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Which of the following substances regulates muscle actions?
a. potassium
b. calcium
c. troponin
d. tropomyosin
b
Which of the following substances acts at the neuromuscular junction to excite the muscle fibers of a motor unit?
a. acetylcholine
b. AT P
c. creatine phosphate
d. serotonin
a
When throwing a baseball, an athlete' s arm is rapidly stretched just before throwing the ball. Which of the following structures detects and responds to that stretch by reflexively increasing muscle activity?
a. Golgi tendon organ
b. muscle spindle
c. extrafusal muscle
d. Pacinian corpuscle
b
From which of the following is the heart's electrical impulse normally initiated?
a. AV node
b. SA node
c. the brain
d. the sympathetic nervous system
b
Which of the following occurs during the QRS complex of a typical ECG?
I. depolarization of the atrium
II. repolarization of the atrium
III. repolarization of the ventricle
IV. depolarization of the ventricle
a. I and III only
b. II and IV only
c. I, II, and III only
d. II, III, and IV only
b
Which of the following is the definition of power?
a. (mass) ∙ (acceleration)
b. (force) ∙ (distance)
c. (force) ∙ (velocity)
d. (torque) ∙ (time)
c
To compare performances of Olympic weightlifters of different body weights, the classic formula divides the load lifted by the athlete's
a. body weight
b. body weight squared
c. lean body weight
d. body weight to the two-thirds power
d
During a free weight exercise, muscle force varies with which of the following?
I. perpendicular distance from the weight to the body joint II. joint angle
III. movement acceleration
IV. movement velocity squared
a. I and III only
b. II and IV only
c. I, II, and III only
d. II, III, and IV only
a
A vertical jump involves knee, hip, and shoulder movement primarily in which of the following anatomical planes?
a. sagittal
b. perpendicular
c. frontal
d. transverse
a
An athlete is performing a concentric isokinetic elbow flexion and extension exercise. Which of the following type(s) of levers occur(s) at the elbow during this exercise? I. first class
II. second class
III. third class
a. I only
b. II only
c. I and III only
d. II and III only
c
Which of the following substances can be metabolized anaerobically?
a. glycerol
b. glucose
c. amino acids
d. free fatty acids
b
Which of the following react ions is the primary cause of metabolic acidosis (i.e., the decrease in intramuscular pH during high-intensity, fatiguing exercise)?
a. ATP → ADP + P i + H +
b. pyruvate + NADH → lactate + NAD +
c. ADP + creatine phosphate → ATP + creatine
d. fructose-6-phosphate → fructose-1,6-bisphosphate
a
Which of the following energy systems produces ATP at the quickest rate?
a. phosphagen
b. aerobic glycolysis
c. fat oxidation
d. fast glycolysis
a
Aproximately how many net ATP are produced via the oxidative energy system from the metabolism of one glucose molecule?
a. 27
b. 34
c. 38
d. 41
c
Which of the following energy substrates cannot be depleted during extreme exercise intensities or durations? a. creatine phosphate
b. glycogen
c. water
d. ATP
d
After a bout of resistance training, acute hormonal secretions provide all of the following information to the body EXCEPT
a. amount of physiological stress
b. metabolic demands of exercise
c. type of physiological stress
d. energy expended
d
Which of the following hormones enhance(s) muscle tissue growth?
I. growth hormone
II. cortisol
III. IGF-I
IV. progesterone
a. I and III only
b. II and IV only
c. I, II, and III only
d. II, III, and IV only
a
Which of the following is NOT a function of growth hormone?
a. increase lipolysis
b. decrease collagen synthesis
c. increase amino acid transport
d. decrease glucose utilization
b
Which of the following hormones has the greatest influence on neural changes?
a. growth hormone
b. testosterone
c. cortisol
d. IGF
b
What type of resistance training workout promotes the highest growth hormone increases following the exercise session?
