SLHS-340 Exam #3

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1
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What are otoacoustic emissions? pre or post-neural?
pre-neural potentials generated by the cochlea that can be recorded by the ear canal
2
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What do otoacoustic emissions measure?
A. inner hair cell function
B. outer hair cell function
C. basilar membrane function
B. outer hair cell function
OAE's occur in a healthy cochlea
3
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T/F: Normal OAE's \= Normal Hearing
FALSE: Normal OAE's do not equal normal hearing
*OAE's are not a hearing test
4
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what does the microphone within the probe that records OAE's do?
what happens with the data collected?
the microphone within the probe records the low level OAE's and sends them to a computer for SIGNAL AVERAGING

*signal averaging: takes measurements across frequencies
5
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Describe DPOE's
Distortion Product Otoacoustic Emissions
elicited by two pure tone frequencies, F1 and F2
6
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What is the relationship between f2 and f1 in DPOAE's? what is the formula for the largest DPOAE?
f2 \> f1
f2 + f1 create an interaction within the cochlea producing a 3rd tone

Largest DPOAE: 2f1-f2 \= \_____ Hz
7
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At which frequencies do we test DPOAE's?
A. 1000-1800 Hz
B. 250-2000 Hz
C. 100-4000 Hz
A. 1000-1800 Hz
8
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Why don't we test DPOAE's below 1000 Hz? What does this look like on the DPOAE graph?
we don't test frequencies below 1000 Hz because we can not eliminate biological background noise (i.e. breathing), BUT we can compensate by shifting frequencies up higher

this creates a NOISE FLOOR on the DPOAE graph
9
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When are DPOAE's absent?
A. absent in individuals with sensorineural HL \> 55 dB HL
B. absent in individuals with conductive HL
C. absent in individuals with pure neural/retrocochlear hearing loss
D. both A & B
D. both A & B

A. absent in individuals with sensorineural HL \> 55 dB HL
B. absent in individuals with conductive HL
10
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Where are DPOAE's present?
A. in individuals with sensorineural HL \> 55 dB HL
B. individuals with conductive HL
C. in individuals with pure neural/retrocochlear hearing loss
C. in individuals with pure neural/retrocochlear hearing loss

want to always check middle ear function BEFORE DPOAE's
*absent OAE's are reflected when there is a middle ear problem
11
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Describe TEOAE's
elicited by a click stimulus (multi-frequency) with acoustic energy between 2000-5000 Hz
12
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when do TEOAE's occur relative to the stimulus level? how long do they last?
A. occur 10 msec after the stimulus and last 10 msec
B. occur 4 msec after the stimulus and last about 10 msec
C. occur 4 msec after the stimulus and last 4 msec
B. occur 4 msec after the stimulus and last about 10 msec
13
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when are TEOAE's absent?
A. in individuals with sensorineural HL \>30 dB HL
B. in individuals with conductive hearing loss
C. in individuals with pure neural/retrocochlear HL
D.. Both A & B
D.. Both A & B

A. in individuals with sensorineural HL \>30 dB HL
B. in individuals with conductive hearing loss
14
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when are TEOAE's present?
A. in individuals with sensorineural HL \>30 dB HL
B. in individuals with conductive hearing loss
C. in individuals with pure neural/retrocochlear HL
C. in individuals with pure neural/retrocochlear HL
15
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T/F: OAE's tell you the degree of hearing loss
FALSE

OAE's do not tell you the degree of hearing loss, only measure outer hair cell function
16
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what are some of the clinical operations of OAE's?
1. newborn hearing screening
2. pediatric assessment
3. functional hearing loss
4. monitor outer hair cell function after ototoxic medications (i.e. chemo)
5. intraoperative monitoring
17
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what do auditory evoked potentials measure?
A. degree of hearing loss
B. auditory neural function using various time windows
C. otoacoustic emissions
B. auditory neural function using various time windows
18
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what is latency?
how long it takes you to understanding something (short, medium, and long latency)
19
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what are ABR's? where are they generated?
auditory brainstem responses
auditory neural activity generated within the 8th nerve and the brainstem pathway in response to a sound
20
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what do ABR's allow us to check the integrity of?
A. OHC's
B. IHC's
C. the basilar membrane
B. IHC's

