Savannah BIOL 2

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Last updated 1:07 AM on 5/9/23
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174 Terms

1
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Choose the term that does not belong in the following groupings.
A. Steroid Hormone
B. Protein Hormone
C. Second messenger
D. Membrane receptors
B
2
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Choose the term that does not belong in the following groupings.
A. Glucocorticoids
B. Steroids
C. Aldosterone
D. Growth Hormone
D
3
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Which group of messengers is defined as acting on cells within the same
tissue?
A. Autocrines
B. Hormones
C. Paracrines
D. Eicosanoids
A
4
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A major difference between neurotransmitters and hormones is that hormones reach their destinations via
A. Direct contact on their target cell
B. Cerebrospinal fluid
C. Ducts
D. The blood
D
5
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A major determinant of a hormone's mechanism of action is
A. Whether the hormonal molecule is hydrophobic or hydrophilic
B. its size
C. whether it is rapid acting or slow acting
D. if it activates gene activity or not
A
6
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Receptors for steroid hormones are commonly located
A. inside the target cell
B. on the plasma membrane of the target cell
C. in the blood plasma
D. in the extracellular fluid
A
7
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Interaction with a membrane-bound receptor will transduce the hormonal
message via
a. depolarization
b. direct gene activation
c. a second messenger
d. endocytosis
C
8
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Second messenger-activating hormones circulate in minute quantities
because
a. they are not important signal molecules
b. small concentration of hormone can activate many intracellular signals via
amplification
c. they are continuously released from the gland.
d. neurotransmitters also bind to hormone receptors.
B
9
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Which of the following molecules act as second messengers
A. cAMP
b. Ca2+
c. Inositol triphosphate
d. all of the above
D
10
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In order for a hormone to activate a target cell, the target cell must
possess
a. a receptor
b. a second messenger
c. the hormone
d. a chaperone
A
11
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which of these characteristics is exclusive to the endocrine system when
compared with the nervous system
a. relies on release of chemical that bind to specific receptors
b. relies primarily on negative feedback mechanisms
c. uses epinephrine and norepinephrine as chemical messengers.
d. effective in coordinating cell, tissue, and organ activities on a sustained,
long-term basis
D
12
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When the pancreas releases insulin in direct response to blood glucose,
this in an example of \_______ stimulation
a. humoral
b. neural
c. hormonal
d. negative feedback
A
13
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When an infant suckles at his mother's breast, the mother's neurohypophysis releases oxytocin. This is an example of \_________ stimulation.
a. humoral
b. neural
c. hormonal
d. negative feedback
B
14
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When the ovaries secrete estrogen in response to the hormone GnRH,
this is an example of \_________ stimulation.
a. humoral
b. neural
c. hormonal
d. negative feedback
C
15
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Choose the term that does not belong in the following groupings.
a. posterior lobe
b. hormone storage
c. nervous tissue
d. anterior lobe
C
16
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blood levels of hormones are kept within very narrow ranges by \_______
mechanisms
a. humoral
b. neural
c. hormonal
d negative feedback
D
17
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Which hormone is produced in the hypothalamus
a. ADH
b. ACTH
c. LH
d. GH
A
18
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Hormones secreted into the hypophyseal portal system are detected by
the \_________
a. posterior pituitary
b. anterior pituitary
c. median eminence
d. infundibulum
B
19
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the long bone growth-promoting effects of growth hormone are mediated
by \_______
a. somatostatin
b. somatotrophs
c. insulin-like growth factors
d. insulin
C
20
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Secretions from the corticotropes activate cells of the \_________, while
secretions from the gonadotrophs affect cells of the \__________
a. adrenal cortex; gonads
b. thyroid; mammary glands
c. gonads; adrenal cortex
d. mammary glands; gonads
A
21
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a patient is displaying high volumes of urine output and severe dehydration. the most likely cause is
a. hyposecretion of oxytocin
b. hypersecretion of oxytocin
c. hyposecretion of ADH
d. Hypersecretion of ADH
C
22
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Where is the iodide located in the thyroid gland
a. secretory vesicles inside follicular cells
b. lumen of follicle
c. Golgi apparatus of parafollicular cells
d. cytoplasm of follicular cells
D
23
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which of the following is an indirect effect of PTH
a. increasing osteoclast activity
b. increasing calcium absorption in the kidneys
c. increasing calcium reabsorption in the kidney
d. activating vitamin D
B
24
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a patient is losing weight rapidly, sweating profusely, and is always
anxious. The patient may be suffering from
a. hypothyroidism
b. cretinism
c. hyperthyroidism
d. hypersecretion of calcitonin
C
25
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Occasionally, a female patient will experience hirsutism, or excessive
facial hair growth. However, blood test reveal that her levels of testosterone
are normal for a female. Another cause could be hypersecretion of:
a. catecholamines
b. mineralocorticoids
c. glucocorticoids
d. gonadocorticoids
D
26
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\_________ is the adrenal hormone responsible for maintaining appropriate blood sodium levels
a. cortisol
b. DHEA
c. aldosterone
d. epinephrine
C
27
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Why are diabetics continuously thirsty and why do they frequently urinate
a. less water is reclaimed by osmosis in the kidneys
b. water loss reduces blood volume, promoting secretion of ADH
c. glucose is lost in the urine, which increases blood volume
d. A and B are correct.
