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Which group of messengers is defined as acting on cells within the same tissue?

1. autocrines

2. hormones

3. paracrines

4. eicosanoids

paracrines

A major difference between neurotransmitters and hormones is that hormones reach their destination via

1. direct contact on their target cell

2. cerebrospinal fluid

3. ducts

4. the blood

the blood

A major determinant of a hormone’s mechanism of action is

1. whether the hormonal molecule is hydrophobic or hydrophilic

2. its size

3. whether it is rapid acting or slow acting

4. if it activates gene activity or not

whether the hormonal molecule is hydrophobic or hydrophilic

Receptors for steroid hormones are commonly located

1. inside the target cell

2. on the plasma membrane of the target cell

3. in the blood plasma

4. in the extracellular fluid

inside the target cell

In order for a hormone to activate a target cell, the target cell must possess

1. a receptor

2. a second messenger

3. the hormone

4. a chaperone

a receptor

Which of these characteristics is exclusive to the endocrine system when compared with the nervous system

1. relies on release of chemicals that bind to specific receptors

2. relies primarily on negative feedback mechanisms

3. uses epinephrine and norepinephrine as chemical messengers

4. effective in coordinating cell, tissue, and organ activities on a sustained, long-term basis

effective in coordinating cell, tissue, and organ activities on a sustained, long-term basis

Choose the term that does not belong in the following groupings

1. steroid hormone

2. protein hormone

3. second messenger

4. membrane receptors

steroid hormone

Choose the term that does not belong in the following groupings

1. glucocorticoids

2. steroids

3. aldosterone

4. growth hormone

growth hormone

Interaction with a membrane-bound receptor will transduce the hormonal message via

1. depolarization

2. direct gene activation

3. a second messenger

4. endocytosis

a second messenger

Second messenger-activating hormones circulate in minute quantities because

1. they are not important signal molecules

2. small concentrations of hormone can activate many intracellular signals via amplification

3. they are continuously released from the gland

4. neurotransmitters also bind to hormone receptors

small concentrations of hormone can activate many intracellular signals via amplification

Which of the following molecules act as second messengers

1. cAMP

2. Ca2+

3. Inositol triphosphate

4. all of the above

All of the above

When the pancreas releases insulin in direct response to blood glucose, this is an example of ____ stimulation

1. humoral

2. neural

3. hormonal

4. negative feedback

humoral

When an infant suckles at his mother’s breast, the mother’s neurohypophysis releases oxytocin. This is an example of _____ stimulation

1. humoral

2. neural

3. hormonal

4. negative feedback

neural

When the ovaries secrete estrogen in response to the hormone GnRH, this is an example of ____ stimulation

1. humoral

2. neural

3. hormonal

4. negative feedback

hormonal

Choose the term that does not belong in the following groupings

1. posterior lobe

2. hormone storage

3. nervous tissue

4. anterior lobe

anterior lobe

Blood levels of hormones are kept within very narrow ranges by ____ mechanisms

1. humoral

2. neural

3. hormonal

4. negative feedback

negative feedback

Which hormone is produced in the hypothalamus

1. ADH

2. ACTH

3. LH

4. GH

ADH

Hormones secreted into the hypophyseal portal system are detected by the

1. posterior pituitary

2. anterior pituitary

3. median eminence

4. infundibulum

anterior pituitary

The long bone growth-promoting effects of growth hormone are mediated by

1. somatosatin

2. somatotrophs

3. insulin-like growth factors

4. insulin

insulin-like growth factors

Secretions from corticotrophs activate cells of the ______, while secretions from gonadotrophs affect cells of the ______.

1. adrenal cortex; gonads

2. thyroid; mammary glands

3. gonads; adrenal cortex

4. mammary glands; gonads

adrenal cortex; gonads

A patient is displaying high volumes of urine output and severe dehydration. The most likely cause is

1. hyposecretion of oxytocin

2. hypersecretion of oxytocin

3. hyposecretion of ADH

4. hypersecretion of ADH

hyposecretion of ADH

Where is iodide located in the thyroid gland?