Rest Volume Sets
a. 30 seconds High 3
b. 30 seconds Low 1
c. 3 minutes High 1
d. 3 minutes Low 3
a
Following resistance training, augmented neural drive to the working musculature is the result of
I. increased agonist muscle recruitment
II. muscle hypertrophy
III. improved firing rate
IV. greater synchronization
a. all of the above
b. I and IV only
c. I, II, and III only
d. I, II, and IV only
d
When one is performing a box-to-box plyometric drop jump, in order to generate sufficient force in a limited amount of time (<200 ms), which muscle fibers are bypassed through the principle of selective recruitment?
a. I
b. IIa
c. IIx
d. IIc
a
Which of the following performance or physiological characteristics is NOT usually observed in a state of nonfunctional overreaching (NFOR) within athlete populations?
a. stagnation and a decrease in performance
b. hormonal disturbances
c. mood disturbances and depression
d. increased levels of fatigue
c
Following prolonged periods of detraining in elite strength/power athletes, which of the following physical characteristics will likely show the largest reduction as a consequence of the removal of an anaerobic training stimulus?
a. total fat mass
b. fast-twitch fiber cross-sectional area
c. slow-twitch fiber cross-sectional area
d. total T ype I muscle fiber content
b
Following a period of chronic high-intensity resistance training, a variety of physiological adaptations take place in a number of systems within the body that promote improved athletic performance in strength/power activities. If an elite athlete were to undergo 12 weeks of heavy strength training, which of the following adaptations would NOT be expected consequent to this type of anaerobic exercise?
a. a transition from T ype IIx to Type IIa muscle fiber
b. increased pennation angle in certain muscle groups
c. reduced sarcoplasmic reticulum and T-tubule density
d. elevated sodium-potassium A TPase activity
c
In which of the following athletes might you expect limited bone mineral density (BMD) levels as a consequence of the force vectors and the physical demands associated with the given sport?
a. a 16-year-old gymnast with a seven-year training history in her sport
b. a 23-year-old of fensive lineman who has lifted weights for eight years
c. a 33-year-old track cyclist who has a 1RM squat of 352 pounds
d. a 19-year-old 800 m freestyle swimmer with one year of dryland training
d
A 17-year-old high school cross-country runner has been training aerobically for six months in preparation for the upcoming season. Which of the following adaptations will occur in the muscles during that time?
a. increased concentration of glycolytic enzymes
b. hyperplasia of T ype II fibers
c. transformation from T ype I to Type II fibers
d. hypertrophy of T ype I fibers
d
The amount of blood ejected from the left ventricle during each beat is the
a. cardiac output
b. a-v ‾ O 2 difference
c. heart rate
d. stroke volume
d
Which of the following does NOT normally increase during an aerobic exercise session?
a. end-diastolic volume
b. cardiac contractility
c. cardiac output
d. diastolic blood pressure
d
The mean arterial pressure is defined as the
a. average blood pressure throughout the cardiac cycle
b. average of the systolic and diastolic blood pressures
c. average systolic blood pressure during exercise
d. average of blood pressure and heart rate
a
Primary training adaptations of elite aerobically trained athletes include which of the following?
I. increased maximal oxygen uptake
II. decreased blood lactate concentration
III. increased running economy
IV. decreased capillary density
a. I and III only
b. II and IV only
c. I, II, and III only
d. II, III, and IV only
c
An 8-year-old boy dramatically increased his upper body strength after following a six-month resistance training program. Which of the following is MOST likely responsible for this gain?
a. increased number of muscle fibers
b. enhanced cross-sectional area
c. greater muscle density
d. improved neuromuscular functioning
d
Growth cartilage in children is located at all of the following EXCEPT the
a. diaphysis
b. epiphyseal plate
c. joint surface
d. apophyseal insertion
a
The condition characterized by a bone mineral density more than 2.5 SD below the young adult mean is called
a. sarcopenia
b. osteopenia
c. osteoporosis
d. scoliosis
c
Which of the following should be evaluated FIRST when one is designing a training program for a 68-yearold competitive female tennis player?
a. cardiovascular fitness
b. lower body strength
c. balance and agility
d. medical history
d
Deconditioned female college athletes who participate in sports such as basketball and soccer appear to be at increased risk for developing injuries to the
a. back
b. knee
c. wrist
d. neck
b
An Olympic weightlifter attempting a personal record is able to ignore the audience to concentrate solely on her performance. Which of the following abilities is this athlete most likely using to perform the exercise?
