Instrumentation Review

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Last updated 10:19 PM on 3/20/26
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109 Terms

1
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<p>Region A of this graph represents:</p>

Region A of this graph represents:

Recombination region

2
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<p>Region B of this graph represents:</p>

Region B of this graph represents:

Ionization region

3
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<p>Region C of this graph represents:</p>

Region C of this graph represents:

proportional region

4
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<p>Region D of this graph represents:</p>

Region D of this graph represents:

Geiger-Muller region

5
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<p>Region E of this graph represents:</p>

Region E of this graph represents:

continuous discharge

6
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<p>What instruments operate in region B?</p>

What instruments operate in region B?

ionization chambers

7
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<p>What instruments operate in region C?</p>

What instruments operate in region C?

Proportional counters

8
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<p>What instruments operate in Region D of this graph?</p>

What instruments operate in Region D of this graph?

Geiger Mueller Counter

9
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Basic ionization chambers operate at ______ voltage and collect only ____ ions

low; primary

10
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T/F Basic ionization chambers are very reliable with high amounts of radiation

True

11
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T/F Basic ionization chambers are not reliable with high amounts of radiation

false

12
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T/F: basic ionzation chambers are very precise and accurate

true

13
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What are the 3 types of basic ionization chambers used in NM?

Radiation survey meter “Cutie Pie”

Pocket Dosimeters

Dose Calibrators

14
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T/F: A GM counter is a type of survey meter

false

15
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What is the use of a radiation survey meter/cutie pie?

accurately determining exposure rate from therapeutic dose

16
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Select the correct unit of measurement of a Radiation survey meter/cutie pie

mR/hr

17
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What is the purpose of a pocket dosimeter?

measures total radiation dose during a certain time interval, and provides immediate reading

18
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T/F: A dose calibrator is a type of solid scintilator

false

19
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<p>Which region of the voltage graph does an ionization chamber operate in?</p>

Which region of the voltage graph does an ionization chamber operate in?

Ionizing region

20
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A dose calibrator is a type of

ionization chamber

21
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What is dead time

The time during which a counter cannot respond to another ionizing event

22
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T/F Geiger-Muller counters are useful when measuring large amounts of radioactivity

false

23
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Which one is more sensitive to radiation?

Geiger-Mueller counter

24
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Survey meter constancy is perfomed

daily

25
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How often should calibration of survey meters be performed?

annually

26
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Constancy (sealed source checks) should be within ___% of each other

10%

27
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An example of a gas filled detector is a

dose calibrator

28
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Constancy on a dose calibrator should be performed

daily (& installation)

29
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Linearity on a dose calibrator should be performed

quarterly (& installation)

30
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Accuracy on a dose calibrator should be performed

annually (& installation)

31
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geometry on a dose calibrator should be performed

installation and repair

32
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Constancy is testing an instruments

reproducibility of measurements of a source of a known activity from day to day

33
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Linearity is testing an instruments

Ability to measure low-high activity doses accurately

34
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Accuracy is testing an instruments

ability to provide a true measure of the activity of radionuclides at different gamma energies

35
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When using the decay method to test linearity, a dose of high activity should be assayed until it decays down to ____ or less

30 uCi

36
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During linearity testing, the calculated activity is 17mCi, and the dose was measured as 19.6. Is this reading within the limit?

no, the dose calibrator should be repaired or checked

37
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How often should Reference Sources be leak tested?

every 6 months

38
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How often should reference sources be inventoried?

every 6 months

39
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If variations in calculated vs measured readings during geometry testing, what should be used?

correction factors

40
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The expected reading for a geometry test on a 5ml syringe was 2.95 mCi.  The actual reading was 2.63 mCi.  What is the percent error?

10.8%

41
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The percent error for a geometry test is 10.8%. Does this instrument need correction factors?

yes

42
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A well counter is a type of:

Solid scintillation detector

43
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44
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What test is performed on an uptake probe to compare the measured variability of a group of measurements?

Chi-square

45
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What is the maximum activity a well counter can count?

1 uCi

46
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What is the formula used to calculate detector efficiency?

