Antiepileptic Medications and Seizure Types

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These flashcards are designed to help students review key concepts related to antiepileptic medications and their effects on seizure types.

Last updated 4:59 AM on 4/3/26
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42 Terms

1
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What is the best description of seizures that involve episodes of blank staring and eye blinking lasting 15 seconds, after which the patient resumes activity?

Absence seizures.

2
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Which therapy is most appropriate for a child with absence seizures having difficulty paying attention in school?

Ethosuximide.

3
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What should be considered for a 25-year-old woman with myoclonic seizures well controlled on valproate who wants to become pregnant?

Switch to lamotrigine.

4
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What is the most likely cause of breakthrough seizures in a pregnant woman on lamotrigine?

Lamotrigine concentrations are decreasing.

5
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What seizure type is characterized by episodes of blank staring, unresponsiveness, and automatic chewing movements lasting several minutes?

Complex partial seizures.

6
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What is the most appropriate initial therapy for a 52-year-old man with several complex partial seizures?

Levetiracetam.

7
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Which drug is least likely to have a pharmacokinetic interaction with carbamazepine for a patient with focal seizures?

Levetiracetam.

8
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What medication is first-line for primary generalized tonic-clonic seizures?

Topiramate.

9
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Which agent is most appropriate for a 75-year-old woman with post-stroke focal seizures who has multiple comorbidities?

Levetiracetam.

10
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What is the adverse effect called when a patient on phenytoin develops overgrowth of gum tissue covering his teeth?

Gingival hyperplasia.

11
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Which antiepileptic drug would most likely reduce the efficacy of oral contraceptives?

Carbamazepine.

12
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What pharmacokinetic property explains the development of nystagmus, ataxia, and confusion after a small increase in the phenytoin dose?

Nonlinear (saturable) metabolism.

13
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Which antiepileptic drug is associated with irreversible visual field loss?

Vigabatrin.

14
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What is reserved for children with Lennox-Gastaut syndrome due to risks of aplastic anemia and hepatic failure?

Felbamate.

15
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What adjustment is needed when a patient on valproate is also started on lamotrigine?

Decrease lamotrigine dose.

16
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What characterizes myoclonic seizures?

Sudden, brief muscle jerks involving both arms upon awakening.

17
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Which patient characteristic increases the risk of symptomatic hyponatremia in a patient on oxcarbazepine?

Elderly age.

18
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What is the next appropriate step after a patient with status epilepticus receives IV lorazepam?

IV fosphenytoin.

19
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What dose of folic acid is recommended for a woman of childbearing age with epilepsy considering pregnancy?

1-5 mg daily.

20
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Which antiepileptic drug is most likely responsible for blue discoloration of the skin and retinal abnormalities?

Ezogabine.

21
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What is the most common adverse effect associated with lacosamide?

Dizziness and headache.

22
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Which antiepileptic drug is useful for both epilepsy and bipolar disorder?

Lamotrigine.

23
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What class of adverse effect does carbamazepine-induced neutropenia and thrombocytopenia belong to?

Blood dyscrasia.

24
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What condition should parents monitor for in a child prescribed zonisamide due to risk of decreased sweating?

Oligohidrosis.

25
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What adverse effect is related to topiramate's carbonic anhydrase inhibition?

Nephrolithiasis.

26
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What can carbamazepine cause in a patient with absence seizures?

Increase in seizure frequency.

27
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Which pharmacokinetic change is most important for a patient with chronic kidney disease taking gabapentin?

Reduced renal excretion requiring dose adjustment.

28
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Which drug commonly causes weight gain, tremor, and hair loss?

Valproate.

29
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What is phenobarbital’s primary mechanism of action?

Enhancement of GABA-mediated inhibition.

30
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Which antiepileptic drug is contraindicated in patients with a sulfa allergy?

Zonisamide.

31
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What serious adverse reaction should be suspected in a patient on carbamazepine who develops rash, fever, and lymphadenopathy?

Stevens-Johnson syndrome.

32
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What broad-spectrum agent is often used for a patient with frequent atonic seizures (drop attacks)?

Lamotrigine.

33
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What is the most common adverse effect of phenobarbital, particularly concerning in elderly patients?

CNS depression and falls.

34
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What active metabolite is responsible for the anticonvulsant effect of eslicarbazepine?

Eslicarbazepine (S-licarbazepine).

35
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What is the mechanism of action of perampanel?

AMPA glutamate receptor antagonism.

36
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What is the recommended management for a woman on lamotrigine who becomes pregnant and has decreased drug levels?

Increase lamotrigine dose.

37
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What drug should be avoided to ensure warfarin efficacy in a patient starting an antiepileptic?

Phenytoin.

38
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What is the preferred antiepileptic medication for a patient with both epilepsy and migraine headaches?

Topiramate.

39
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What should be monitored in an elderly patient receiving oxcarbazepine?

Hyponatremia.

40
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What is a potential effect of incorrectly prescribing carbamazepine for absence seizures?

Exacerbation of absence seizures.

41
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What should a patient taking zonisamide be aware of regarding their sweating?

Monitoring for decreased sweating.

42
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What is the primary function of lamotrigine in relation to seizure management?

Broad-spectrum activity for various seizure types.

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