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Last updated 6:19 AM on 12/10/25
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142 Terms

1
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Name all CRANIAL NERVES

  • CN I: Olfactory nerve: Sense of smell 

  • CN II: Optic nerve: Vision 

  • CN III: Oculomotor nerve: Controls most eye movements, including pupil constriction 

  • CN IV: Trochlear nerve: Controls downward and inward eye movements 

  • CN V: Trigeminal nerve: Sensation of the face and controls chewing muscles 

  • CN VI: Abducens nerve: Controls outward eye movement 

  • CN VII: Facial nerve: Controls facial expressions, taste from the front of the tongue, and salivary glands 

  • CN VIII: Vestibulocochlear nerve: Hearing and balance 

  • CN IX: Glossopharyngeal nerve: Taste from the back of the tongue, gag reflex, and swallowing 

  • CN X: Vagus nerve: Sensations and movements of organs in the chest and abdomen, as well as the gag reflex 

  • CN XI: Accessory nerve: Controls muscles in the neck and shoulders 

  • CN XII: Hypoglossal nerve: Controls tongue movements

2
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Arrange the following to reflect the correct sequence an action potential would follow to reach the lateral olfacory area of the brain
1. olfactory bulb
2. olfactory cortex
3. olfactory epithelium
4. olfactory tract

3,1,4,2

3
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Why does inhaling deeply and slowly through the nose help to identify an odor?

more air containing the odor is brought into contact with the olfactory epithelium

4
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In order for a molecule to be detected by the olfactory neurons, it must

be dissolved in fluid covering the olfactory epithelium

5
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the lateral olfactory area

is the site of conscious perception of odors

6
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Which type of papilli are not associated with the taste buds?

filiform

7
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Which are the most sensitive taste buds found in the tongue?

foliate

8
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What are gustatory cells?

taste receptor cell: convert chemical compounds from food into electrical signals to the brain

9
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What do you call inflammation of the ciliary glands of the eyelashes?

blepharitis

10
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What do we call the transparent mucous membrane that covers the anterior surface of the eye?

bulbar conjunctiva

11
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When are tears produced and what do they do?

irritation and emotion and they lubricate, wash out dust and release stress

12
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Why does someone’s nose run when they cry?

tears drain into the tear ducts into the nasal cavity and mix with mucus

13
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What are the nerves that innervate the eye muscles?

oculomotor (3), trochlear (4), abducens (6)

14
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What is the outermost tunic of the eyeball?

fibrous tunic or the sclera

15
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What do we call the transparent anterior portion of the sclera?

cornea

16
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What part of the eye is the vascular tube?

uvea

17
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What is the ciliary body attached to?

lens via zonular fibers and to sclera

18
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Where do we find the Canal of Schlemm? What does it prevent?

junction of cornea and sclera. it collects aqueous humor to prevent a buildup of fluid that increases IOP (prevents galucoma)

19
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What separates the anterior and posterior compartments of the eye?

iris

20
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What functions are carried out by both aqueous and vitreous humor?

keep eyeballs shape, nutrients, remove waste and provide a clear path for light to retina

21
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What is the function of the vitreous humor?

maintain eyes transparent gel like structure, keep retina in place

22
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What is glaucoma?

vision loss and blindness if untreated. group of eye conditions damaging the optic nerve like IOP pressure

23
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What should happen to the lens to focus on objects further than 20 feet?

ciliary muscles relax, lens flattens and becoms thinnger

24
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What factor affects depth of focus?

pupil size, visual acuity, age, target contrast and accomodation

25
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What is the pigmented layer of the retina?

retinal pigment epithelium

26
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What could cause night blindness?

vitamin A deficiency

27
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What does light and dark adaptation involve?

process by which eyes adjust to different light conditions by changing their sensitivity

28
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where are photo receptors located

retina

29
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If all vision in left eye is lost, what was damaged?

optic nerve

30
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What is myopia?

distant objects are blurry

31
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What is hyperopia?

close objects are blurry

32
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What is Presbyopia?

loss of focus on close objects

33
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Where are the sensory cells for hearing located?

in the organ of corti

34
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Which nerve carries auditory impulses to the vestibulocochlear nerve?

