Jeppesen Instrument Rating: Stage 1

What instruments are required for IFR flight?

*All VFR (Day and Night) Requirements and:

Generator or Alternator

Rate of Turn Indicator

Altimeter (Adjustable)

Ball (Inclinometer)

Clock (w/seconds)

Attitude Indicator

Radios as Required (Two way comms and @ least 1 VOR receiver)

DG (Directional Gyro)

*Remember GRABCARD

What requirements must be met to maintain instrument currency?

Within Proceeding 6 months, one must have completed:

6 Instrument Approaches

Holding Procedures

Intercepting and Tracking Courses

If these requirements are not met within 6 months of expired currency, the subject must undergo an instrument proficiency test.

What are the eligibility requirements for an instrument pilot?

1. Private Pilot

2. English Proficient

3. Training Hours Completed

4. Knowledge and Practical Exams

What are the gyroscopic flight instruments?

Heading Indicator

Attitude Indicator

Turn Coordinator

What are the vacuum powered instruments?

Heading Indicator (DG)

Attitude Indicator

Suction Gauge

Define Rigidity in Space

The idea that a wheel with a heavily weighted rim spun rapidly will tend to remain fixed in the plane in which it is spinning.

What are maximum errors permittable in the attitude indicator prior to takeoff?

Self erected within 5 min, less than 5* of bank and no more than 1 bar of pitch.

Define "standard rate turn."

A turn which is completed at a rate of 3 degrees per second.

Explain the recommended pre-flight IFR instrument checks

Gyros: Listen for spinning and absence of grinding; After engine start you should be unable to hear the gyros.

Ammeter: Positive charge after starting engine.

Turn Coordinator: Display correct direction of bank during turns on taxiway and proper movement of ball towards outside of turn.

Heading Indicator: Set the heading indicator prior to taxi and check again to ensure it hasn't p recessed excessively. 3 degrees in 15 mins is standard.

Suction Gauge: Verify proper suction.

Altimeter: Should indicate within 75 feet of airport elevation when adjusted to current altimeter setting.

Explain common compass turning errors

Magnetic Dip: Lead to inaccurate readings when on north of south headings. Magnet essentially tries to point downwards, leading to the weighting of one side of the magnet. "North undershoot, South overshoot."

Northerly Turning Error: When turning from the north, the compass will initially indicate a turn in the opposite direction. From the south, the turn will be indicated at a faster than actual rate.

Explain how the altimeter works

A sealed stack of aneroid wafers that expand and contract with atmospheric pressure from the static port. These movements of the wafers are translated by a series of gimbals into a movement of the altimeter needle.

Explain how the airspeed indicator works

Ram air from the pitot tube pushes against the diaphram in the indicator, while static air is vented outside the diaphram (in the airspeed indicator itself). The contraction and expansion of the diaphram are translated by metal pieces into an indication on the gauge.

Which instruments are pitot-static?

The airspeed indicator (pitot and static) and the altimeter and VSI (static only).

Explain instrument errors in a pitot blockage scenario with a clear drain hole drain hole

An airspeed indication of zero.

Explain instrument errors in a scenario with pitot static blockage with a blocked drain hole.

The airspeed indicator will act as an altimeter, with indicated airspeed increasing as altitude increases.

Explain instrument errors in a static port blockage scenario.

Varied inaccurate airspeed indications

Constant 0 indication on VSI

Frozen Altimeter

Explain how the VSI works

A diaphragm is connected directly to the static port. Outside the diaphragm there is another static port link, however it is equipped with a calibrated leak, which results in expansion and contraction of the diaphragm due to the difference in pressure between that of the direct static port into the diaphragm and that with a calibrated leak.

Is the VSI legally required for instrument flight?

No

Is the voltage from the alternator higher or lower than that from the battery?

Higher. The higher voltage is what allows the alternator to charge the battery.

What is the visibility requirement in class B airspace?

3 statute miles, clear of clouds.

What is the visibility requirement in class C and D airspace?

3 statute miles visibility.

Clouds: 1,000 above, 500 below, 2,000 horizontally.

What are weather minimums in E airspace below 10,000MSL?

3 statute miles visibility

1,000 above clouds, 500 below, 2,000 horizontally.

What are weather minimums for class E airspace above 10,000MSL?

1 statute mile visibility

1,000 above, 1,000 below, 1 statute mile horizontally.

What are weather minimums for class G airspace below 1,200 feet AGL?

Day: 1 statute mile, clear of clouds.

Night: 3 statute miles

1,000 above, 500 below, 2,000 horizontally.

What are the weather minimums for class G airspace below 10,000 MSL (and above 1,200AGL)?

Day: 1 statute mile

1,000 above, 500 below, 2,000 horizontally.

