Quizzes 9-12

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Last updated 4:28 AM on 4/30/23
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100 Terms

1
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The ejection of milk that occurs while the infant is suckling is mediated by
a) Prolactin-induced myoepithelial cell contraction
b) Oxytocin-induced myoepithelial cell contraction
c) Acetylcholine-induced myoepithelial contraction
d) Local Reflex- induced myoepithelial contraction
e)Myogenic contraction of myoepithelial cells
b) Oxytocin-induced myoepithelial cell contraction
2
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Which part of the blastocyst develops into the fetus?
a) Outer cell mass
b) Trophoblast
c) Blastocoele
d) Inner cell mass
e) Morula
d) Inner cell mass
3
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What are different variations of the same gene called?
a) Autosomes
b) Haploid
c) Diploid
d) Sex chromosomes
e) Alleles
e) Alleles
4
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The placenta forms from
a) the trophoblast only
b) endometrial tissue only
c) chorionic villi only
d) the blastocoele only
e) both the chorionic villi and endometrial tissue of the mother
e) both the chorionic villi and endometrial tissue of the mother
5
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How many chromosomes do human somatic cells contain?
a) 6
b) 23
c) 12
d) 46
e) 92
d) 46
6
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A woman who is heterozygous for blood type A mates with a man who is homozygous for blood type O. What blood type(s) would their children have?
a) 75% homozygous type O
b) 50% type A, 50% type O
c) 75% heterozygous type A
d) 100% type A
e) 100% type O
b) 50% type A, 50% type O
7
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If a sperm carrying the "Y" chromosome fertilizes the ovum, the resulting offspring will be
a) female
B) haploid
c) fraternal twins
d) Rh-positive blood type
e) male
e) male
8
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If an individual carries two different alleles for the same trait, the individual is \________ for the trait.
a) homozygous
b) autosomous
c) polygenic
d)heterozygous
e) homologous
d) heterozygous
9
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The clear liquid secreted by the mammary glands before milk production begins is called
a) serum
b) colostrum
c) plasma
d) milk
e) peritoneal
b) colostrum
10
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Fraternal Twins result from
a) a blastula that splits into two blastulas
b) one zygote that splits into two zygotes
c) two eggs fertilized by one sperm cells
d) one egg that is fertilized by two different sperm
e) two different zygotes
e) two different zygotes
11
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The first stage of labor is the \_______ stage.
a) dilation
b) decidual
c) neonate
d) expulsion
e) placental
a) dilation
12
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If fertilization occurs, the \__________ is maintained because the embryo secretes
a) corpus cavernosum; human chorionic gonadotrophin
b) corpus albicans; placental prolactin
c) corpus luteum; luteinizing hormone
d) corpus albicans; human chorionic gonadotrophin
e) corpus luteum; human chorionic gonadotrophin
e) corpus luteum; human chorionic gonadotrophin
13
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In \_________, implantation may occur in the Fallopian tube rather than in the uterus
a) abortion
b) placenta previa
c) ectopic pregnancy
d) spontaneous abortion
e) hydramnios
c) ectopic pregnancy
14
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Which embryonic germ layer forms the brain and spinal cord?
a) endoderm
b) epiderm
c) mesoderm
d) ectoderm
e) trophoderm
d) ectoderm
15
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Oxygenated blood from the placenta travels to the fetus via the
a) decidua capsularis
b) umbilical arteries
c) umbilical vein
d) allantois
e) umbilical capillaries
c) umbilical vein
16
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The cell that directly results from the fusion of a secondary oocyte and a single sperm is called a(n)
a) zygote
b) morula
c) blastula
d) ootid
e) gastrula
a) zygote
17
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The layer of follicle cells that surround the unfertilized egg is called the
a) functional zone
b) tunica follicularis
c) zona pellucida
d) graafian follicle
e) corona radiata
e) corona radiata
18
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The expressed form of a gene is described as the organism's\___________.
a) karyotype
b) phenotype
c) genome
d) karyotype
b) phenotype
19
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If a digital image is made of chromosomes in a cell going through mitosis, and the chromosomes are sorted and paired, the resulting display is a \___________.