*not a hearing test
21
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what does ABRs being "time locked" to a stimulus mean?
neurons within a structure are firing together in tune with a stimulus, which creates a clean ABR wave

each wave originates from a single anatomic site
22
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what are the ABR generator sites IN ORDER?
1. 8th nerve as it exits the cochlea
2. proximal portion of the 8th wave (toward the top)
3. lateral side of the cochlear nucleus, mostly the ventral cochlear nucleus
4. superior olivary complex
5. lateral lemincus and inferior colliculus
23
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ABR's demonstrate...
A. degree of hearing loss
B. neural function up to the level of the brainstem
C. cochlear function
B. neural function up to the level of the brainstem
24
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what kinds of stimuli are used for ABRs?
A. clicks (TEOAE's)
B. tone pips
C. DPOAE's
D. both A & B
D. both A & B

A. clicks (TEOAE's)
B. tone pips
25
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what is the spread of excitation? how do we avoid spread of excitation when administering ABR's?
spread of excitation \= unwanted BM response

solution \= masking
*risk spread of excitation when you use tone pips for ABRs
26
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T/F: the amplitude of an ABR is measured between the positive peak and later negative trough and it demonstrates how many neurons are firing
TRUE
27
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what is the difference between interpeak latency responses and absolute latency responses?
absolute: from the onset of the stimulus to the peak of the wave

interpeak: absolute latency between two peaks
28
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how do you calculate the threshold for ABR measures?
reduce the presentation level until a measurable wave V (lateral lemniscus and inferior colliculus) is ABSENT
29
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what are MLR's? when do they occur?
A. mild little responses, they never occur
B. mild latency responses, 50-250 msec after stimulus presentation
C. middle latency response, occur 10 to 15 msec after the stimulus presentation
C. middle latency response, occur 10 to 15 msec after the stimulus presentation

*represent neural activity from thalamus and part of the auditory cortex
30
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what are LLR's? when do they occur?
A. long latency responses, 50 to 250 msec after stimulus presentation
B. late latency responses, occur 10 to 15 msec after stimulus presentation
C. lame latency responses, never occur
A. long latency responses, 50 to 250 msec after stimulus presentation

*only determines processing in the cochleaT/F
31
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T/F: ABR's will not be affected with conductive hearing loss
FALSE

with conductive HL, all waves will be prolonged, but the interpeak latencies will remain normal
32
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T/F: with cochlear hearing loss, ABRs will exhibit a decrease in waveform morphology and prolonged waves at lower presentation levels, but normal range at higher presentation levels
TRUE
33
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describe the pattern of ABR's with retrocochlear hearing loss
A. prolongation of all waves
B. loss of waveform morphology
C. delay that resembles conductive HL, only wave V prolongation, absent waves, or prolonged interpeak latencies
C. delay that resembles conductive HL, only wave V prolongation, absent waves, or prolonged interpeak latencies
34
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describe microtia
outer ear pathology
malformed or smaller pinna (smaller ECV)
35
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what does ONLY microtia present as on an otoscopy/tympanogram?
if ONLY microtia, the otoscopy and tympanogram will present as normal (use pediatric inserts)
36
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describe microtia with atresia (complete)
no ear canal opening
conductive hearing loss, "built in ear plug"
37
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what are the symptoms of microtia with atresia?
issues with localization
will present as a clear air-bone gap
38
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T/F: you can perform otoscopy and tympanometry on microtia with atresia
FALSE
can't perform otoscopy or tymponometry
39
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microtia, atresia, & anotia: describe grade I, grade II, and grade III, and anotia
Grade I: normal, only missing ear lobe
Grade II: very small opening, will likely occur as a conductive HL
Grade III: still have an outer ear, but very minimal
ANOTIA: absence or closure of the ear canal
40
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describe anotia
outer ear pathology
absent pinna (NO pinna)
41
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what are the management strategies for anotia?
usually fixed surgically (reconstruction, prosthetic ears)
42
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describe atresia
outer ear pathology
absence or closure of the ear canal
43
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what are the management strategies for atresia?
surgery is a possibility
bone-anchored hearing aids, depending on the condition of the cochlea
44
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describe external otitis
outer ear pathology
inflammation of the external canal caused by virus, fungus, and most likely bacteria
45
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what are the symptoms of external otitis?
red external auditory canal
itching in the ear canal or pinna
SMELLS BAD
46
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what are the management strategies for external otitis?
topical antibiotics
clean and flush the ear canal regularly
47
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describe excessive cerumen
more prevalent in older adults
build up needs to be significant before hearing becomes affected
48
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what is the difference between excessive vs. impacted cerumen?
separated by tympanometry

