SLHS-340 Exam #3

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What are otoacoustic emissions? pre or post-neural?

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1

What are otoacoustic emissions? pre or post-neural?

pre-neural potentials generated by the cochlea that can be recorded by the ear canal

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2

What do otoacoustic emissions measure? A. inner hair cell function B. outer hair cell function C. basilar membrane function

B. outer hair cell function OAE's occur in a healthy cochlea

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3

T/F: Normal OAE's = Normal Hearing

FALSE: Normal OAE's do not equal normal hearing *OAE's are not a hearing test

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4

what does the microphone within the probe that records OAE's do? what happens with the data collected?

the microphone within the probe records the low level OAE's and sends them to a computer for SIGNAL AVERAGING

*signal averaging: takes measurements across frequencies

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5

Describe DPOE's

Distortion Product Otoacoustic Emissions elicited by two pure tone frequencies, F1 and F2

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6

What is the relationship between f2 and f1 in DPOAE's? what is the formula for the largest DPOAE?

f2 > f1 f2 + f1 create an interaction within the cochlea producing a 3rd tone

Largest DPOAE: 2f1-f2 = _____ Hz

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7

At which frequencies do we test DPOAE's? A. 1000-1800 Hz B. 250-2000 Hz C. 100-4000 Hz

A. 1000-1800 Hz

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8

Why don't we test DPOAE's below 1000 Hz? What does this look like on the DPOAE graph?

we don't test frequencies below 1000 Hz because we can not eliminate biological background noise (i.e. breathing), BUT we can compensate by shifting frequencies up higher

this creates a NOISE FLOOR on the DPOAE graph

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9

When are DPOAE's absent? A. absent in individuals with sensorineural HL > 55 dB HL B. absent in individuals with conductive HL C. absent in individuals with pure neural/retrocochlear hearing loss D. both A & B

D. both A & B

A. absent in individuals with sensorineural HL > 55 dB HL B. absent in individuals with conductive HL

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10

Where are DPOAE's present? A. in individuals with sensorineural HL > 55 dB HL B. individuals with conductive HL C. in individuals with pure neural/retrocochlear hearing loss

C. in individuals with pure neural/retrocochlear hearing loss

want to always check middle ear function BEFORE DPOAE's *absent OAE's are reflected when there is a middle ear problem

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11

Describe TEOAE's

elicited by a click stimulus (multi-frequency) with acoustic energy between 2000-5000 Hz

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12

when do TEOAE's occur relative to the stimulus level? how long do they last? A. occur 10 msec after the stimulus and last 10 msec B. occur 4 msec after the stimulus and last about 10 msec C. occur 4 msec after the stimulus and last 4 msec

B. occur 4 msec after the stimulus and last about 10 msec

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13

when are TEOAE's absent? A. in individuals with sensorineural HL >30 dB HL B. in individuals with conductive hearing loss C. in individuals with pure neural/retrocochlear HL D.. Both A & B

D.. Both A & B

A. in individuals with sensorineural HL >30 dB HL B. in individuals with conductive hearing loss

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14

when are TEOAE's present? A. in individuals with sensorineural HL >30 dB HL B. in individuals with conductive hearing loss C. in individuals with pure neural/retrocochlear HL

C. in individuals with pure neural/retrocochlear HL

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15

T/F: OAE's tell you the degree of hearing loss

FALSE

OAE's do not tell you the degree of hearing loss, only measure outer hair cell function

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16

what are some of the clinical operations of OAE's?

  1. newborn hearing screening

  2. pediatric assessment

  3. functional hearing loss

  4. monitor outer hair cell function after ototoxic medications (i.e. chemo)

  5. intraoperative monitoring

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17

what do auditory evoked potentials measure? A. degree of hearing loss B. auditory neural function using various time windows C. otoacoustic emissions

B. auditory neural function using various time windows

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18

what is latency?

how long it takes you to understanding something (short, medium, and long latency)

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19

what are ABR's? where are they generated?

auditory brainstem responses auditory neural activity generated within the 8th nerve and the brainstem pathway in response to a sound

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20

what do ABR's allow us to check the integrity of? A. OHC's B. IHC's C. the basilar membrane

B. IHC's

*not a hearing test

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21

what does ABRs being "time locked" to a stimulus mean?

neurons within a structure are firing together in tune with a stimulus, which creates a clean ABR wave

each wave originates from a single anatomic site

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22

what are the ABR generator sites IN ORDER?

