Circle In Red Final

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A comprehensive set of flashcards covering key concepts in the digestive and endocrine systems.

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141 Terms

1
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What is the function of the esophagus?

Connect pharynx to stomach.

2
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What is the outer layer of the esophagus called?

Muscularis externa. The esophagus doesn’t have a serosa layer

3
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What do the mucus cells of the stomach secrete?

Alkaline mucus that protects the stomach from hydrochloric acid.

4
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What do the parietal cells of the stomach secrete?

Hydrochloric acid and intrinsic factor.

Hydrochloric acid that converts pepsinogen to pepsin, denatures proteins, and kills pathogens, and intrinsic factor that is
required for vitamin B12 absorption by the small intestine

5
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What is the role of hydrochloric acid in the stomach?

Converts pepsinogen to pepsin, denatures proteins, and kills pathogens.

6
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What do the chief cells of the stomach secrete?

Pepsinogen, which is activated by hydrochloric acid into pepsin. which is a protein digesting enzyme

7
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What do the enteroendocrine G cells of the stomach secrete?

Gastrin.

8
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What does gastrin do?

Improves gastric motility and increases secretion of hydrochloric acid by parietal cells.

9
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Which structure secretes secretin?

Duodenum.

10
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What does secretin do?

Stimulates bicarbonate secretion by pancreatic duct cells.

11
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Which structure secretes CCK?

Duodenum.

12
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What does CCK do?

Stimulates gall bladder to contract and release bile.

13
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What is the function of the greater omentum?

Provides protective cushion to the abdominal organs.

14
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List the 3 regions of the small intestines in order.

Duodenum, jejunum, and ileum.

15
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What 2 activities predominantly occur in the small intestines?

Digestion and absorption.

16
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List 3 structures within the small intestines that increase the surface area.

Folds, villi, and microvilli.

17
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Why is increased surface area necessary in the small intestines?

Increased room for absorption.

18
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What vessels are found within the villi?

Lacteals.

19
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What function do lacteals serve?

Absorb dietary fats/lipids as chyle.

20
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Describe the primary function of the large intestines.

Main function is defecation, moving waste products to the outside of the body.

21
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Where in the digestive tract does chemical digestion first take place?

Mouth.

22
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What structures produce digestive enzymes in the mouth?

Salivary glands. The main enzyme is salivary amylase,

23
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What does salivary amylase digest?

Carbohydrates.

24
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What substance do the goblet cells in the mucosa of the digestive tract secrete?

Mucus.

25
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What is the function of mucus secreted by goblet cells?

Lubrication and protection from acid.

26
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In what organ of the digestive tract does the muscularis have three layers?

Stomach.

27
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What is the orientation of the muscle fibers in the additional layer of the stomach?

Oblique.

28
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What function does the oblique muscle layer serve?

Improved churning of food in the stomach through wave-like contractions

29
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What is the important function of the cardiac and pyloric sphincters?

Ensure chyme moves in the correct direction only.

30
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What occurs if cardiac and pyloric sphincters function inadequately?

Reflux, which is when chyme moves backwards in the alimentary canal.

31
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What is the function of the gall bladder in the digestive process?

Store bile.

32
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Is there loss of function if the gall bladder is removed? Why or why not?

Not significantly; the liver still produces bile, which reaches the duodenum.

33
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What is the importance of the pancreatic acinar cells in digestion?

Secrete the digestive enzymes in the pancreatic juice.

34
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What is the function of the lymphatic tissue observed throughout the digestive tract?

Immunity – protect against pathogens.

35
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What are the 4 primary veins that send blood to the liver via the hepatic portal vein?

Superior mesenteric vein, inferior mesenteric vein, gastric vein, and splenic vein.

36
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Describe the characteristics of the blood carried to the liver in the hepatic portal vein.

Nutrient rich blood.

37
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Where are taste buds found?

Tongue.

38
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Where does nonkeratinized stratified squamous epithelium of the esophagus end?

Gastroesophageal junction.

39
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Where is smooth muscle found in the digestive system?

Throughout the digestive system.

40
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What is the function of the villi in the small intestine?

Absorption.

41
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What gives the renal medulla its striated appearance?

Straight tubules and blood vessels.

42
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What are the components and functions of the juxtaglomerular apparatus?

Juxtaglomerular cells secrete renin when blood pressure in the afferent arteriole falls. Macula densa triggers
vasoconstriction of the afferent arteriole when salt concentration is elevated to decrease GFR and triggers vasodilation of
the afferent arteriole when salt concentration is decreased to increase GFR

43
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What is the function of the calyces and pelvis of the kidneys?

Collect urine formed in the kidney.

44
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Which substances should not be filtered across the filtration membrane?

Blood cells and plasma proteins.

45
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Where does fluid go just past the filtration membrane?

Bowman’s (glomerular) capsule.

46
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What is the function of the glomerulus?

Filtration.