D
28
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In what ways are hormonal effects of E and NE from the adrenal medulla
similar to the effects of glucocorticoids from the zona fasciculata
a. Hormones from both are under the ultimate control of the sympathetic
nervous system
b. both increase cardiac activity and blood pressure
c. both are stimulated by angiotensin II
d. both increase blood glucose levels and promote the breakdown of stored
fats into fatty acids.
D
29
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Which of the following is not an action of glucagon
a. release of glucose to the blood by liver cells
b. transport of glucose into most body cells
c. synthesis of glucose from lactic acid
d. breakdown of glycogen
B
30
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the secretion of \_________ helps regulate our circadian rhythms
a. estrogen
b. testosterone
c. thyroid hormone
d. melatonin
D
31
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Which of the following structures produce a precursors to hormonal
vitamin D, important for Ca2+ regulation
a. stomach
b. heart
c. kidney
d. skin
D
32
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after centrifuging, which of the listed blood components contains the
components of immune function
a. plasma
b. buffy coat
c. erythrocytes
d. hematocrit
B
33
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the major function of the most common plasma protein, albumin, is
a. maintenance of plasma osmotic pressure
b. buffering changes in plasma pH
c. fighting foreign invaders
d. both a and b
D
34
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Red blood cells are efficient oxygen transport cells. Of the following characteristics, which is the major contributor to the significant oxygen-carrying
capacity of the red blood cell?
a. red blood cells lack mitochondria
b. red blood cells don't divide
c. Red blood cells are biconcave discs
d. red blood cells contain myoglobin
C
35
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Each hemoglobin can transport \________ oxygen atoms
a. 4
b. 40
c. 400
d. 4000
A
36
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oxygen binds to the \_________ portion of hemoglobin
a. globin
b. oxyhemoglobin
c. iron atom
d. amino acid
C
37
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a patient with low iron levels would experience which of the following
symptoms
a. an increased white blood cell count
b. an increase in energy level
c. an increase in fatigue
d. a decreased white blood cell count
C
38
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a hematopoietic stem cell will give rise to
a. erythrocytes
b. leukocytes
c. platelets
d. all of the above
D
39
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predict the outcome of an overdose of the hormone erythropoietin
a. the blood viscosity increases to levels that may induce heart attacks or
strokes
b. the oxygen-carrying capacity remains unchanged despite elevated red
blood cell counts.
c. red blood cell counts remain unchanged, but the number of reticulocytes
increases
d. blood viscosity levels decrease while oxygen-carrying capacity increases
A
40
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What response would you expect after traveling to high altitude for 2
weeks
a. blood levels of oxygen would remain depressed for the duration
b. a surge in iron release from the liver would occur
c. the kidneys would secrete elevated amounts of erythropoietin.
d. there would be no change in blood composition
C
41
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If a patient has pernicious anemia, the inability of the body to absorb
vitamin B12, the patient
a. would have reduced blood iron levels
b. would have a decreased number of red blood cells
c. would have increased level of hemoglobin
d. would not experience any effects on red blood cells.