1. secretory vesicles inside follicular cells

2. lumen of follicle

3. golgi apparatus of parafollicular cells

4. cytoplasm of follicular cells

cytoplasm of follicular cells

Which of the following is an indirect effect of PTH

1. increasing osteoclast activity

2. increasing calcium absorption in the intestines

3. increasing calcium reabsorption in the kidney

4. activating vitamin D

increasing calcium absorption in the intestines

A patient is losing weight rapidly, sweating profusely, and is always anxious. The patient may be suffering from

1. hypothyroidism

2. cretinism

3. hyperthyroidism

4. hypersecretion of calcitonin

hyperthyroidism

______ is the adrenal hormone responsible for maintaining appropriate blood sodium levels

1. cortisol

2. DHEA

3. aldosterone

4. epinephrine

aldosterone

Why are diabetics continuously thirsty and why do they frequently urinate

1. less water is reclaimed by osmosis in the kidneys

2. water loss reduces blood volume, promoting secretion of ADH

3. Glucose is lost in the urine, which increases blood volume

4. 1 and 2 are correct

1 and 2 are correct

In what ways are hormonal effects of epinephrine and norepinephrine from the adrenal medulla similar to the effects of glucocorticoids from the zona fasciculata

1. hormones from both are under the ultimate control of the sympathetic nervous system

2. both increase cardiac activity and blood pressure

3. both are stimulated by angiotensin II

4. both increase blood glucose levels and promote the breakdown of stored fats into fatty acids

both increase blood glucose levels and promote the breakdown of stored fats into fatty acids

Which of the following is not an action of glucagon

1. release of glucose into the blood by liver cells

2. transport of glucose into most body cells

3. synthesis of glucose from lactic acid

4. breakdown of glycogen

transport of glucose into most body cells

The secretion of ____ helps regulate our circadian rhythms

1. estrogen

2. testosterone

3. thyroid hormones

4. melatonin

melatonin

Which of the following structures produces a hormone responsible for stimulating red blood cell production

1. stomach

2. heart

3. kidney

4. skin

kidney

Which of the following structures produces a precursor to hormonal vitamin D, immportant for CA2+ regulation?

1. stomach

2. heart

3. kidney

4. skin

skin

After centrifuging, which of the listed blood components contains the components of immune function

1. Plasma

2. buffy coat

3. erythrocytes

4. hematocrit

buffy coat

The major function of the most common plasma protein, albumin, is

1. maintenance of plasma osmotic pressure

2. buffering changes in plasma pH

3. fighting foreign invaders

4. both 1 and 2

both 1 and 2

Red blood cells are efficient oxygen transport cells. of the following characteristics, which is the major contributor to the significant oxygen-carrying capacity of a red blood cell

1. red blood cells lack mitochondria

2. red blood cells don’t divide

3. red blood cells are biconcave discs

4. red blood cells contain myoglobin

red blood cells lack mitochondria

Each hemoglobin can transport ___ oxygen molecules

1. 4

2. 40

3. 400

4. 4000

4

Oxygen binds to the ___ portion of hemoglobin

1. globin

2. oxyhemoglobin

3. iron atom

4. amino acid

iron atom

A patient with low iron levels would experience which of the following symptoms

1. an increased white blood cell count

2. an increase in energy level

3. an increase in fatigue

4. a decreased white blood cell count

an increase in fatigue

A hematopoietic stem cell will give rise to

1. erythrocytes

2. leukocytes

3. platelets

4. all of the above

all of the above

Predict the outcome of an overdose of the hormone erythropoietin

1. the blood viscosity increases to levels that may induce heart attacks or strokes

2. the oxygen carrying-carrying capacity remains unchanged despite elevated red blood cell counts

3. red blood cell counts remain unchanged, but the number of reticulocytes increases

4. blood viscosity levels decrease while oxygen-carrying capacity increases

the blood viscosity increases to levels that may induce heart attacks or strokes

What response would you expect after traveling to high altitude for two weeks

1. blood levels of oxygen would remain depressed for the duration

2. a surge in iron release from the liver would occur

3. the kidneys would secrete elevated amounts of erythropoietin

4. there would be no change in blood composition

the kidneys would secrete elevated amounts of erythropoietin

If a patient had pernicious anemia, the inability of the body to absorb vitamin B12, the patient