Night: 3 statute miles

1,000 above, 500 below, 2,000 horizontally.

What are the weather minimums for class G airspace at or above 10,000MSL (and above 1,200AGL)?

5 statute miles visibility

1,000 above, 1,000 below, 1 statute mile horizontally.

What equipment and certifications are required to enter class D airspace?

Student Pilot Certificate; Establish radio communication.

What are equipment and certification required to enter class C airspace?

Student Pilot Certificate; Establish radio communication; Transponder with Mode C.

What equipment and certifications are required to enter class B airspace?

Private Pilot Certificate or Student Pilot Certificate with correct endorsement; ATC Clearance; Transponder with Mode C.

What equipment and certifications are required to enter class E and G airspace?

Student pilot certificate; No equipment requirements.

When air temperature is higher than standard, what altimeter indication will result?

A lower than actual indication.This is because air with higher temperature has higher pressure. Without correctly adjusting the altimeter setting, the altitude will indicate this higher pressure in the form of a high altimeter reading.

When air temperature is lower than standard, what altimeter indication will result?

A higher than actual indication. This is because air with lower temperature has a lower pressure. Without correctly adjusting the altimeter setting, the altitude will indicate this lower pressure in the form of a low altimeter reading.

What is the maximum blood alcohol content permittable for flight?

.04%

How long after drinking alcohol, regardless of blood alcohol content are you legally allowed to pilot an aircraft?

8 Hours. (8hrs. bottle to throttle, to help remember this.)

What does the abbreviation "MIRL" stand for?

Medium Intensity Runway Lights.

What does "MALSR" stand for?

Medium Intensity Approach Light System with RAIL

What does "RAIL" stand for?

Runway Alignment Indicator Lights.

What does "REIL" stand for?

Runway End Identifier Lights.

What does "RCLS" stand for?

Runway Centerline Light System.

In general, what does RNAV stand for?

Area Navigation

What does "SALS" stand for?

Short Approach Light System

What does "SSALR" stand for?

Simplified Short Approach Light System with RAIL

What does "HIRL" stand for?

High Intensity Runway Lights

What does ICAO stand for?

International Civil Aviation Authority

What does "ALS" and "ALSF" mean?

Approach Landing Sytem and Approach Landing System with Sequenced Flashing Lights.

What does "VASI" stand for?

Visual Approach Slope Indicator

When may ATC request a detailed emergency report?

When priority has been given.

When switching to an alternate static source, the airspeed, altimeter and VSI may temporarily read:

Higher airspeed, Higher altitude, VSI may indicate a climb.

Which instrument should become erect and stable within 5 mins after engine start?

The attitude indicator.

You enter a 500 fpm climb. What are your primary indicators for pitch, bank and power?

Attitude indicator for pitch, heading indicator for bank, and tachometer or manifold pressure indicator for power.

What does MEA stand for?

Minimum Enroute Altitude

What does MOCA stand for?

Minimum Obstruction Clearance Altitude

What is the minimum altitude for jet airways?

FL180

What are the fuel requirements for IFR Flight?

Enough fuel to fly to the airport of intended landing, to fly from that airport to the alternate (unless specific "123" weather minimums are met), and then fly from that point for another 45 minutes at cruising speed.

What are standard IFR Alternate Minimums?

PA: 600' 2SM

NPA: 800' 2SM

What minimums must be met to chose a minimum airport without a IAP?

The ceiling and visibility minimums are those which would allow a descent from the MEA, to an approach and landing under BASIC VFR.

If no Minimum Altitude is prescribed, what are standard minimums?

Over mountainous terrain 2000FT over the highest obstacle withing a distance of 4n.m. from the course to be flown. In other areas, 1,000FT over highest obstacle within 4n.m. of the intended course.

When experiencing lost communications in IFR conditions, what is the correct procedure to follow?

Fly route assigned; If being vectored, fly direct to fix, route or airway specified in the radar clearance. In absence of assigned route, that route which ATC has advised you to expect. If non-existent, proceed with route filed.

Fly the highest of the following:

Altitude Assigned

MEA

Altitude Expected

If assigned a clearance limit: Leave the clearance limit at your assigned EFC time. If no time is specified, leave to arrive as close as possible to your filed ETA or ammended ETA (with ATC).

What instrument malfunctions must be reported to ATC when flying IFR?

Any failure/malfunction of navigational, approach, or communication equipment.

What should be include in an instrument malfunction report?

Aircraft ID

Affected equipment

Degree to which IFR flight is impaired

Nature and extent of assistance desired from ATC/

What activity can be expected in Warning Areas? Can a pilot enter this airspace?

Contains activity which may be hazardous to non-participating aircraft. Designed to warn aircraft of possible danger.