B
42
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an elevated neutrophil count would be indicative of
a. an allergic reaction
b. a cancer
c. an acute bacterial infection
d. a parasitic infection
C
43
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Antihistamines counter the actions of which white blood cells
a. neutrophils
b. lymphocytes
c. basophils
d. eosinophils
C
44
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Leukemia is a general descriptor for which of the following disorders
a. an abnormally low white blood cell count
b. overproduction of abnormal leukocytes
c. elevated counts of normal neutrophils
d. overproduction of abnormal erythrocytes.
B
45
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A \___________ is the progenitor of platelets
a. thrombopoietin
b. thrombocyte
c. megakaryocyte
d. thrombocytoblast
C
46
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Why don't platelets form plugs in undamaged vessels
a. platelets aren't formed until vessel damage occurs
b. only contact of platelets with exposed collagen fibers and von Willebrand
factor causes them to be sticky and form plugs
c. plugs do form, but are removed by macrophages
d. platelets don't form plugs; it is the megakaryocytes that from the plugs
B
47
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Activation of the extrinsic pathway of coagulation requires exposure of
the blood to \_____
a. collagen
b. tissue factor III
c. prothrombin activator
d. serotonin
B
48
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Why doesn't a clot fill the entire vasculature system once it has started
forming?
a. rapid blood flow washes away and dilutes activated clotting factors
b. thrombin is inactivated by antithrombin III if it enters the general circulation
c. both a and b occur
d. neither a nor b occurs
C
49
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An injectable heparin medication might be prescribed for a patient who
a. is at risk for embolism
b. has thrombocytopenia
c. is a hemophiliac
d. has a deficiency in a clotting factor
A
50
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Which agglutinins are naturally present in someone who is B+?
a. Anti-a
b. Anti-b
c. Anti-a + Anti-Rh
d. Anti-b + Anti-Rh
A
51
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what is the double-walled sac covering the heart termed
a. pericardium
b. myocardium
c. epicardium
d. endocardium
A
52
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Of the following layers of the heart wall, which consumes the most energy
a. epicardium
b. myocardium
c. endocardium
d. visceral pericardium
B
53
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Which of the following structures is an exception to the general principle
surrounding blood vessel oxygenation levels
a. Pulmonary artery
b. aorta
c. pulmonary veins
d. both a and c
D
54
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Which of the following statements is true?
a. all arteries transport oxygen-rich blood
b. the right side of the heart is the system circuit pump
c. equal volumes of blood are pumped to the pulmonary and systemic
circuits at any moment
d. the left side of the heart pumps blood to the lungs
C
55
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The presence of intercalated discs between adjacent cardiac muscle cells
causes the heart to behave as a \_____
a. single chamber
b. contractile myofibril
c. desmosome
d. function syncytium
D
56
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Cardiac muscle cells have several similarities with skeletal muscle cells.
Which of the following is not a similarity
a. the cells are each innervated by a nerve ending
b. the cells store calcium ions in the sarcoplasmic reticulum
c. the cells contain sarcomeres
d. the cells become depolarized when sodium ions enter the cytoplasm
A
57
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The plateau portion of the action potential in contractile cardiac muscle
cells is due to:
a. an increased potassium permeability
b. an influx of calcium ions
c. an influx of sodium ions
d. exit of calcium ions from the sarcoplasmic reticulum
B
58
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The stimulus for the heart's rhythmic contractions comes from
a. intercalated discs
b. acetylcholine
c. a neuromuscular junction
d. a pacemaker potential
D
59
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In a normal heat, which of the following structures is responsible for
setting the heart's pace
a. sinoatrial node
b. atrioventricular node
c. atrioventricular bundle
d. Purkinje bundle
A
60
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Predict the nature of an ECG recording when the atrioventricular node
becomes the pacemaker
a. there would continue to be a normal sinus rhythm
b. the P wave would be much larger than normal
c. the rhythm would be slower
d. the T wave would be much smaller than normal
C
61
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Which heart abnormality has no P waves on an otherwise normal ECG?