  1. 8th nerve as it exits the cochlea

  2. proximal portion of the 8th wave (toward the top)

  3. lateral side of the cochlear nucleus, mostly the ventral cochlear nucleus

  4. superior olivary complex

  5. lateral lemincus and inferior colliculus

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23

ABR's demonstrate... A. degree of hearing loss B. neural function up to the level of the brainstem C. cochlear function

B. neural function up to the level of the brainstem

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24

what kinds of stimuli are used for ABRs? A. clicks (TEOAE's) B. tone pips C. DPOAE's D. both A & B

D. both A & B

A. clicks (TEOAE's) B. tone pips

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25

what is the spread of excitation? how do we avoid spread of excitation when administering ABR's?

spread of excitation = unwanted BM response

solution = masking *risk spread of excitation when you use tone pips for ABRs

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26

T/F: the amplitude of an ABR is measured between the positive peak and later negative trough and it demonstrates how many neurons are firing

TRUE

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27

what is the difference between interpeak latency responses and absolute latency responses?

absolute: from the onset of the stimulus to the peak of the wave

interpeak: absolute latency between two peaks

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28

how do you calculate the threshold for ABR measures?

reduce the presentation level until a measurable wave V (lateral lemniscus and inferior colliculus) is ABSENT

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29

what are MLR's? when do they occur? A. mild little responses, they never occur B. mild latency responses, 50-250 msec after stimulus presentation C. middle latency response, occur 10 to 15 msec after the stimulus presentation

C. middle latency response, occur 10 to 15 msec after the stimulus presentation

*represent neural activity from thalamus and part of the auditory cortex

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30

what are LLR's? when do they occur? A. long latency responses, 50 to 250 msec after stimulus presentation B. late latency responses, occur 10 to 15 msec after stimulus presentation C. lame latency responses, never occur

A. long latency responses, 50 to 250 msec after stimulus presentation

*only determines processing in the cochleaT/F

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31

T/F: ABR's will not be affected with conductive hearing loss

FALSE

with conductive HL, all waves will be prolonged, but the interpeak latencies will remain normal

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32

T/F: with cochlear hearing loss, ABRs will exhibit a decrease in waveform morphology and prolonged waves at lower presentation levels, but normal range at higher presentation levels

TRUE

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33

describe the pattern of ABR's with retrocochlear hearing loss A. prolongation of all waves B. loss of waveform morphology C. delay that resembles conductive HL, only wave V prolongation, absent waves, or prolonged interpeak latencies

C. delay that resembles conductive HL, only wave V prolongation, absent waves, or prolonged interpeak latencies

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34

describe microtia

outer ear pathology malformed or smaller pinna (smaller ECV)

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35

what does ONLY microtia present as on an otoscopy/tympanogram?

if ONLY microtia, the otoscopy and tympanogram will present as normal (use pediatric inserts)

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36

describe microtia with atresia (complete)

no ear canal opening conductive hearing loss, "built in ear plug"

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37

what are the symptoms of microtia with atresia?

issues with localization will present as a clear air-bone gap

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38

T/F: you can perform otoscopy and tympanometry on microtia with atresia

FALSE can't perform otoscopy or tymponometry

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39

microtia, atresia, & anotia: describe grade I, grade II, and grade III, and anotia

Grade I: normal, only missing ear lobe Grade II: very small opening, will likely occur as a conductive HL Grade III: still have an outer ear, but very minimal ANOTIA: absence or closure of the ear canal

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40

describe anotia

outer ear pathology absent pinna (NO pinna)