47
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Which vessel brings blood to the renal corpuscle?

Afferent arteriole.

48
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Which vessel takes blood away from the renal corpuscle?

Efferent arteriole.

49
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The renal artery is a branch of what?

Abdominal aorta.

50
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The renal vein will drain into what?

Inferior vena cava.

51
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What are the features of transitional epithelium?

Stratified epithelium that changes shape when the bladder is full or not.

52
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What is the unique function of transitional epithelium?

Change shape to accommodate fluctuations in urine volume.

53
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How can you differentiate between the cortex and medulla on the histology slide?

The cortex has glomeruli and the medulla does not.

54
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What is the purpose of doing a urinalysis?

To measure various chemical levels in the urine.

55
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What structure in the kidney is affected in significant proteinuria?

Glomerulus.

56
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If excess hydrogen ions are in the blood, what is expected to happen to urine pH?

Decrease.

57
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What gives urine its pale yellow color?

Urobilin, a byproduct of heme breakdown.

58
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What are two reasons for glucosuria?

Elevated blood glucose levels from diabetes; defect in glucose reabsorption.

59
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What does high specific gravity in urine indicate?

Dehydration.

60
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What are two reasons for finding excessive ketone bodies in urine?

Diabetes or starvation/low carb diet.

Diabetes because the body is unable to use glucose for fuel due to the lack of insulin, so the body uses fatty acids for fuel
which produces ketones. Starvation or very low carb diet

61
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Describe the function of the prostate gland.

Secretes an alkaline fluid containing PSA.

62
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What is the function of the seminal vesicles?

Secrete seminal fluid that composes 60% of semen.

63
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What is produced within the seminiferous tubules?

Spermatids.

64
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Where are the Leydig (interstitial) cells located?

Between the seminiferous tubules.

65
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What do the Leydig cells produce?

Testosterone.

66
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What is expelled from the follicle during ovulation?

Secondary oocyte.

67
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Where does the secondary oocyte go after ovulation?

Fimbriae to fallopian tube to uterus.

68
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Where are the Graafian/mature follicles and secondary oocyte found?

Ovaries.

69
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Where is the corpus luteum found?

Ovaries.

70
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From what structure does the corpus luteum arise?

Ruptured Graafian follicle.

71
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Name the hormones produced by follicle cells and corpus luteum.

Estrogen and progesterone.

72
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What is the function of the penile corpora?

Fill with blood to enlarge and erect the penis.

73
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Where does fertilization normally occur in the female reproductive tract?

Fallopian tube.

74
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What is the function of the vagina?

Receives sperm and serves as the birth canal.

75
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Where do meiosis events occur in the male reproductive system?

Seminiferous tubules of the testes.

76
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Where do meiosis events occur in the female reproductive system?

Ovarian follicles in the ovaries.

77
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When does meiosis occur in males?

After puberty.

78
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When does meiosis occur in females?

Before birth and monthly after puberty until menopause.

79
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What hormones from pituitary gland regulate meiosis in males and females?

FSH and LH.

80
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Define zygote.

Fertilized egg.

81
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Define 2-cell cleavage stage.

Mitotic divisions of the zygote.

82
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Define blastocyst.

Implants in the endometrium of the uterus.

83
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Define trophoblast.

Outer part of the blastocyst that becomes the placenta.

84
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Define inner cell mass.

Inner part of the blastocyst that becomes the embryo.

85
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Define oocyte.

Immature egg.

86
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Define embryo.

Structure formed about 3 weeks after fertilization containing the 3 germ layers.

87
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Define morula.

Cluster of 16 cells entering the uterus from the fallopian tube.

88
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Define fetus.

Developed from embryo at about 9 weeks after fertilization until birth.

89
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Define placenta.

Supplies oxygen and nutrients to the fetus and removes waste.

90
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Define amnion.

Transparent sac filled with amniotic fluid surrounding the fetus.

91
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Define umbilical cord.

Contains 2 arteries and 1 vein connecting fetus to placenta.

92
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Define umbilical arteries.

Carry deoxygenated blood from the fetus. (BLUE)

93
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Define umbilical vein.

Carries oxygenated blood to the fetus. (RED)

94
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List the stages of development from ovulation to implantation.

Ovulation, fertilization, zygote, cleavage stages, morula, blastocyst, implantation.

95
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From which part of the blastocyst does the embryo develop?

Inner cell mass.

96
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What develops from the trophoblast?

Placenta.

97
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Differentiate between an embryo and a fetus.

Embryo is 3-9 weeks; fetus is 9 weeks to birth with organ systems.

98
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What color are umbilical blood vessels?

Umbilical arteries are blue (deoxygenated), umbilical vein is red (oxygenated).

99
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What does the Islet of Langerhans secrete?

Insulin and glucagon.

100
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What does the thyroid gland secrete?

Thyroid hormones (T3 and T4) and calcitonin.