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How would an adverse effect be treated?
A. No treatment is necessary.
B. Patients should be hospitalized until the effect subsides.
C. An antidote must be given.
D. The dose may be adjusted or drug switched to an alternative.
D. The dose may be adjusted or the drug switched to an alternative.
Which of the following drugs would be considered agonists?
A. Fluoxetine binds to a protein and prevents the reuptake of serotonin
B. Rosuvastatin binds to HMG-CoA reductase and prevents the synthesis of cholesterol
C. Morphine binds to a specific receptor and produces pain relief
D. Labetalol binds to beta-1 receptors preventing norepinephrine from binding
C. Morphine binds to a specific receptor and produces pain relief
Which of the following terms refers to the desired effect of a drug?
A. Therapeutic
B. Toxic
C. Adverse
D. Expected
A. Therapeutic
Which of the following best describes an antagonist?
A. Drugs that bind to a specific receptor and block a response
B. Drugs that bind to a specific receptor and produce a response
C. Drugs that bind to other drugs to form a complex
D. Drugs that promote the binding of agonist drugs to a specific receptor
A. Drugs that bind to a specific receptor and block a response
Drugs that bind to a specific receptor and produce a response
agonists
What is the term used to describe where a drug works in the body?
A. Mechanism of action
B. Site of action
C. Work site
D. Therapeutic site
B. Site of action
What term describes how a drug produces its effects?
A. Posology
B. Pharmacokinetics
C. Drug indication
D. Mechanism of action
D. Mechanism of action
What is the term used to describe when agonist and antagonist drugs are given at the same time, and they attempt to bind to the same receptor sites?
A. Competing receptors
B. Competitive agonism
C. Competing drugs
D. Competitive antagonism
D. Competitive antagonism
Drug action begins after a drug attaches itself to a protein in the cell membrane, which is known as the ______ site.
agonist
receptor
antagonist
mechanism
receptor
Which of the following describes an agonist?
A. Drugs that bind to a specific receptor and block a response
B. Drugs that bind to specific receptors and produce a response
correct
C. Drugs that bind to other drugs to form a complex
D. Drugs that bind to an antagonist
A. Drugs that bind to specific receptors and produce a response
What is the term used to describe a dose that will produce an effect that is half the maximal response?
ED50
EP1/2
half-life
POT50
ED50
True or False
If the drug requires 200 mg to achieve a maximum dose response, 400 mg would represent the ED50.
False
The ED50 is the dose that produces 50% of the maximum effect. So ED50 will be 100 mg for this drug.
True or False
Naloxone is an example of an antagonist because it binds to opioid receptors and prevents morphine from binding to them.
true
What term refers to both agonist and antagonist drugs being administered together and competing for the same receptor sites.
A. Competitive antagonism
B. Mechanism of action
C. Competitive agonism
D. Antagonistic action
A. Competitive antagonism
What is the duration of action for a drug?
A. The length of time it takes for a drug to be absorbed
B. The length of time it takes for the drug to begin working
C. The length of time that a drug continues to produce its effect
D. The length of time it takes for a drug to be metabolized
C. The length of time that a drug continues to produce its effect
The measure of the strength, or concentration, of a drug required to produce a specific effect is known as
potency
True or False
The onset of action refers to the time from drug administration to the first observable effect.
true
True or False
A drug manufacturer has to only show that a drug is effective before it will be approved by the FDA.
False
Reason: Drugs have to be shown to be safe and effective.
What is the onset of action for a drug?
A. The duration for which the drug remains effective
B. The duration for which the drug stays in the body
C. The time before a drug begins to metabolize
D. The time from drug administration to the first observable effect
D. The time from drug administration to the first observable effect
What is the term for a drug that produces congenital anomalies?
Carcinogen
Teratogen
Hallucinogenic
Antigenic
Teratogen
The ratio of the LD50 to the ED50 of a drug is known as what?