35
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What determines the position of the head with respect to gravity?

vestibular system and utricle and saccule

36
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What helps a person detect movement in all directions?

vestibular system

37
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What is the function of the nervous system?

receive sensory input, send motor output

38
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Where does protein synthesis in neurons occur in?

Cell bodies or soma

39
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What is the function of axons?

-Help with the cable transmission between neurons.
-Have a distal portion that branches to form the presynaptic terminals

40
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What are unipolar neurons? Bipolar? Multipolar? Pseudopolar?

Unipolar: One axon which extends into dendrites
Bipolar: one axon and one dendrite (sensory afferent neurons)
Multipolar: One axon with two or more dendrites
Pseudounipolar: Single short process that splits into two axons (no dendrites)

41
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What are neuroglia? Which cells are part of this group?

  • Major support tissue in CNS
    -Part of the blood-brain barrier (Astrocyte)
    -Neuroglia form myelin sheaths arounds some axons
    -Produce cerebrospinal fluid

42
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What kind of substances pass through the blood brain barrier?

water, small ions, lipophilic molecules, essential polar molecules

43
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What are the phagocytic cells in the CNS called?

microglia- small & scarce cells; activated by injury into wandering phagocytic cells within CNS; ingest disease-causing microorganisms, dead neurons, and cellular debris.

44
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Define the following cells: microglia, astrocytes, oligodendrocytes, ependymal cells, Schwann cells.

  • Microglia: activated by injury/ phagocytic cells/ ingest disease causing microorganisms

  • Astrocytes: blood-brain barrier/ transports nutrients & gases between blood vessels and neurons.

  • Oligodendrocytes: Form Myelin

  • Ependymal Cells: Manufacture and circulate cerebrospinal fluid.

  • Schwann Cells: encircle axons found in PNS to provide them with myelination.

45
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What is a local potential?

  • small local changes in potential of a neuron's plasma membrane; serve as vital triggers for long-distance action potentials
    - graded potential

46
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Burn patients are more likely to suffer from what condition due to destruction of cells and release of their contents?

Infection contraction

47
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What do we call the junction between two neurons?

synpase

48
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What substance is released from the presynaptic terminal?

Acetylcholine

49
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Action potentials of a chemical synapse travel from the presynaptic terminal to what structure?

To postsynaptic membrane

50
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What is EPSP (excitatory post synaptic potential)?

small local potentials depolarize to reach threshold

51
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What is IPSP (inhibitory post synaptic potential)?

Neuron membrane hyperpolarizes, less likely to reach treshold

52
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What are oscillatory circuits of neurons?

rhythmic and/or repetitive electrical activity generated spontaneously and in response to stimuli by neural tissue in the central nervous system.

53
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What are receptor molecules?

proteins, either inside or on the surface of a cell, that bind to specific signaling molecules called ligands

54
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What are g-proteins and where are they found?

messengers found in eukaryotic cells lining plasma membrane

55
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What is second messenger?

smaller molecule that relays signals from a cell surface receptor to a target molecule inside a cell

56
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Name the types of diffusion.

simple, facilitated, osmosis, active transport

57
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What is the role of mRNA?

coded DNA message is carried to ribosomes to make protein

58
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What are peroxisomes? Which organ would have them in large numbers?

small organelles that detoxify, perform metabolic function; liver and kidney

59
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What is glycolysis?

breaks down one molecule of glucose into two molecules of pyruvate, releasing energy in the form of ATP and NADH

60
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In terms of protein synthesis, what is the sequence of transcription?

initiation: RNA polymerase binds to DNA sequence marks the start and unzips DNA

elongation: RNA polymerase adds nucleotides (A, U, C, G)

termination: RNA stops at AUG creating a new mRNA molecule

61
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Difference between endocrine and exocrine gland. Which has ducts?

endocrine: ductless and secrete hormones directly into bloodstream

exocrine: ducts used to release substances onto surfaces

62
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What would be classified as a holocrine gland?

