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The type of cell division that produces two genetically identical daughter cells is important for all of the following functions EXCEPT
Production of sperm and eggs
Eukaryotic cells have their chromosomes packages in the
Nucleus
Chromatin consists of
DNA and protein
A duplicated chromosome consists of two
Sister chromatids
The structure where sister chromatids are joined is called the
Centromere
What happens during interphase
Chromosome duplication occurs
The cells that result from the mitosis cell cycle can be described as
Two cells, each with the same amount of genetic material and the same genetic information
What happens during prophase
the mitosis spindle begins to form
________ is a stage of mitosis
Telophase
The CORRECT sequence of stages of mitosis is
prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase
During metaphase
Chromosomes line up in the middle of the cell
Which event occurs during anaphase
Sister chromatids become separate chromosomes
During telophase
The events of prophase are reversed
Cytokenises typically begins during the ______ stage of mitosis
Telophase
Aa correct comparison between a benign and a malignant tumor is that
Benign tumors do not metastasize, malignant tumors do
Homologous chromosomes
Carry genes controlling the same inherited characteristics
What is the chromosomes composition of a normal human male
44 autonomies, 1 X chromosome, 1 Y chromosome
What is the chromosomes composition of a normal human female
44 autonomies, 2 X chromosomes
Chromosomes that do not determine the sex of an individual are called
Autonomies
Nucleotides are made of
DNA and histone proteins
Plant cell cytokinesis differs from animal cell cytokinesis because
Pant cells from a cell plate and animal cells do not
If the cleavage furrow or cell plate shown in the figure formed nearer one pole of the dividing cell rather than at the midline, what would be the predicted result
Cells would be very different in size
Which of the following clues in the microscopic examination may indicate cancer
Cells with large, variably shaped nuclei
Eukaryotic chromatin is composed of which of the following macromolecules
DNA and proteins
What is the name of the region on duplicated chromosomes where the sister chromatids are most closely attached to each other
the centromere
DNA and RNA are polymerase composed of _____ monomers
nucleotide
The backbone of DNA consists of
Repeating sugar-phosphate
DNA contains the. Nitrogenous base ____ instead of _____ which is only found in RNA
thymine, uracil
In a DNA double helix, adenine pairs with ____ and guanine pairs with _____
Thymine, cytosine
If one strand of a DNA double helix has the sequence ATCCGA, what is the sequence of the other strand
TAGGCT
How many amino acids are common to all living systems
20
What is the name given to the collection of traits physically exhibited by an organism
Phenotype
How many nucleotides make up a codon
3
If a strand of DNA has the sequence GACTTA, transcription will result in a (n)
Single RNA strand with the sequence CUGAAU
The expressed (coding) regions of eukaryotic genes are called
Exons
The RNA that is translated into a polypeptide is ______ RNA
mRNA
What cellular structure facilitates the process of translation
ribosomes
Translation converts the information stored in _____ to ______
RNA, a polypeptide
The DNA codon GTA codes for an amino acid carried by a tRNA with the anticodon
GUA
The transfer of information from RNA into a protein is known as
Translation
The codon CAU codes for the amino acid _____
Histidine
A single amino acid substitution in the hemoglobin gene ______
Changes an anime acid in the hemoglobin protein
Transcription is the ____
Manufacture of a strand of RNA complementary to a strand of DNA
Inheritance that is _____
Autosomal recessive
The ______ is most commonly found in nature
Wild-type trait
People with lactose intolerance do not have enough
Lactase
A single carbon atom can form a maximum of ___ covalent bonds
4
In the following reaction, galactose is a ______
Galactose + glucose → lactose + water
Monomer
Diabetes can be prevented or controlled by which lifestyle changes
Eating healthy diet, increasing exercise, weight loss
Initial symptoms of type 1 diabetes are
Fatigue, exhaustion, dizziness
High blood glucose level is known as ______ and can cause health problems
HyPERglycemia
For blood health, it is important to include ____ in our diets
Polysaccharides
Plants use which molecule as an energy-storing carbohydrate
Starch
Saturated fats are saturated with
Hydrogen
Which outcome is a health effect of a diet high in saturated fats
Increased risk of heart attack
Proteins are polymers constructed from ________ monomers
Amino acid
Under normal condition, as blood glucose levels go up, insulin levels go
Up
Nucleic acids are polymers of ______ monomers
Ucleotide
DNA nucleotides include
thymine, guanine, adenine, cytosine
The oxygen-carrying protein in red blood cells is
Hemoglobin
The proportion of red blood cells in the blood is
hematocrit
The cell fragments that assist with clotting is:
Platelet
Which of the following results on a CBC could indicate anemia
low red blood cells count, low hematocrit
The ability to tolerate lactose throughout life most likely arose in
Cultures that keep dairy herds
Which of the following cholesterol test results are associated with heart health
Low LDL cholesterol levels and high HDL cholesterol levels
Which substances are NOT typically measured in a basic metabolic panel
hemoglobin
Which describes the number of heart beats per minute
Pulse
A process if referred to as aerobic if it requires
Oxygen
The waste products of cellular respiration include
Water and cO2
Which are products of cellular respiration
Carbon dioxide, water, ATP
Where in the cell does glycolysis occur
Cytoplasm
A physician is examining a patient who fatigues easily after walking only a short distance, tissue examination reveals that certain skeletal muscle cells are missing mitochondria. Laboratory tests are likely also to find ______.
A buildup of lactic acid
Which stages occur in the cytoplasm?
Glycols is
Rod shaped bacteria are called
Bacilli
One difference between gram positive and gram negative bacteria is
Gram positive bacteria have more peptidoglycan in their cell walls = purple
In which of these environments would you normally find prokaryotes
Seawater, soil, intestinal tract, human skin
Prokaryotic cell walls function
To prevent the cell from bursting in a hypotonic environment
Steps of gram staining
crystal violet, iodine, alcohol, safranin
What is the purpose of grams iodine as a mordant in the gram stain
Prevent the crystal violet from leaving cells
Bacterial smears are fixed before staining to
Affix the cells to the slide
What is the total magnification of a specimen viewed with a 10x ocular lens and a 45x objective lens
450x
Which type of staining technique is the most useful in helping clinicians to decide which antibiotic to prescribe for a bacterial infection
Gram stain
If a gram stain is performed correctly, what is the color of a gram positive bacteria
Purple
You are performing a gram stain on gram positive bacteria and you stop after the addition of the first dye, what is the appearance of the bacteria at this point
purple
Steps of gram stain and affixing
Making a smear, fixing, staining
What percentage of a population needs to be vaccinated for herd immunity to occur
95%
The secondary response in the B cell response occurs when memory cells bind to ______
Antigens
Which cell type initiates a secondary immune response
Memory cell
Antibodies _____
Are a type of molecule that assists in destroying particular antigens
A typical vaccine consists of a solution containing
A harmless variant of a disease causing microbe
The major result of the inflammatory response is to
Disinfect and clean damaged tissues
What is a response of our innate defense system
Inflammation
What kinds of cells engulf the foreign cells and molecules they encounter and recognize
Phagocytic cells
Slugs produce mucus, what component of their immune system is this
External innate system
Which is one of the body’s first lines of defense against infection
Skin and mucous membranes
What differentiates gram positive bacteria from gram negative bacteria
The way the cell wall stains