1. would have reduced blood iron levels

2. would have a decreased number of red blood cells

3. would have increased levels of hemoglobin

4. would not experience any effects on red blood cells

would have a decreased number of red blood cells

An elevated neutrophil count would be indicative of

1. an allergic reaction

2. a cancer

3. an acute bacterial infection

4. a parasitic infection

an acute bacterial infection

Antihistamines counter the actions of which white blood cells

1. neutrophils

2. lymphocytes

3. basophils

4. eosinophils

basophils

Leukemia is a general descriptor for which of the following disorders

1. an abnormally low white blood cell count

2. overproduction of abnormal leukocytes

3. elevated counts of normal neutrophils

4. overproduction of abnormal erythrocytes

overproduction of abnormal leukocytes

A ____ is the progenitor of platelets

1. thrombopoietin

2. thrombocyte

3. megakaryocyte

4. thrombocytoblast

megakaryocyte

Why don’t platelets form plugs in undamaged vessels

1. platelets aren’t formed until vessel damage occurs

2. only contact of platelets with exposed collagen fibers and von Willebrand factor causes them to be sticky and form plugs

3. plugs do form but are removed by macrophages

4. platelets don’t form plugs; it is the megakaryocytes that form the plugs

only contact of platelets with exposed collagen fibers and von Willebrand factor causes them to be sticky and form plugs

Activation of the extrinsic pathway of coagulation requires exposure of the blood to

1. collagen

2. tissue factor III

3. prothrombin activator

4. serotonin

tissue factor III

Why doesn’t a clot fill the entire vasculature system once it has started forming

1. rapid blood flow washes away and dilutes activated clotting factors

2. thrombin is inactivated by antithrombin III if it enters the general circulation

3. Both 1 and 2 occur

4. neither 1 or 2 occurs

both 1 and 2 occur

An injectable heparin medication might be prescribed for a patient who

1. is at risk for embolism

2. has thrombocytopenia

3. is a hemophiliac

4. has a deficiency in a clotting factor

is at risk for embolism

The presence of intercalated discs between adjacent cardiac muscle cells causes the heart to behave as a

1. single chamber

2. contractile myofibril

3. desmosome

4. functional syncytium

functional syncytium

Cardiac muscle cells have several similarities with skeletal muscle cells. Which of the following is not a similarity

1. the cells are each innervated by a nerve ending

2. the cells store calcium ions in the sarcoplasmic reticulum

3. the cells contain sarcomeres

4. the cells become depolarized when sodium ions enter the cytoplasm

the cells are each innervated by a nerve ending

The plateau portion of the action potential in contractile cardiac muscle cells is due to

1. an increased potassium permeability

2. an influx of calcium ions

3. an influx of sodium ions

4. exit of calcium ions from the sarcoplasmic reticulum

an influx of calcium ions

The stimulus for the heart’s rhythmic contractions comes from

1. intercalated discs

2. acetylcholine

3. a neuromuscular junction

4. a pacemaker potential

a pacemaker potential

In a normal heart which of the following structures is responsible for setting the heart’s pace

1. sinoatrial node

2. atrioventricular node

3. atrioventricular bundle

4. purkinje fibers

sinoatrial node

Predict the nature of an ECG recording when the atrioventricular node becomes the pacemaker

1. there would continue to be a normal sinus rhythm

2. the P wave would be much larger than normal

3. the rhythm would be much slower

4. the T wave would be much smaller than normal

the rhythm would be much slower

Which heart abnormality has no P waves on an otherwise normal ECG

1. second-degree heart block

2. ventricular fibrillation

3. aortic fibrillation

4. junctional rhythm

junctional rhythm

A heart murmur would be detected when blood is heard flowing from the ____ to the ____ through the ____

1. right atrium; right ventricle; tricuspid valve

2. right atrium; left atrium; tricuspid valve

3. left ventricle; left atrium; mitral valve

4. left atrium; left ventricle; mitral valve

left ventricle; left atrium; mitral valve

The “lup-dup” heart sounds are produced by

1. the walls of the atria and ventricles slapping together during a contraction

2. the blood hitting the walls of the ventricles and arteries respectively

3. the closing of the atrioventricular valves (lub) and the closing of the semilunar valves (dup)

4. the closing of the semilunar valves (lub) and the closing of the atrioventricular valves (dup)

the closing of the atrioventricular valves (lub) and the closing of the semilunar valves (dup)