a) genotype
b) phenotype
c) genome
d) karyotype
d) karyotype
20
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Mitochondrial DNA (mDNA) is inherited\_____________.
a) only from the father
b) only from the mother
c) from both the father and the mother
d) from neither the father or the mother
b) only from the mother
21
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The epigenetic mark that silences the expression of a gene is \________ bound to the DNA or histone proteins.
a) an amine group
b) a methyl group
c) an acetyl group
d) a carboxyl group
b) a methyl group
22
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Albinisim is a recessive trait. If one parent is heterozygous for albinism, and the other parent does not carry the allele, what is the probability that they will have a child with albinism?
a) 50%
b) 100%
c) 25%
d) 0%
d) 0%
23
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Jeff made a detailed pedigree of his extended family over several generations. He noted all of the family members who expressed a specific genetic trait. He noted that this trait was not observed in every generation, and that it was expressed far more frequently in the males of the family. Based on this information alone, what terms would best describe this trait?
a) sex-linked chromosome
b) autosomal dominant
c) autosomal recessive
d) sex-linked recessive
d) sex-linked recessive
24
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How is polyspermy prevented?
a) cortical reaction
b) acrosomal reaction
c) capacitation
d) sperm migration
a) cortical reaction
25
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A positive feedback mechanism initiates the rhythmic contractions of labor. Which hormones are involved in this feedback loop?
a) relaxin and human chorionic gonadotrophin (hCG)
b) estrogens and progesterone
c) cortisol and aldosterone
d) prostaglandins and oxytocin
d) prostaglandins and oxytocin
26
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Which of the following is the best explanation for why the cells of the proximal convoluted tubule (PCT) contain so many mitochondria?
a) a great deal of active transport takes place in the PCT
b) cells of the PCT go through a great deal of mitosis
c) this provides the energy needed to fight kidney infection
d) contraction of the PCT moves filtrate through the tubule
a) a great deal of active transport takes place in the PCT
27
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One mechanism the kidney uses to raise systemic blood pressure is to
a) decrease urinary albumin concentration
b) decrease secretion of aldosterone
c) increase filtration into glomerular (Bowman's) capsule
d) increase secretion of renin by the juxtaglomerular complex
e) increase release of angiotensin II by the adrenal glands
d) increase secretion of renin by the juxtaglomerular complex
28
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Which of the following acts as the trigger for the initiation of micturition (voiding)?
a) the sympathetic efferents
b) motor neurons
c) the stretching of the bladder wall
d) the pressure of the fluid in the bladder
c) the stretching of the bladder wall
29
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The renal corpuscle is made up of\_________
a) Bowman's capsule and glomerulus
b) the renal papilla
c) the renal pyramid
d) the descending nephron loop
a) Bowman's capsule and glomerulus
30
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In response to increased levels of aldosterone, the kidneys produce
a) urine with a lower concentration of potassium ions
b) urine with a lower concentration of sodium ions
c) urine with a higher concentration of sodium ions
d) a larger volume of urine
e) urine with less glucose
b) urine with a lower concentration of sodium ions
31
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Urine is carried to the urinary bladder by
a) the calyces
b) blood vessels
c) lymphatics
d) the urethra
e) the ureters
e) the ureters
32
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The descending limb of the nephron loop\__________
a) is not permeable to water
b) contains fluid that becomes more concentrated as it moves down into the medulla
c) pulls water by osmosis into the lumen of the tubule
d) is freely permeable to sodium and urea
b) contains fluid that becomes more concentrated as it moves down into the medulla
33
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Which of the following is NOT reabsorbed by the proximal convoluted tubule?
a) Na+
b) glucose
c) water
d) creatinine
e) K+
d) creatinine
34
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Substances larger than \________ are normally not allowed to pass through the filtration membrane.
a) glucose
b) amino acids
c) urea
d) albumin
e) sodium ions
d) albumin
35
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The lining of the urinary bladder is composed of \____________ epithelium.
a) simple squamous
b) stratified squamous
c) transitional
d) pseudostratified columnar
c) transitional
36
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The following is a list of the blood vessels that carry blood to the kidney. In what order does blood pass through these vessels starting at the renal artery?