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41

what are the management strategies for anotia?

usually fixed surgically (reconstruction, prosthetic ears)

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42

describe atresia

outer ear pathology absence or closure of the ear canal

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43

what are the management strategies for atresia?

surgery is a possibility bone-anchored hearing aids, depending on the condition of the cochlea

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44

describe external otitis

outer ear pathology inflammation of the external canal caused by virus, fungus, and most likely bacteria

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45

what are the symptoms of external otitis?

red external auditory canal itching in the ear canal or pinna SMELLS BAD

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46

what are the management strategies for external otitis?

topical antibiotics clean and flush the ear canal regularly

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47

describe excessive cerumen

more prevalent in older adults build up needs to be significant before hearing becomes affected

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48

what is the difference between excessive vs. impacted cerumen?

separated by tympanometry

excessive: will have a normal tympanogram, so the tymp can move normally impacted: pressure can't go around wax to move the middle ear

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49

is there hearing loss associated with excessive cerumen?

yes, likely conductive

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50

what are the management strategies for excessive cerumen?

remove the cerumen via ear drops, irrigation, or by an ENT

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51

what are the symptoms for a foreign object?

outer ear pathology likely pain

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52

T/F: otoscopy reveals the problem for a foreign object

TRUE

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53

will there be hearing loss with a foreign object in the ear?

likely no hearing loss unless the object is COMPLETELY blocking the ear canal

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54

describe stenosis

narrowing of the ear canal

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55

who does stenosis impact? A. older adults B. children C. individuals with down syndrome

C. individuals with down syndrome

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56

is there hearing loss associated with stenosis?

no hearing loss associated *less wax is needed in stenosis for the E.C. to become impacted

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57

who does a collapsing ear canal impact the most? A. children B. older adults C. middle aged adults

B. older adults

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58

T/F: a collapsing ear canal can only be unilateral

FALSE a collapsing ear canal can be unilateral or bilateral

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59

describe exostosis

outer ear pathology bony growths in the external auditory canal

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60

who is likely to exhibit exostosis? A. cold water swimmers B. older adults C. young children

A. cold water swimmers

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61

is there hearing loss associated with exostosis?

no hearing loss unless occlusion

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62

what are the symptoms of a tympanic membrane perforation?

middle ear infection painful, eustachian tube swelling

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63

how does a tympanic membrane perforation usually develop?

aggressive Q-tip use flying with a bad cold acoustic trauma (blast injuries, barometric pressure changes)

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64

can otoscopy reveal a tympanic membrane perforation? what will the tympanograms resemble?

otoscopy may reveal proferation flat, high ear canal volume with absent acoustic reflexes (repeat proferations = scar tissue)

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65

is there ALWAYS hearing loss associated with a TM perforation?

may or may not have hearing loss

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66

what are the treatment options for TM proferations?

usually heal by themselves, but repeat perforations can weaken the TM's ability to heal

surgery may be necessary myringoplasty - graft used to close perforation; tympanoplasty- surgical reconstruction of ME system

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67

describe tympanosclerosis

middle ear pathology white plaque in the tympanic membrane, stiffens the TM

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68

is there hearing loss associated with tympanosclerosis?

often no hearing loss, but enough plaque can lead to mild HL

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69

describe otitis media/middle ear infection

middle ear pathology inflammation or infection of the middle ear *caused by eustachian tube dysfunction

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70

which of the following describes serious otitis media... A. thin liquid free of bacteria (watery) B. thick liquid free of bacteria C. fluid that contains cellular debris or bacteria

serious otitis media = A. thin liquid free of bacteria (watery)

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71

which of the following describes secretory otitis media... A. thin liquid free of bacteria (watery) B. thick liquid free of bacteria C. fluid that contains cellular debris or bacteria

secretory otitis media = B. thick liquid free of bacteria

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72

which of the following describes purulent or suppurative otitis media... A. thin liquid free of bacteria (watery) B. thick liquid free of bacteria C. fluid that contains cellular debris or bacteria

suppurative otitis media = C. fluid that contains cellular debris or bacteria

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73

which group is otitis media more prevalent? A. children within the first two years of age B. middle aged adults B. older adults