  • where entire cell disintegrates and ruptures releasing oil substance onto surface

  • sebaceous gland, earwax glands

63
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What are proteoglycans?

large molecule made of core protein and GAG chains

  • provide structure support, regulate cell signaling, maintain hydration

64
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What is fluid connective tissue?

blood, lymph

  • connective tissue with liquid ECM that transports substances through body

65
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In what kind of bone are lamellae found ?

compact bone

66
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Reticular tissue is found where?

spleen, lymph nodes, liver, bone marrow: immune activity

67
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What type of joint is freely mobile?

synovial join: knee, elbow, shoulder

68
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What does edema look like and how does it happen?

swelling, indentation when pressure is applied, shiny stretched skin

69
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Where do you find hemopoietic tissue?

red bone marrow of bones in pelvis, sternum, ribs

70
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What happens to tissue as you age?

atrophy, no elasticity, increased stiffness, thinner

71
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What are the functions of the endocrine system?

growth and development, reproduction, hormones, maintain body’s stress and responses

72
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How do stretchmarks develop?

when body grows or stretches too quickly which causes collagen and elastin to break

73
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What are Keloids?

thick raised scar caused by overproduction of collagen

74
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What type of incision do you make to avoid keloids?

hiding incision folds, fine sutures

75
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Name the layers of the skin

  1. epidermis

  2. dermis

  3. hypodermis

76
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What is the medical word for fingerprints?

dermatoglyphs: also called papillary ridges

77
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What are the degrees of burn injuries? Describe.

first degree: red, painful, only on epidermis

second: epidermis and part of dermis, red, blistered, wet, swollen

third: reaches subcutaneous tissue, white, leathery, charred, numb

fourth degree: down to the bone, charred, black

78
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What is melanin and what influences its production?

pigment by melanocytes

  • influenced by genetics, hormones, environment, age

79
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What gland causes body odor?

apocrine sweat glands

80
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Types of bone structures

long, short, flat, irregular, sesamoid

81
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What is hydroxyapatite?

mineral form of calcium apatite that provides bones with harness and strength

82
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What are canaliculi?

channels that connect cavities called lacunae

83
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Intramembranous ossification forms what type of bone?

flat bones and some irregular bones

  • direct development of bone from fibrous membranes (connective tissue) rather than cartilage model

84
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Endochondral ossification forms what type of bone?

long bones, short, vertebrae and ribs

  • cartilage model is replaced by bone tissue

85
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What elements does normal bone growth require?

calcium, phosphorous, magnesium, zinc

86
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What keeps your head erect?

ligumenta nuchae

87
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Where does the spine pass through (superior)?

vertebral canal

88
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What is it called when the maxilla does not form?

maxillary hypoplasia

89
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What comes out when you have a herniated disc?

nucleus pulposus: gel like core that is a shock absorber

90
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Which ribs connect to the sternum?

true ribs: 1-7

91
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What is the name of ribs that do not connect to the sternum?

false ribs: 8-10

floating ribs: 11-12

92
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What is the sternal angle?

ridge on chest where the upper part of sternum meets the body of the sternum

93
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What two structures form the shoulder joint?

ball of the humerus fits into the socket (glenoid cavity) of scapula

94
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What is the pointed part of the elbow?

olecranon

95
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What is the name of the “hip socket”?

acetabulum

96
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Where is the greater trochanter, lateral malleolus, and medial malleolus?

greater trochanter: top of thigh bone on outer side of hip

lateral malleolus: bony bump on outer part of ankle joint (fibula)

medial malleolus: bony bump on inner part of ankle joint (tibia)

97
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What does talus do?

critical link between the lower leg and foot: support body weight and transfer forces during locomotion

98
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What membrane secretes the fluid that keeps joints moist?

synovial membrane

  • secretes synovial fluid

99
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What is a bursa and what is its function?

fluid filled sacs that are like cushions between bones

  • reduce friction for smooth gliding movement

100
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Describe protraction, retraction, inversion, eversion.

protraction: move body forward in horizontal plane

retraction: move body backwards like bringing chin back to normal position

inversion: turn foot inward to the midline

eversion: turn foot outward, laterally