1. Afferent arteriole
2. Arcuate artery
3. Interlobar artery
4. Segmental artery
5. Glomerulus
6. Cortical radiate artery
7. Efferent arteriole
8. Peritubular capillary
a) 4, 3, 2, 6, 7, 5 ,1, 8
b) 4, 3 ,6, 2, 1, 5 ,7, 8
c) 4 ,6, 2, 3 ,7, 5 ,1, 8
d) 4, 6, 2 ,3, 1, 5 ,7, 8
e) 4, 3 ,2 ,6 ,1, 5, 7, 8
e) 4, 3 ,2 ,6 ,1, 5, 7, 8
37
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The presence of protein in the urine indicates which of the following?
a) damage to the filtration membrane
b) damage to the renal tubules
c) high levels of transcription and translation by the bodies tissues
d) too much protein in the diet
a) damage to the filtration membrane
38
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The macula densa cells respond to \_____________
a) changes in Na+ content of the filtrate
b) antidiuretic hormone
c) changes in pressure in the tubule
d) aldosterone
a) changes in Na+ content of the filtrate
39
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The fatty tissue surrounding the kidneys is important because it \________.
a) produces vitamin D and other chemicals needed by the kidney
b) is necessary as a barrier between the adrenal glands and kidneys
c) ensures adequate energy for the adrenal glands to operate efficiently
d) stabilizes the position of the kidneys by holding them in their normal position
e) all of the above
d) stabilizes the position of the kidneys by holding them in their normal position
40
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The mechanism of water reabsorption by the renal tubules is \____________.
a) active transport
b) osmosis
c) cotransport with sodium ions
d) filtration
c) cotransport with sodium ions
41
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The mechanism that establishes the medullary osmotic gradient depends most on the permeability properties of the \_____________.
a) collecting duct
b) distal convoluted tubule
c) loop of Henle
d) glomerular filtration membrane
c) loop of Henle
42
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Which of the following describes movement from peritubular capillaries into the renal tubules?
a) excretion
b) micturition
c) secretion
d) reabsorption
e) filtration
c) secretion
43
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The myogenic mechanism acts to restore the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) by changing:
a) blood pH
b) blood pressure
c) vessel diameter
d) tubular secretion of metabolic wastes
c) vessel diameter
44
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What physiological process occurs at the structure labeled "1"?
a) reabsorption
b) excretion
c) micturition
d) secretion
e) filtration
e) filtration
45
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Identify the structure labeled "5".
a) distal convoluted tubule
b) collecting duct
c) glomerulus
d) nephron loop
e) proximal convoluted tubule
a) distal convoluted tubule
46
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What is the effect of antidiuretic hormone on the cells of the collecting duct?
a) triggers synthesis of more sodium channels in the apical membranes
b) triggers synthesis of more potassium channels in the apical membranes
c) inhibits sodium reabsorption through the apical membranes
d) causes aquaporins to be inserted into the apical membranes
d) causes aquaporins to be inserted into the apical membranes
47
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If one says that the clearance value of glucose is zero, what does this mean?
a) 100% of glucose is absorbed
b) The clearance value of glucose is relatively high in a healthy adult
c) The glucose molecule is too large to be filtered out of the blood
d) Most of the glucose is filtered out of the blood and is not reabsorbed in the convoluted tubules
a) 100% of glucose is absorbed
48
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A patient excretes a large volume of very dilute urine on a continuing basis. This is may be due to
a) overproduction of aldosterone
b) dilation of the afferent arterioles
c) excessive ADH secretion
d) absence of ADH
e) hematuric oliguria
d) absence of ADH
49
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The chief force pushing water and solutes out of the blood across the filtration membrane is \____________.
a) glomerular hydrostatic pressure (glomerular blood pressure)
b) the ionic electrochemical gradient
c) protein-regulated diffusion
d) the size of the pores in the basement membrane of the capillaries
a) glomerular hydrostatic pressure (glomerular blood pressure)
50
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Erythropoietin is produced by the kidneys to:
a) regulate removal of metabolic wastes
b) regulate blood solute concentration
c) regulate blood cell production by the bone marrow
d) conserve or eliminate hydrogen and bicarbonate ions
c) regulate blood cell production by the bone marrow
51
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Blood analysis indicated a low pH, and CO2 levels are low as the patient is breathing rapidly. Given your knowledge of acid-base balance, which of the following is most likely?