# detected events / # source emissions

47
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Voltage calibration for well counters and uptake probes should be performed

daily

48
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Efficiency for well counters and uptake probes should be performed

quaterly

49
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Constancy QC for well counters and uptake probes should be performed

daily

50
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Chi Square testing for well counters and uptake probes should be performed

variably

51
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Voltage calibration QC for well counters and uptake probes is used to

determine the appropriate operating high voltage and amplified gain

52
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Efficiency calibration QC for well counters and uptake probes is used to

evaluate the ability of the instrument to detect radioactive disintegrations

53
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Acceptable Chi-square values are between ___ to ___

0.1 - 0.9

54
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<p>This artifact is called a</p>

This artifact is called a

star artifact

55
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<p>This artifact is caused by</p>

This artifact is caused by

septal penetration

56
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Septal

57
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As the pinhole collimator is moved farther from the source, the image becomes _______

smaller

58
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As the pinhole collimator is moved closer, the image becomes _______

larger

59
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Converging collimators are used to _____ an image

magnify

60
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All of the following are types of scintillation detectors except

gas

61
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Solid scintillation detectors are most commonly made of

NAI(Tl)

62
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What is the energy of Co-57

122 keV

63
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<p>Image A is an example of </p>

Image A is an example of

cold PMT tubes

64
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<p>Image A is an example of ____, and is caused by the photopeak being set ____</p>

Image A is an example of ____, and is caused by the photopeak being set ____

Cold PMTs; too high

65
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<p>This is an example of</p>

This is an example of

Photopeak correctly positioned - uniform appearece

66
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<p>A flood field uniformty test is performed, identify this image</p>

A flood field uniformty test is performed, identify this image

Hot tubes - photopeak set too high

67
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How often should a flood field uniformity test be performed for a gamma camera?

daily

68
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how many counts should be obtained for a flood field uniformity test for a scintilation camera?

3-5 million counts

69
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A source should be placed _______ away from a camera when testing a gamma camera’s intrinsic uniformity

5 FOV

70
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<p>The problem in this image is most likely caused by</p>

The problem in this image is most likely caused by

PMT tube failure

71
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<p>The problem in this image is most likely caused by</p>

The problem in this image is most likely caused by

cracked crystal

72
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<p>The image on the right is an extrinsic flood image. What is the most likely cause of this defect?</p>

The image on the right is an extrinsic flood image. What is the most likely cause of this defect?

Collimator damage

73
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What is spatial linearity?

Ability to produce a uniform image with straight lines corresponding to straight lines in a phantom

74
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How often should spatial linearity be performed?

weekly

75
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Spatial linearity should be performed using a

bar phantom

76
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Spatial resolution is defined as:

Ability to discriminate between two points

77
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Spatial resolution should be checked

weekly

78
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Spatial resolution must be performed with a

bar phantom

79
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The real spatial resolution of a camera is expressed quantitatively as

FWHM

80
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If FWHM is 15keV, what is the energy resolution of Tc-99m?

11%

81
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How do you calculate energy resolution when given the FWHM?

[FWHM / photopeak of isotope] X 100 = Energy resolution

82
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Calculate the sensitivity of a camera that produces 26,657 cpm with a 152 uCi source.  Background is 340 cpm.

173 cpm/uCi

83
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Calculate the sensitivity of a camera that produces 15,600 cpm with a 130 uCi source.  Background is 430 cpm.

116 cpm/uCi

84
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Sensitivity is expressed as

cpm/uCi

85
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How do you calculate DPM?

DPM = net CPM / efficiency

86
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Calculate the DPM of a source that produces 28,078 cpm measusured by a well counter with 35% efficiency. Background is 340 cpm

73,537 DPM

87
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<p>What is this phantom</p>

What is this phantom

orthagonal hole

88
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<p>What is this phantom</p>

What is this phantom

Hine Duley

89
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<p>What phantom is this</p>

What phantom is this

Four Quadrant bar phantom

90
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<p>What phantom is this</p>

What phantom is this

Parallel-Line Equal Spaced Phantom (PLES)

91
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What is the most commonly used bar phantom

4 quadrant

92
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What are the advantages of SPECT

  • Improves image contrast

  • Separates overlapping structures

  • Ability to assess attenuation

  • 3-D representation of the organ surface or “volume” can be rendered.

93
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Field Uniformity testting for SPECT camera should be perfomed

daily

94
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Field uniformity testing for a SPECT camera should have less than ___% differences

<5%

95
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How often should the COR check be performed?

At least weekly

96
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What artifact is caused by detector non-uniformity in SPECT imaging?

Bullls-eye or ring artifacts

97
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What is the minimum number of counts that should be obtained in a uniformity correction flood for a SPECT camera?

30 million

98
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Ramp filters primarily:

Erases blurring from filtered back projection

99
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Hanning Filters are used for

smoothing (noise reduction)

100
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Butterworth filters are used for

Smoothing (reducing noise)

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