Yes, a pilot may enter.

What activity can be expected in a restricted area?

Hazardous activity such as artillery firing or guided missiles. Entry without proper authorization could be extremely dangerous.

What activity can be expected in an alert area? Is a clearance necessary?

High volumes of flight training or unusual types of aerial activity.

Clearances are not necessary.

What activity can be expected in an alert area? Is a clearance necessary?

Prohibited areas are designed for security reasons. Entry into a prohibited area is prohibited.

What activity and clearance requirements are established for MOAs?

MOAs separate military traffic from IFR traffic. You may be cleared through an active MOA if separation can be provided. Otherwise active MOA airspace is restricted.

Which limitation is imposed on a commercial pilot without an instrument rating?

They can only carry passengers on cross country flights up to 50nm, and are prohibited from carrying passengers at night.

When are ATIS broadcasts updated?

Upon receipt of any official weather, regardless of change of reported values.

If the pitot tube and drain hole are clogged, the airspeed indicator will function similar to:

An altimeter.

When in flight and tuning a VOR station, how can a pilot determine that the VOR station is undergoing maintenance?

The absence of an identification feature.

What instruments are considered primary and supporting for bank when establishing a level standard rate turn?

Attitude indicator and turn coordinator.

For IFR planning purposes, what are the compulsory reporting points when using VOR/DME or VORTAC fixes to define a direct route not on established airways?

Fixes selected to define the route.

The compulsory reporting points when using VOR/DME or VORTAC fixes to define a direct route not on established airways are all the fixes the pilot selects to define the route of flight.

What is the definition of MEA?

The lowest published altitude which meets obstacle clearance requirements and assures acceptable navigational signal coverage.

What minimum weather conditions must be forecast for your ETA at an alternate airport, that has only a VOR approach with standard alternate minimums, for the airport to be listed as an alternate?

800 foot ceilings with 2nm visibility

Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM)

A systematic approach to the mental process used by pilots to consistently determine the best course of action in response to a given set of circumstances.

Hazardous Attitudes

(AIM IR) Anti-authority; Impulsivity; Macho; Invulnerability; Resignation

PAVE (Risk Management)

Pilot

Aircraft

enVironment

External Pressures

5Ps (Risk Management)

Pilot

Passengers

Plane

Programming

Plan

CFIT

Controlled Flight Into Terrain: CFIT happens when an aircraft is flown unintentionally into terrain, obstacles or water while the aircraft is under positive control.

Situational Awareness

The accurate perception of all the operational and environmental factors that affect flight safety before, during and after the flight.

Vestibular Disorientation

When the vestibular system sends misleading signals to the brain when subjected to different forces of flight during instrument maneuvers.

Spacial Disorientation

Occurs when there is a conflict between the signals relayed by your central vision and information provided by your peripheral vision

Vestibular Illusions

I- inversion

C- coriolis illusion

E- elevated (abrupt upward acceleration)

F- false horizon

L- leans (leads to grave yard spins and spirals)

A- autokinesis

G- graveyard spins and spirals

S- somatogravic illusion

Hypoxia

Occurs when the tissues in the body do not receive enough oxygen.

Hypoxic Hypoxia

Inadequate supply of oxygen.

Hypemic Hypoxia

Inability of the blood to carry oxygen.

Stagnant Hypoxia

Inadequate circulation of oxygen.

Histoxic Hypoxia

Inability of the cells to effectively use oxygen. (drugs or alcohol)

Types of VOR Checks:

V- VOT +/- 4*

G- Ground +/- 4*

A- Airborne +/- 6*

D- Dual VORs +/- 4* dual check in the air

B - Bench (Tested by A&P only) no variation allowed.

Date, place, bearing error, sign

(Very Good Airmen Do Blow)

RNP

Required Navigation Performance

RAIM

Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring

WAAS

Wide-Area Augmentation System. Improves accuracy of GPS which allows pilots to shoot approaches to lower minimums.

Zone of Ambiguity

Area perpendicular to the selected course where the aircraft does not have a clear indication if it is To/From side of the VOR.

Cone of Confusion

A cone shaped volume of airspace directly above a VOR where no signal is received.

FAR: Part 1

Definitions and Abbreviations

FAR: Part 61

Certification: Pilots, Flight Instructors, and Ground Instructors

FAR: Part 91

General Operating and Flight Rules

NTSB: Part 830

accident reporting requirements

Flight Visibility

The average forward horizontal distance, measured in statute miles from the cockpit of an aircraft in flight, at which a pilot can see and identify prominent objects by day and lighted objects by night.

FAR: Part 61.65

Instrument rating requirements. Section D list the aeronautical experience required for the instrument airplane rating.

FAR: Part 61.23

Medical Certificates: Requirements and duration.