a. second-degree heart block
b. ventricular fibrillation
c. aortic fibrillation
d. junctional rhythm
D
62
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A heart murmur would be detected when blood is heard flowing from the
\____ to the \____ through the \____.
a. right atrium; right ventricle; tricuspid valve
b. right atrium; left atrium; tricuspid valve
c. left ventricle; left atrium; mitral valve
d. left atrium; left ventricle; mitral valve
C
63
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The "lub-dup" heart sounds are produced by
a. the walls of the atria and ventricles slapping together during a contraction
b. the blood hitting the walls of the ventricles and arteries, respectively
c. the closing of the atrioventricular valves ("lub") and the closing of the
semilunar valves ("dup")
d. the closing of the semilunar valves ("lub") and the closing of the atrioventricular valves ("dup")
C
64
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Atrial systole occurs \___________ the firing of the sinoatrial node
a. before
b. after
c. simultaneously with
d. alternately with
B
65
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The majority (80%) of ventricular filling occurs
a. during the late ventricular diastole
b. passively through blood flow alone
c. with atrial systole
d. both a and b
D
66
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Cardiac output is determined by
a. heart rate
b. stroke volume
c. cardiac reserve
d. both a and b
D
67
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Predict what would happen to the end-systolic volume (ESV) if contraction force were to increase.
a. it would decrease
b. it would increase
c. it would remain constant
d. ESV is not affected by contraction force
A
68
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Your heart seems to "pound" after you hear a sudden, loud noise. This
increased contractility is:
a. because vagal nerve impulses arrive faster at the heart
b. because when a gasp of surprise is emitted, the Frank-Starling law of the
heart is evident
c. due to norepinephrine causing threshold to be reached more quickly
d. because acetylcholine release is inhibited.
C
69
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What is the nature of acetylcholine's inhibitory effect on heart rate
a. Acetylcholine induces depolarization in the sinoatrial node
b. acetylcholine causes the closing of sodium channels in the sinoatrial
node
c. acetylcholine causes the opening of fast calcium channels in contractile
cells
d. acetylcholine causes the opening of potassium channels in the sinoatrial
node, thereby hyperpolarizing it.
D
70
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Of the following blood vessel components, which is the most critical in
regulating systemic blood pressure?
a. tunica intima
b. tunica media
c. tunica externa
d. venous valves
B
71
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An increasing lumen diameter is termed \__________, and occurs when
smooth muscle \__________.
a. vasodilation, relaxes
b. vasodilation, contracts
c. vasoconstriction, relaxes
d. vasoconstriction, contracts
A
72
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Of the following vessel types, which conduct blood toward the heart,
regardless of oxygen content?
a. arteries
b. arterioles
c. capillaries
d. veins
D
73
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Of the following vessel types, which are responsible for the exchange of
gases and nutrients with tissues?
a. arteries
b. arterioles
c. capillaries
d. veins
C
74
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Of the following cardiovascular components, which contains the majority
of the body's blood volume at any one time?
a. pulmonary capillaries
b. heart
c. systemic veins and venules
d. systemic capillaries
C
75
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Some of the least permeable capillaries are found in the \____, while some
of the most permeable capillaries are found in the \_____.
a. kidney; brain
b. intestine; muscles
c. bone marrow; brain
d. brain; bone marrow
D
76
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Predict the change in peripheral resistance as blood vessel diameter
increases.
a. peripheral resistance decreases
b. peripheral resistance increases
c. peripheral resistance remains unchanged
d. peripheral resistance is constant in humans
A
77
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Pulse pressure disappears by the time blood reaches capillary beds
because
a. the elastic arteries are too stretchy
b. veins are too thin to accommodate the pulse pressure
c. diastole last longer than systole
d. the muscular arterioles do not exhibit elastic rebound.
D
78
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What effect does prolonged standing in one position have on blood flow
a. it causes blood pooling and a slowing of blood flow
b. it causes a compensatory increase in arterial pressure.
c. it causes a sharp decrease in heart rate
d. it causes a sharp decrease in respiratory rate.