a. selective attention
b. somatic anxiety
c. guided discovery
d. self-efficacy
a
An athlete's desire to perform to his or her potential is an example of
a. motive to avoid failure
b. autogenic training
c. selective attention
d. achievement motivation
d
For a high school American football team, if any player squats two times his body weight, his name is placed on the wall. This is an example of
a. negative reinforcement
b. positive reinforcement
c. negative punishment
d. positive punishment
b
How does an athlete's optimal level of arousal change with limited skill and ability to perform the activity?
a. It increases.
b. It decreases.
c. It has no effect.
d. It is not related to the activity.
b
In teaching the push press, which of the following is an example of segmentation with pure-part training integration?
a. Practice the push press without any equipment, progress to practice with a PVC pipe, and end with an unloaded bar. b. Practice the dip, followed by the dip with the drive, and end with practice of the entire push press.
c. Practice the dip, the drive, and the catch independently before practicing the entire push press.
d. Practice the dip and the drive independently, followed by practice of the dip with the drive; then practice the catch independently and end with practice of the entire push press.
c
Maintaining adequate glycogen stores
a. spares the use of protein for energy
b. improves maximum power
c. decreases endurance performance
d. helps athletes gain weight
a
Which of the following BEST explains the need for increased protein intake by athletes?
a. decreased protein oxidation during aerobic exercise
b. increased need for tissue repair
c. restriction of calories to lose weight
d. the quality of protein consumed
b
The following is the most likely contributor to fatigue and poor performance:
a. low protein intake
b. iron deficiency
c. low calcium intake
d. omega-3 fatty acid deficiency
b
Which of the following is a recommendation for lowering undesirably high levels of blood lipids?
a. reduce complex carbohydrate intake
b. limit saturated fatty acid intake to 30% of total calories
c. consume a minimum of 500 mg of dietary cholesterol per day
d. replace saturated fatty acids with monounsaturated or polyunsaturated fatty acids
d
Which of the following protein sources does not contain all essential amino acids in appreciable quantities?
a. poultry
b. eggs
c. lentils
d. beef
c
The primary macronutrient that is addressed in the precompetition meal is
a. fat
b. carbohydrate
c. protein
d. vitamin
b
Which of the following makes the GREATEST contribution to total energy expenditure?
a. resting metabolic rate
b. physical activity energy expenditure
c. thermic effect of food
d. resting blood sugar levels
a
Which of the following is characteristic of anorexia nervosa?
a. normal body weight
b. very low dietary fat intake
c. preoccupation with food
d. secretive eating
c
When an eating disorder is suspected, the strength and conditioning professional should
a. monitor the athlete's daily food intake
b. require frequent weigh-ins
c. encourage further assessment by an eating disorder specialist
d. provide nutritional information
c
To maintain hydration during competition lasting less than 1 hour, it is recommended that athletes consume 3 to 8 ounces of water or a sports drink about every
a. 15 minutes
b. 30 minutes
c. 60 minutes
d. 2 hours
a
Which of the following dietary supplements is (are) considered a stimulant?
I. creatine
II. caffeine
III. HMB
IV. citrus aurantium
a. I and II
b. II and IV
c. III and IV
d. I and III
b
Which of the following is NOT part of caffeine's role in improving athletic performance?
a. increased power production
b. decreased glycogen depletion
c. increased fat oxidation
d. decreased urine production
d
Which of the following is the BEST reason for aerobic endurance athletes to avoid erythropoietin use?
a. Hematocrit and hemoglobin levels may decrease.
b. It may cause an unregulated increase in red blood cell production
c. Resistance to infectious disease may be impaired.
d. It may reduce the ability of the blood to carry oxygen.
b
Creatine supplementation improves all of the following variables EXCEPT
a. lean body mass
b. maximal strength
c. endurance performance
d. power
c
Which of the following performance-enhancing substances is most likely to increase lean body mass?
a. anabolic steroids
b. arginine
c. ephedrine
d. b-alanine
a