Duration of action
Therapeutic index
Time-plasma concentration curve
Half-life
Therapeutic index
What term describes an adverse effect that is not dose dependent and is influenced by individual variations?
Side effect
Toxic effect
Carcinogenic reaction
Idiosyncratic reaction
Idiosyncratic reaction
Which of the following best describes what can occur during an allergic reaction?
Hypotension can occur
Bronchoconstriction can occur
An antigen-antibody reaction causes the release of histamine
An antigen-antibody reaction causes the release of epinephrine
Hypotension can occur
Bronchoconstriction can occur
An antigen-antibody reaction causes the release of histamine
A drug is considered any chemical substance that produces a change in body function.
True or false question.
True
The nonproprietary name of a drug is commonly called a _________ drug
generic
What is the difference between an adverse effect and an allergic response?
Typical symptoms of an adverse effect include rash, hives and itching.
An allergic response occurs when a patient becomes sensitized to a drug and an immune reaction occurs.
It is easier to predict an allergic reaction than an adverse reaction.
An allergic reaction occurs when too high of a dose is given.
An allergic response occurs when a patient becomes sensitized to a drug and an immune reaction occurs.
What term describes an allergic reaction that is severe and is a medical emergency?
Antigen-antibody reaction
Adverse Effect
Antigen Response
Anaphylaxis
Anaphylaxis
Which of the following are examples of nonprescription or over-the-counter drugs?
Antacids
Antihypertensives
Cold remedies
Aspirin
Narcotics
Antacids
Cold remedies
Aspirin
What is the primary use of the United States Pharmacopeia/National Formulary (USP/NF)?
A. Basic information on indications and doses
B. Contains information used by drug manufacturers to ensure drug production according to government standards
C. Detailed information based on therapeutic use
D. Provides in depth information about prescription, non-prescription, and nutritional supplements
B. Contains information used by drug manufacturers to ensure drug production according to government standards
Which of the following drugs are considered Schedule I drugs?
Morphine
Cocaine
Heroin
Amphetamines
Heroin
True or false
Refills of Schedule II drugs require a new written prescription from the physician.
true
Which of the following defines a Schedule III drug?
A. A drug with moderate abuse potential and accepted medical use
B. A drug with low abuse potential and accepted medical use
C. A drug with high abuse potential and accepted medical use
D. A drug with high abuse potential and no medical use
A. A drug with moderate abuse potential and accepted medical use
What drugs have a high abuse potential and no medical use?
Schedule I
What are the requirements for refilling Schedule III prescriptions?
A. They can be refilled up to five times in 6 months.
B. They cannot be refilled under any circumstances.
C. They can be refilled one time with a physician's authorization.
D. They can be refilled as often as a physician requests.
A. They can be refilled up to five times in 6 months.
True or false question.
Morphine, pure cocaine, and short-acting barbiturates are examples of Schedule II drugs.
true
True or false question.
Antianxiety drugs such as Librium and Valium are classified under Schedule IV.
true
True or false
Schedule III drugs may be refilled up to five times within six months with the physician's authorization.
true
Which of following are Schedule IV drugs? More than one answer may be correct.
Ambien
Valium
Phenobarbital
Secobarbital
Ambien
Valium
Phenobarbital
Which of the following types of drugs are in the Schedule V category? More than one answer may be correct.
A. Benzodiazepines, i.e.,alprazolam and diazepam
B. Preparations containing limited quantities of codeine
C. Antidiarrheal medications, i.e., diphenoxylate
D. Narcotic analgesics, i.e., pure codeine
B. Preparations containing limited quantities of codeine
C. Antidiarrheal medications, i.e., diphenoxylate
Which of the following defines a Schedule V drug?
A. A drug with high abuse potential and accepted medical use
B. A drug with no accepted medical use and high abuse potential
C. A drug with moderate abuse potential and accepted medical use
D. A drug with limited abuse potential and acceptable medical use
D. A drug with limited abuse potential and acceptable medical use