a) metabolic alkalosis
b) metabolic acidosis
c) respiratory acidosis
d) respiratory alkalosis
b) metabolic acidosis
52
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What part of the brain controls the thirst mechanism?
a) medulla oblongata
b) cerebellum
c) hypothalamus
d) pons
c) hypothalamus
53
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Select the statement that best describes an acid.
a) An acid is a chemical that accepts a hydrogen ion (H+) in a solution.
b) An acid is a chemical that dissociates to release equal amounts of hydrogen ions (H+) and hydroxide ions (OH-).
c) An acid is a substance that generally has covalent bonds that do not dissociate into charged particles in water.
d) An acid is a chemical that dissociates in water to release a hydrogen ion (H+)
d) An acid is a chemical that dissociates in water to release a hydrogen ion (H+)
54
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Through what two systems is carbon dioxide eliminated from the body?
a) respiratory and urinary systems
b) cardiovascular and lymphatic systems
c) digestive and urinary systems
d) integumentary and skeletal systems
a) respiratory and urinary systems
55
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Which type of extracellular fluid (ECF) solution will cause a cell to gain water?
a) hypotonic
b) isotonic
c) hypertonic
d) both hypertonic and isotonic
a) hypotonic
56
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Sarah was so upset and nervous that a snake was in her house that she began hyperventilating. Predict the acid-base imbalance created by her psychological state.
a) respiratory acidosis
b) respiratory alkalosis
c) metabolic acidosis
d) metabolic alkalosis
b) respiratory alkalosis
57
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If the thyroid and parathyroid glands are surgically removed, which of the following would go out of balance without replacement therapy?
a) potassium ion levels
b) anion levels
c) calcium levels
d) sodium ion levels
c) calcium levels
58
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Which of the choices below exerts primary control over sodium levels in the body?
a) aldosterone
b) glucocorticoids
c) ADH
d) water levels
a) aldosterone
59
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Which of the following fluids has the greatest concentration of potassium ions?
a) interstitial fluid
b) extracellular fluid (ECF)
c) cytosol
d) plasma
c) cytosol
60
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Water loss from the body that we do not notice is known as:
a) insensible water loss
b) obligatory water loss
c) sensible water loss
d) nonsense water loss
a) insensible water loss
61
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A falling blood pH and a rising partial pressure of carbon dioxide due to pneumonia or emphysema leads to \___________.
a) respiratory alkalosis
b) metabolic alkalosis
c) metabolic alkalosis
d) respiratory acidosis
d) respiratory acidosis
62
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A patient has been experiencing prolonged vomiting. Since she has lost many hydrogen ions, you predict her acid-base imbalance to be:
a) respiratory acidosis
b) respiratory alkalosis
c) metabolic acidosis
d) metabolic alkalosis
d) metabolic alkalosis
63
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Which of the following is an excess accumulation of interstitial fluid?
a) hypocalcemia
b) hypovolemia
c) dehydration
d) edema
d) edema
64
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Which hormone promotes the reabsorption of water from the kidneys back into the ECF by osmosis?
a) antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
b) aldosterone
c) atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)
d) angiotensin-II
a) antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
65
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Angiotensin-II restores fluid-homeostasis when dehydration occurs due to inadequate fluid intake. Which of the following is NOT an effect of angiotensin-II?
a) increase sodium ion reabsorption
b) stimulation of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) secretion
c) vasodilation
d) stimulation of aldosterone secretion
c) vasodilation
66
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Determine the effect of hypokalemia on resting membrane potential.
a) Hypokalemia causes the membrane potential to become depolarized.
b) Hypokalemia promotes a more positive resting membrane potential.
c) Hypokalemia has no effect on resting membrane potential.
d) Hypokalemia causes the membrane potential to become hyperpolarized.
d) Hypokalemia causes the membrane potential to become hyperpolarized.
