimination of bacterial contamination of the reproductive tract

74
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When do postnatal changes occur in the mammary gland?

  • Between birth and puberty

  • Between puberty and pregnancy

  • During pregnancy

  • During lactation

  • During involution

75
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What is required for milk ejection?

  • Sensory activation

  • Neural activation of the hypothalamus

  • Oxytocin release into the blood

  • Contraction of the myoepithelial cells

  • Mechanical transfer of milk from alveoli into ducts and family into the teat/nipple