CARDIO TCOL SANA PUMASA NA AKO

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Last updated 10:58 PM on 3/26/26
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84 Terms

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PHASE 0

ā€œupstrokeā€-Opening of Na channel

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PHASE 2

ā€œPlateauā€-Sustained inward movement of Ca and outward movement of K-Can cause homeostasis

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PHASE 1

ā€œEarly fast repolaā€-Closure of Na channel; opening of K channel (dec. AP)

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PHASE 4

ā€œDiastole or resting stateā€-All channels close

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Type I drugs

Generally act by inhibiting fast sodium channel responsible for initial cardiac cell depolarization and impulse conduction.

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Type II anti-arrhythmic drugs

Act by blocking beta-adrenergic receptors

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Type III anti-arrhythmic drugs

Blocks potassium channels to prolong the duration of the action potential and the effective refractive period.

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Type Ia agents

depress the fast sodium-dependent channel, slowing phase zero of the cardiac action potential.

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disopyramide (Norpace)
quinidine
procainamide (pronestyl)

Type Ia drugs

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Disopyramide and Quinidine

Type I agents also have anticholinergic activity

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Quinidine and procainamide

Commonly used for suppression of

acute and chronic supraventricular

and ventricular arrhythmias

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Quinidine

has alpha-adrenergic receptor-blocking activity

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Quinidine

oldest anti-dysrrhythmic drugs

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Procainamide


has ganglionic-and

neuromuscular-blocking activity

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D 1 g
Q 1 g
P 5 g

Toxic dose of type Ia agents

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Sinoatrial arrest
Sinus bradycardia

Type 1 toxic effects

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SLE like symptoms

Procainamide can cause what

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hypertonic NaHCO3

Antidote for Type Ia

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hemodialysis

Quinidine can be remove by ____

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hemoperfusion

Disopyramide can be remove through ____

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Lidocaine
Mexiletine
Tocainide

Type Ib drugs

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MEGX (monoethylglycinexylidide) and GX (glycine xylidide)

Lidocaine metabolizes in

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Lidocaine

is an aminoacyl amide synthetic

derivative of cocaine.

It is an antidysrhythmic and local

Anesthetic agent

Ā 

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Moricizine
Flecainide
Propafenone
Encainide

Type IC drugs

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Encainide

was withdrawn from US and Canadian markets

in Dec of 1991 due to increased mortality

in the cardiac dysrhythmia trial

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Encainide

analog of lysergic acid, is at least 10 times more potent than procainamide.

Its absorption and hepatic metabolism is rapid; these metabolites are as active as

the original drug.

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Type III drugs

Blocks potassium channels to prolong the duration of the action potential and the effective refractive period.

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Bretylium

is a quaternary benzyl ammonium compound for treating

lidocaine-refractory arrhythmias.

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catecholamine release

IV administration of bretylium initially causes release of catecholamines from nerve endings, followed by inhibition of ________

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hypotension

Major toxic side effect is _____ caused by inhibition of catecholamine release.

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rapid intravenous

After______ injection,

transient hypertension, nausea

and vomiting may occur.

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Amiodarone

is a non-competitive beta-adrenergic blocker, which may

explain its tendency to cause

brady arrhythmias.

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IODINE

Amiodarone may release____

and chronic use has resulted in

altered thyroid function.

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40-50 days

Amiodarone half-life

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BETA-ADRENERGIC BLOCKERS

Widely usedfor the treatment of hypertension, angina pectoris, migraine headaches and glaucoma

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B–Betaxolol

B–Bisoprolol

E–Esmolol

A–Acebutolol

A–Atenolol

M–Metoprolol

Selective Beta blocker list

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P–Propranolol

P–Pindolol

A–Acebutolol

L–Labetalol

M–Metoprolol

Membrane Stabilizing Activity list

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L–Labetalol

C–Carvedilol

Mixed alpha and beta blocking effect

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A–Acebutolol

B–Bisoprolol

C–Carteolol

P–Pindolol

P-Penbutolol

Intrinsic sympathomimetic activity

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• Propranolol

• Nadolol

• Timolol

• Pindolol

• Sotalol

Non selective –β1and β2 blockers

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lipid soluble

propranolol is a _____ that can cross BBB and can cause Seizures.

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Pindolol

other agents with beta-agonist activity

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Sotalol

Beta blocker that torsades de pointes and ventricular fibrillation

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2-3 times

There are no clear

guidelines, but ingestion of only_____

times the therapeutic dose

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Glucagon 0.1-0.3 mg/kg IV

Beta blockers antidote

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hypertonic 1-2 mEq NaHCO3

other antidote for beta blocker

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Isoproterenol/Magnesium

Sotalol poisoning treatment

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phenoxybenzamine, phentolamine, tolazoline

Vasodilators have been in clinical practice since the 1940’s

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Prazosin

1st selective α1 inhibitor was introduced in the early 1970’s

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Doxazosin
Indoramin
Terazosin
Urapidil

Newer a1 drugs

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Prazosin and other newer α1

specific agents are associated with little or no

reflex tachycardia

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Indoramin

No fatalities have been

reported except with _____

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-L-type Calcium Channel blockers

Calcium channel blockers blocks

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hyperglycemia, lactic acidosis

Other physiologic responses include in CCB produce

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chest radiograph

may be helpful to

determine heart size

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abdominal radiography

If bowel obstruction is suspected what test ___

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Troponin 1

_______ may help differentiate drug-induced bradycardia from

ischemic causes.

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5-15 mg/IV

Prehospital dose of glucagon _____

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Verapamil

the first clinically useful member of this group, was the result of attempts to synthesize more active analogs of papaverine, a vasodilator alkaloid found in the opium poppy

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Verapamil

has the greatest depressant effect on the heart and may decrease

heart rate and cardiac output.

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Diltiazem

CCB has intermediate actions

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Inamrinone

a phosphodiesterase inhibitor with inotropic

activity, may be of additional benefit in profound cardiac

contractile failure

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Glucagon

Acts via cAMP to increase cardiac

contractility and also may decrease heart

block.

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50-100 mL

Minibag dose

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Calcium gluconate

Moderates nerve and muscle performance,

and facilitates normal cardiac function

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100 mg/mL ——> 10 mL

1 ampule = ____

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3-12 g slow IV push

Adult dose calcium gluconate

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100 mg (1 mL)/kg slow IV push

Pediatric dose calcium gluconate

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Inamrinone (Inocor)

Phosphodiesterase inhibitor that acts by

inhibiting breakdown of cAMP, thus

prolonging effect on the release of calcium into

the cytosol

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<10–20%

Nitrates & Nitrites bioavailability

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Oxymetazoline and tetrahydrozoline

are nasal decongestants that may

cause toxicity identical to that of clonidine

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adults 160-320 mg

Guanabenz MILD toxic dose ADULT

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12 mg

Guanabenz MILD toxic dose3 year old

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28 mg

Guanabenz SEVERE toxicity dose 19 month old

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480 mg

Guanabenz SEVERE toxicity dose 3 year old

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2g

Methyldopa. More than _____ in adults is

considered a toxic dose

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25 g

Methyldopa death was reported in an adult after an ingestion of ____

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Naloxone

_____ reverses signs and symptoms of clonidine overdose. Because the overdose mimics opioid intoxication,

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Naloxone

_____ is indicated because narcotics may also have been ingested.

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Cyanide poisoning

Na2S2O3

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amyl nitrite

Because of its unpleasant odor and short duration of

action, is now obsolete for angina.

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Nitroglycerin

may be considered the prototype of the group.

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