A
79
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What is the major factor controlling stroke volume during resting periods
a. sympathetic input
b. parasympathetic input
c. venous return to the heart
d. peripheral resistance changes
C
80
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What is the major factor controlling stroke volume during resting periods
a. sympathetic input
b. parasympathetic input
c. venous return to the heart
d. peripheral resistance changes
C
81
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predict what might happen to peripheral resistance in arterioles supplying skeletal muscle when pH levels drop
a. vasoconstriction in vessels supplying skeletal muscle
b. vasodilation in vessels supplying digestive viscera
c. vasodilation in vessels supplying skeletal muscles
d. no change in the skeletal muscle vessels
C
82
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Baroreceptors detect changes in
a. blood O2 levels
b. stretch in arterial walls
c. blood CO2 levels
d. blood H+ levels
B
83
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The primary mechanism driving filtration in capillary beds is \_____.
a. diffusion
b. capillary osmotic pressure
c. hydrostatic pressure of the interstitial fluid
d. hydrostatic pressure within the capillaries
D
84
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Capillary colloid osmotic pressure created by \____ tends to \______.
a. blood volume; push fluids out of the capillary
b. nondiffusible plasma proteins; draw fluids into the capillary
c. interstitial fluid; draw fluids out of the capillary
d. proteins in the interstitial fluid; push fluids into the interstitial fluid
B
85
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Which of the following would cause vascular shock
a. anaphylaxis
b. vomiting
c. extensive burns
d. acute hemorrhage
A
86
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which of the following act as the first line of defense against foreign
pathogens
a. skin
b. synovial membranes
c. mucous membranes
d. both a and c
D
87
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Which of the following is not a mechanical barrier to pathogen invasion
a. mucus
b. tears
c. saliva
d. interferon
D
88
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Macrophages are derived from
a. megakaryocytes
b. monocytes
c. T lymphocytes
d. plasma cells
B
89
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The basic mechanism employed by complement to fight bacterial infections is
a. antibody production
b. fever elevation
c. bacterial cell membrane lysis
d. antiviral protein synthesis
C
90
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The process of attaching complements proteins to the bacterial cell wall
to enhance phagocytosis is called
a. optimization
b. MAC attachment
c. complement activation
d. opsonization
D
91
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What would be the body's response if the hypothalamus detected pyrogens
a. an increase in body temperature set point
b. mobilization of lymphocytes from the bone marrow
c. increased sweating to lower body temperature
d. complement inhibition
A
92
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The presence of \____ proteins makes it possible for our immune system
to differentiate between our cells and those that are foreign.
a. antigenic determinant
b. MHC
c. hapten
d. antibody
B
93
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The adaptive immune system involves three major cell types
antigen-presenting cells, T cells, which constitute \___________ immunity, and
B cells, which govern \_________ immunity
a. nonspecific, specific
b. antigenic; allergic
c. MHC; MAC
d. cell-mediated; humoral
94
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\____________ become antigenic if the attach themselves to larger proteins
a. haptens
b. antigenic determinants
c. pyrogens
d. MHC proteins
A
95
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Lymphocytes are educated within the primary lymphoid organs. B cells
are educated in the \__________ while T cells are educated in the \___________
a. bone marrow; thymus
b. thymus; bone marrow
c. bone marrow; bone marrow
d. thymus; thymus
A
96
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The basis of immunity is the presence of \_________ cells
a. plasma
b. memory
c. clonal
d. humoral
B
97
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A patient has been immunized against chicken pox. what type of immunity is this
a. naturally acquired passive
b. artificially acquired passive
c. naturally acquired active
d. artificially acquired active
D
98
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Of the following classes of antibodies, which can cross the placenta?
a. IgG
b. IgA
c. IgM
d. IgD
A
99
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Which of the following best describes and antibody's mode of action
a. antibodies punch holes in bacterial cell membranes
b. antibodies immobilize and mark them for destruction.
c. antibodies bind to antigens and transport them to the liver for excretion
d. antibodies secrete antiviral proteins
B
100
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During clonal selection of B cells, those B cells with complementary
membrane receptors to the invading antigen will differentiate into \_____
cells.
a. humoral
b. clonal
c. plasma
d. T cells
C

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