A. children within the first two years of age *language delays *75%-95% of children will have at least one episode by 6 years of age

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74

T/F: girls are at more of a risk for otitis media than boys

FALSE boys are at more of a risk for otitis media than girls

*overall, children in more germy environments are at a higher risk for otitis media

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75

T/F: children who are bottle fed are more likely to develop otitis media than children who are breastfed

TRUE, the eustachian tube is impacted with bottle feeding

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76

what does the tympanogram appear as in otitis media?

flat tympanogram with absent reflexes TM retracts w/stuffed up nose air bubbles

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77

what does the otoscopy reveal in otitis media?

vascularization of the TM (blood) fluid behind the TM bulging TM, discharge

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78

is there hearing loss associated with otitis media?

may or may not have hearing loss related to the volume of liquid in the middle ear space

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79

what are the treatment options for otitis media?

antibiotics P.E. tubes if it is a chronic condition tonsillectomy or adenoidectomy to prevent swelling that leads to PE tube blockage

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80

how can otitis media affect language development?

miss critical language development milestones auditory deprivation

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81

describe otosclosis

middle ear pathology growth of spongy bone that grows along the ossicular chain and the stapes footplate

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82

what happens to the stapes footplate during otosclerosis?

the stapes footplate becomes immobilized at the oval window

ankylosis: stapes footplate becomes fixed

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83

who is the most susceptible to otosclerosis? A. children B. pregnant women C. older men

B. pregnant women

*cause is unknown

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84

T/F: otosclerosis is usually unilateral

FALSE: otosclerosis is bilateral 90% of the time

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85

what kind of hearing loss does otosclerosis result in?

bilateral, conductive, progressive hearing loss

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86

what is the cohort notch with otosclerosis?

worsening of bone conduction thresholds by 10-15 dB at 2000 Hz

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87

what does the tympanogram look like for otosclerosis?

shallow or flat tympanograms (immobilization of stapes) absent reflexes

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88

what are the treatment options for otosclerosis?

Surgical treatment: -Stapes mobilization: loosening of stapes with chisel-like instrument -Stapedectomy: replacement of all of part of stapes with prosthesis

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89

what are the causes of an ossicular chain discontinuity?

middle ear pathology

can occur with... -a proferation (blast injury) -chronic otitis media can wear down the bone -otosclerosis can "eat way" through -acoustic trauma

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90

T/F: ossicular chain discontinuity is usually sudden/noticeable

TRUE ex: dislocations of the incudostapedial joint

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91

is there a hearing loss associated with ossicular chain discontinuity?

YES large, flat conductive HL

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92

what does the tympanogram look like for ossicular chain discontinuity?

high peak immitence (bone can be extremely pushed in) absent reflexes on affected side

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93

describe cholesteatoma

middle ear pathology a cyst filled with keratin fills the middle ear

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94

T/F: cholesteatoma occurs as a result of chronic otitis media

TRUE

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95

describe the tympanograms for cholesteatoma (hint: initial vs. eroded)

initial: type As (stiffness of the middle ear) erosion: type Ad, middle ear bones break

absent reflexes on the affected side vascularization (blood) occurs as a protective mechanism

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96

what type of hearing loss is associated with cholesteatoma? A. sudden conductive B. progressive conductive HL C. sensorineural HL

B. progressive conductive HL

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97

what are the treatment options for cholesteatoma?

removal of cyst *still can grow back

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98

describe Meniere's Disease

inner ear pathology pressure equalization problems with the cochlea and the semicircular canals (endolymphatic hydrops)

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99

which of the following are impacts of Meniere's disease? A. impact on hearing + nerves B. will have episode of vertigo C. the organ of corti and the semicircular canals collapse on themselves D. all of the above

D. all of the above

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100

T/F: Meniere's disease is usually unilateral

FALSE

Meniere's disease is usually bilateral

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