Atrial systole occurs ____ the firing of the sinoatrial node

1. before

2. after

3. simultaneously with

4. alternately with

after

The majority (80%) of ventricular filling occurs

1. during late ventricular diastole

2. passively through blood flow alone

3. with atrial systole

4. both a and b

passively through blood flow alone

Cardiac output is determined by

1. heart rate

2. stroke volume

3. cardiac reserve

4. both a and b

both a and b

Predict what would happen to the end systolic volume (ESV) if contraction force were to increase

1. it would decrease

2. it would increase

3. it would remain constant

4. ESV is not affected by contraction force

it would decrease

Your heart seems to “pound” after you hear a sudden loud noise. This increased contractility is

1. because vagal nerve impulses arrive faster at the heart

2. because when a gasp of surprise is emitted, the Frank-Starling law of the heart is evident

3. due to norepinephrine causing threshold to be reached more quickly

4. because acetylcholine release is inhibited

due to norepinephrine causing threshold to be reached more quickly

What is the nature of acetylcholine’s inhibitory effect on heart rate

1. acetylcholine induces depolarization in the sinoatrial node

2. acetylcholine causes closing of sodium channels in the sinoatrial node

3. acetylcholine causes opening of fast calcium channels in contractile cells

4. acetylcholine causes opening of potassium channels in the sinoatrial node, thereby hyperpolarizing it

acetylcholine causes opening of potassium channels in the sinoatrial node, thereby hyperpolarizing it

Of the following blood vessel components which is the most critical in regulating systemic blood pressure

1. tunica intima

2. tunica media

3. tunica externa

4. venous valves

tunica media

An increasing lumen diameter is termed ____ and occurs when smooth muscle ____

1. vasodilation; relaxes

2. vasodilation; contracts

3. vasoconstriction; relaxes

4. vasoconstriction; contracts

vasodilation; relaxes

Of the following vessel types, which conduct blood toward the heart, regardless of oxygen content

1. arteries

2. arterioles

3. capillaries

4. veins

veins

Of the following vessel types which are responsible for the exchange of gases and nutrients with tissues

1. arteries

2. arterioles

3. capillaries

4. veins

capillaries

Some of the least permeable capillaries are found in the ___ while some of the most permeable capillaries are found in the ____

1. kidney; brain

2. intestine; muscles

3. bone marrow; brain

4. brain; bone marrow

brain; bone marrow

Predict the change in peripheral resistance as blood vessel diameter increases

1. peripheral resistance decreases

2. peripheral resistance increases

3. peripheral resistance remains unchanged

4. peripheral resistance is constant in humans

peripheral resistance decreases

Pulse pressure disappears by the time blood reaches capillary beds because

1. the elastic arteries are too stretchy

2. veins are too thin to accommodate the pulse pressure

3. diastole lasts longer than systole

4. the muscular arterioles do not exhibit elastic rebound

the muscular arterioles do not exhibit elastic rebound

What effect does prolonged standing in one position have on blood flow

1. it causes blood pooling and a slowing of blood flow

2. it causes a compensatory increase in arterial pressure

3. it causes a sharp decrease in heart rate

4. it causes a sharp decrease in respiratory rate

it causes blood pooling and a slowing of blood flow

What is the major factor controlling stroke volume during resting periods

1. sympathetic input

2. parasympathetic input

3. venous return to the heart

4. peripheral resistance changes

venous return to the heart

Predict what might happen to peripheral resistance in arterioles supplying skeletal muscle when pH levels drop

1. vasoconstriction in vessels supplying skeletal muscle

2. vasodilation in vessels supplying digestive viscera

3. vasodilation in vessels supplying skeletal muscle

4. no change in the skeletal muscle vessels

vasodilation in vessels supplying skeletal muscle

Baroreceptors detect changes in

1. blood O2 levels

2. stretch in arterial walls

3. blood CO2 levels

4. blood H+ levels

stretch in arterial walls

The primary mechanism driving filtration in capillary beds is

1. diffusion

2. capillary osmotic pressure

3. hydrostatic pressure of the interstitial fluid

4. hydrostatic pressure within the capillaries

hydrostatic pressure within the capillaries

Capillary colloid osmotic pressure created by ____ tends to ____

1. blood volume; push fluids out of the capillary

2. nondiffusable plasma proteins; draw fluids into the capillary

3. interstitial fluid; draw fluids out of the capillary

4. proteins in the interstitial fluid; push fluids into the interstitial fluid

nondiffusable plasma proteins; draw fluids into the capillary

Which of the following would cause vascular shock

1. anaphylaxis

2. vomiting

3. extensive burns

4. acute hemorrhage

anaphylaxis

Lymphatic capillaries owe their permeability to the presence of

1. an open end that siphons fluid from the interstitial fluid

2. minivalves in their walls

3. tight junctions between adjacent cells

4. proteins in the lymph fluid

minivalves in their walls

Which of the following contribute (s) to the flow of lymph through the lymphatic vessels