excessive: will have a normal tympanogram, so the tymp can move normally
impacted: pressure can't go around wax to move the middle ear
49
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is there hearing loss associated with excessive cerumen?
yes, likely conductive
50
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what are the management strategies for excessive cerumen?
remove the cerumen via ear drops, irrigation, or by an ENT
51
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what are the symptoms for a foreign object?
outer ear pathology
likely pain
52
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T/F: otoscopy reveals the problem for a foreign object
TRUE
53
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will there be hearing loss with a foreign object in the ear?
likely no hearing loss unless the object is COMPLETELY blocking the ear canal
54
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describe stenosis
narrowing of the ear canal
55
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who does stenosis impact?
A. older adults
B. children
C. individuals with down syndrome
C. individuals with down syndrome
56
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is there hearing loss associated with stenosis?
no hearing loss associated
*less wax is needed in stenosis for the E.C. to become impacted
57
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who does a collapsing ear canal impact the most?
A. children
B. older adults
C. middle aged adults
B. older adults
58
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T/F: a collapsing ear canal can only be unilateral
FALSE
a collapsing ear canal can be unilateral or bilateral
59
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describe exostosis
outer ear pathology
bony growths in the external auditory canal
60
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who is likely to exhibit exostosis?
A. cold water swimmers
B. older adults
C. young children
A. cold water swimmers
61
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is there hearing loss associated with exostosis?
no hearing loss unless occlusion
62
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what are the symptoms of a tympanic membrane perforation?
middle ear infection
painful, eustachian tube swelling
63
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how does a tympanic membrane perforation usually develop?
aggressive Q-tip use
flying with a bad cold
acoustic trauma (blast injuries, barometric pressure changes)
64
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can otoscopy reveal a tympanic membrane perforation? what will the tympanograms resemble?
otoscopy may reveal proferation
flat, high ear canal volume with absent acoustic reflexes
(repeat proferations \= scar tissue)
65
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is there ALWAYS hearing loss associated with a TM perforation?
may or may not have hearing loss
66
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what are the treatment options for TM proferations?
usually heal by themselves, but repeat perforations can weaken the TM's ability to heal

surgery may be necessary
myringoplasty - graft used to close perforation; tympanoplasty- surgical reconstruction of ME system
67
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describe tympanosclerosis
middle ear pathology
white plaque in the tympanic membrane, stiffens the TM
68
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is there hearing loss associated with tympanosclerosis?
often no hearing loss, but enough plaque can lead to mild HL
69
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describe otitis media/middle ear infection
middle ear pathology
inflammation or infection of the middle ear
*caused by eustachian tube dysfunction
70
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which of the following describes serious otitis media...
A. thin liquid free of bacteria (watery)
B. thick liquid free of bacteria
C. fluid that contains cellular debris or bacteria
serious otitis media \= A. thin liquid free of bacteria (watery)
71
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which of the following describes secretory otitis media...
A. thin liquid free of bacteria (watery)
B. thick liquid free of bacteria
C. fluid that contains cellular debris or bacteria
secretory otitis media \= B. thick liquid free of bacteria
72
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which of the following describes purulent or suppurative otitis media...
A. thin liquid free of bacteria (watery)
B. thick liquid free of bacteria
C. fluid that contains cellular debris or bacteria
suppurative otitis media \= C. fluid that contains cellular debris or bacteria
73
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which group is otitis media more prevalent?
A. children within the first two years of age
B. middle aged adults
B. older adults
A. children within the first two years of age
*language delays
*75%-95% of children will have at least one episode by 6 years of age
74
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T/F: girls are at more of a risk for otitis media than boys
FALSE
boys are at more of a risk for otitis media than girls