67
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Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) is a hormone that is made in the atria of the heart. The influence of this hormone is to \_____________.
a) reduced blood pressure and blood volume by inhibiting sodium and water retention
b) prevent pH changes caused by organic acids
c) activate the renin-angiotensin mechanism
d) enhance atrial contractions
a) reduced blood pressure and blood volume by inhibiting sodium and water retention
68
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What type of neuron detects changes in plasma osmolarity?
a) nociceptor
b) osmoreceptor
c) baroreceptor
d) chemoreceptor
b) osmoreceptor
69
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Which of the following dissociates into ions when placed in water?
a) electrolyte
b) nonelectrolyte
c) glucose
d) starch
a) electrolyte
70
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What is a major function of potassium ions in the body?
a) repolarization of neurons and muscle cells after action potential
b) activating enzymes
c) forming hydroxyapatite salts in osseous tissue
d) maintaining osmotic pressure in the extracellular fluid (ECF)
a) repolarization of neurons and muscle cells after action potential
71
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When antidiuretic hormone (ADH) levels are low, \________.
a) most of the water reaching the collecting ducts in not reabsorbed
b) nearly all of the filtered water is reabsorbed
c) aquaporins are inserted into the collecting duct principal cell apical membranes
d) a small volume of concentrated urine is excreted
a) most of the water reaching the collecting ducts in not reabsorbed
72
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The term hypotonic hydration refers to \________.
a) a condition that is caused by high levels of sodium in the extracellular fluid compartment
b) the unpleasant feeling people have after drinking too much liquor
c) the feeling one might have after profuse sweating with exertion
d) a condition that may result from drinking excessive amounts of water
d) a condition that may result from drinking excessive amounts of water
73
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An elevated sodium ion concentration is known as:
a) hypoglycemia
b) hypokalemia
c) hypercalcemia
d) hypernatremia
d) hypernatremia
74
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What triggers the release of parathyroid hormone (PTH)?
a) increasing potassium ion concentration of the blood
b) increasing calcium ion concentration of the blood
c) decreasing sodium ion concentration of the blood
d) decreasing calcium ion concentration of the blood
d) decreasing calcium ion concentration of the blood
75
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What hormone reduces blood pressure and blood volume by inhibiting nearly all events that promote vasoconstriction and sodium ion and water retention?
a) thyroxine
b) antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
c) aldosterone
d) atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)
d) atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)
76
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Each of the following organs is a component of the digestive tract except the
a) esophagus
b) pharynx
c) spleen
d) colon
e) stomach
c) spleen
77
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Waves of muscular contractions that propel the contents of the digestive tract are called
a) churning movements
b) mastication
c) pendular movements
d) peristalsis
e) segmentation
d) peristalsis
78
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Sandwiched between the layer of circular and longitudinal muscle in the muscularis is the
a) muscularis mucosa
b) submucosa
c) submucosal neural plexus
d) mucosa
e) myenteric plexus
e) myenteric plexus
79
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The oral mucosa has \___________ epithelium.
a) simple squamous
b) pseudostratified
c) stratified squamous
d) stratified columnar
e) transitional
c) stratified squamous
80
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Bile salts break up the fat globule into smaller fat droplets. This role of bile salts is best described as \________.
a) lipid digestion
b) lipid emulsification
c) lipid ingestion
d lipid absorption
b) lipid emulsification
81
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A ruptured appendix is life threatening because \____________.
a) is is likely to cause a massive infection of the abdominopelvic cavity
b) is is likely to cause severe internal bleeding
c) the large intestine will no longer be able to receive digested material from the small intestine
d) loss of the appendix's function will cause an immune deficiency in the digestive system
a) is is likely to cause a massive infection of the abdominopelvic cavity
82
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Which of the following is NOT a function of cholecystokinin (CCK)?
a) increase production of pancreatic juice
b) open hepatopancreatic sphincter
c) stimulate gall bladder to release bile
d) increase production of stomach acid
d) increase production of stomach acid
83
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The function of the hepatic portal circulation is to \________.
a) return glucose to the general circulation when blood sugars is low
b) carry toxins to the kidney for disposal through the urinary tract
c) collect absorbed nutrient for metabolic processing in the liver
d) distribute hormones throughout the body
c) collect absorbed nutrient for metabolic processing in the liver
84
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The capillaries that nourish the epithelium and absorb digested nutrients are found in the \________.