1. the pumping of the heart

2. the milking action of skeletal muscle contraction

3. pressure changes in the thorax that result from breathing

4. both 2 and 3

both 2 and 3

____ can enter lymph capillaries

1. bacteria

2. large proteins

3. interstitial fluid

4. all of the above

all of the above

The ___ is the largest lymphoid organ

1. lymph node

2. spleen

3. thymus

4. tonsil

spleen

The thymus is important for

1. T lymphocyte maturation

2. removal of foreign antigens

3. B lymphocyte maturation

4. secretion of hormones that promote B lymphocyte immunocompetence

T lymphocyte maturation

Which of the following act as the first line of defense against foreign pathogens

1. skin

2. synovial membranes

3. mucous membranes

4. 1 and 3

1 and 3

Which of the following is not a mechanical barrier to pathogen invasion

1. mucus

2. tears

3. saliva

4. interferon

interferon

Macrophages are derived from

1. megakaryocytes

2. monocytes

3. T lymphocytes

4. plasma cells

monocytes

The basic mechanism employed by complement to fight bacterial infections is

1. antibody production

2. fever elevation

3. bacterial cell membrane lysis

4. antiviral protein synthesis

bacterial cell membrane lysis

The process of attaching complement proteins to the bacterial cell wall to enhance phagocytosis is called

1. optimization

2. MAC attachment

3. complement activation

4. opsonization

opsonization

What would be the body’s response if the hypothalamus detected pyrogens

1. an increase in body temperature set point

2. mobilization of lymphocytes from the bone marrow

3. increased sweating to lower body temperature

4. complement inhibition

an increase in body temperature set point

The presence of ____ proteins makes it possible for our immune system to differentiate between our cells and those that are foreign

1. antigenic determinant

2. MHC

3. hapten

4. antibody

MHC

The adaptive immune system involves three major cell types: antigen presenting cells, T cells, which constitute ____ immunity, and B cells which govern ____ immunity

1. nonspecific; specific

2. antigenic; allergenic

3. MHC; MAC

4. cell-mediated; humoral

cell-mediated; humoral

____ become antigenic if they attach themselves to larger proteins

1. haptens

2. antigenic determinants

3. pyrogens

4. MHC proteins

haptens

Lymphocytes are educated within primary lymphoid organs. B cells are educated in the ____ while T cells are educated in the ____

1. bone marrow; thymus

2. thymus; bone marrow

3. bone marrow; bone marrow

4. thymus; thymus

bone marrow; thymus

During clonal selection of B cells, those B cells with complementary membrane receptors to the invading antigen will differentiate into ____ cells

1. humoral

2. clonal

3. plasma

4. T cells

plasma

Which of the following is not an antigen presenting cell

1. T lymphocytes

2. Macrophages

3. B lymphocytes

4. Dendritic cells

T lymphocytes

The basis of immunity is the presence of ____ cells

1. plasma

2. memory

3. clonal

4. humoral

memory

A patient has been immunized against chicken pox. What type of immunity is this

1. naturally acquired passive

2. artificially acquired passive

3. naturally acquired active

4. artificially acquired active

artificially acquired active

Of the following classes of antibodies, which can cross the placenta

1. IgG

2. IgA

3. IgM

4. IgD

IgG

Which of the following best describes an antibody’s mode of action

1. antibodies punch holes in bacterial cell membranes

2. antibodies immobilize antigens and mark them for destruction

3. antibodies bind to antigens and transport them to the liver for excretion

4. antibodies secrete antiviral proteins

antibodies immobilize antigens and mark them for destruction

These cells are responsible for tissue graft rejection

1. memory cells

2. regulatory cells

3. Plasma cells

4. Cytotoxic T cells

Cytotoxic T cells