*overall, children in more germy environments are at a higher risk for otitis media
75
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T/F: children who are bottle fed are more likely to develop otitis media than children who are breastfed
TRUE, the eustachian tube is impacted with bottle feeding
76
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what does the tympanogram appear as in otitis media?
flat tympanogram with absent reflexes
TM retracts w/stuffed up nose
air bubbles
77
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what does the otoscopy reveal in otitis media?
vascularization of the TM (blood)
fluid behind the TM
bulging TM, discharge
78
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is there hearing loss associated with otitis media?
may or may not have hearing loss
related to the volume of liquid in the middle ear space
79
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what are the treatment options for otitis media?
antibiotics
P.E. tubes if it is a chronic condition
tonsillectomy or adenoidectomy to prevent swelling that leads to PE tube blockage
80
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how can otitis media affect language development?
miss critical language development milestones
auditory deprivation
81
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describe otosclosis
middle ear pathology
growth of spongy bone that grows along the ossicular chain and the stapes footplate
82
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what happens to the stapes footplate during otosclerosis?
the stapes footplate becomes immobilized at the oval window

ankylosis: stapes footplate becomes fixed
83
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who is the most susceptible to otosclerosis?
A. children
B. pregnant women
C. older men
B. pregnant women

*cause is unknown
84
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T/F: otosclerosis is usually unilateral
FALSE: otosclerosis is bilateral 90% of the time
85
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what kind of hearing loss does otosclerosis result in?
bilateral, conductive, progressive hearing loss
86
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what is the cohort notch with otosclerosis?
worsening of bone conduction thresholds by 10-15 dB at 2000 Hz
87
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what does the tympanogram look like for otosclerosis?
shallow or flat tympanograms (immobilization of stapes)
absent reflexes
88
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what are the treatment options for otosclerosis?
Surgical treatment:
-Stapes mobilization: loosening of stapes with chisel-like instrument
-Stapedectomy: replacement of all of part of stapes with prosthesis
89
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what are the causes of an ossicular chain discontinuity?
middle ear pathology

can occur with...
-a proferation (blast injury)
-chronic otitis media can wear down the bone
-otosclerosis can "eat way" through
-acoustic trauma
90
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T/F: ossicular chain discontinuity is usually sudden/noticeable
TRUE
ex: dislocations of the incudostapedial joint
91
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is there a hearing loss associated with ossicular chain discontinuity?
YES
large, flat conductive HL
92
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what does the tympanogram look like for ossicular chain discontinuity?
high peak immitence (bone can be extremely pushed in)
absent reflexes on affected side
93
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describe cholesteatoma
middle ear pathology
a cyst filled with keratin fills the middle ear
94
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T/F: cholesteatoma occurs as a result of chronic otitis media
TRUE
95
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describe the tympanograms for cholesteatoma
(hint: initial vs. eroded)
initial: type As (stiffness of the middle ear)
erosion: type Ad, middle ear bones break

absent reflexes on the affected side
vascularization (blood) occurs as a protective mechanism
96
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what type of hearing loss is associated with cholesteatoma?
A. sudden conductive
B. progressive conductive HL
C. sensorineural HL
B. progressive conductive HL
97
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what are the treatment options for cholesteatoma?
removal of cyst
*still can grow back
98
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describe Meniere's Disease
inner ear pathology
pressure equalization problems with the cochlea and the semicircular canals (endolymphatic hydrops)
99
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which of the following are impacts of Meniere's disease?
A. impact on hearing + nerves
B. will have episode of vertigo
C. the organ of corti and the semicircular canals collapse on themselves
D. all of the above
D. all of the above
100
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T/F: Meniere's disease is usually unilateral
FALSE

Meniere's disease is usually bilateral