a) submucosa
b) serosa
c) adventitia
d) lamina propria
d) lamina propria
85
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The absorptive effectiveness of the small intestine is enhanced by increasing the surface area of the mucosal lining. Which of the following accomplish this task?
a) the vast array of digestive enzymes
b) Brunner's glands and Peyer patches
c) villi, microvilli
d) the rugae and haustra
c) villi, microvilli
86
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Which of the following is NOT true of saliva?
a) moistens food and acids in compacting of the bolus
b) contains acids which aid in chemical digestion
c) cleanses the mouth
d) contains enzymes that begin the breakdown of carbohydrates
b) contains acids which aid in chemical digestion
87
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Pepsinogen, an inactive digestive enzyme, is secreted by the \________.
a) chief cells of the stomach
b) goblet cells of the small intestine
c) Brunner's glands in the duodenum
d) parietal cells of the stomach
a) chief cells of the stomach
88
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You have just eaten a meal high in complex carbohydrates. Which of the following enzymes will help to digest the meal?
a) amylase
b) gastrin
c) cholecytstokinin
d) trypsin
a) amylase
89
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The function of the goblet cells is to \________.
a) Provide protection against invading bacteria and other disease-causing organisms that enter the digestive tract in food
b) Secrete buffers in order to keep the pH of the digestive tract close to neutral
c) Produce mucus that protects parts of the digestive organs from the effects of powerful enzymes needed for food digestion
d) Absorb nutrients from digested food and store them for future use
c) Produce mucus that protects parts of the digestive organs from the effects of powerful enzymes needed for food digestion
90
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Which of the following are types of papillae on the tongue that contains taste buds?
a) circumvallate and filiform
b) fungiform, circumvallate, and filiform
c) fungiform and circumvallate
d) palatine and circumvallate
c) fungiform and circumvallate
91
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What stomach secretion is necessary for normal hemoglobin production in RBCs?
a) intrinsic factor
b) HCL
c) gastric lipase
d) pepsinogen
a) intrinsic factor
92
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Select the correct statement about the regulation of gastric secretion.
a) The presence of food in the stomach prevents hormonal control of gastric secretion.
b) Vagus stimulation of the stomach results in decreased secretion of gastric juice.
c) Gastric secretion is enhanced by very low pH (below a pH of 2).
d) Gastric secretion can be stimulated before food has entered the mouth.
d) Gastric secretion can be stimulated before food has entered the mouth.
93
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Paneth cells\___________.
a) secrete bicarbonate ions
b) secrete digestive enzymes
c) secrete enzymes that kill bacteria
d) secrete hormones
c) secrete enzymes that kill bacteria
94
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The sympathetic nervous system:
a) inhibits digestive processes
b) stimulate digestive processes
c) is the primary regulatory of digestive processes
d) has no effect on digestive processes
a) inhibits digestive processes
95
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The crown of a tooth is covered by:
a) enamel
b) dentin
c) pulp
d) cementum
a) enamel
96
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What controls the passage of chyme from the last region of the stomach to the duodenum region of the small intestine?
a) ileocecal valve
b) pyloric sphincter
c) lower esophageal sphincter
d) gastroesophageal sphincter
b) pyloric sphincter
97
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Which cells release hydrochloric acid (HCl) into the stomach?
a) diffuse neuroendocrine system (DNES) cells
b) parietal cells
c) chief cells
d) mucous neck cells
b) parietal cells
98
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Which cranial nerve stimulates acid secretion during the stomach's gastric phase?
a) accessory nerve
b) hypoglossal nerve?
c) vagus nerve
d) glossopharyngeal nerve
c) vagus nerve
99
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Which hormone increase acid secretion by the stomach?
a) somatostatin
b) gastrin
c) secretin
d) gastrin-inhibitory peptide (GIP)
b) gastrin
100
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Cherise is lactose-intolerant because she produces insufficient amounts of an enzyme called:
a) lactase
b) galactose
c) maltase
d) sucrase
a) lactase