UNIT 22-24

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Last updated 8:44 AM on 4/4/26
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67 Terms

1
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Quality assurance (QA) in ultrasound is best defined as:

A systematic program ensuring consistent system performance

2
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The primary goal of QA is to:

Maintain image quality and measurement accuracy over time

3
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Which of the following is an objective QA measurement?

Depth of penetration

4
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In QA, “standards” refer to:

Acceptance criteria for performance

5
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A tissue equivalent phantom is used to evaluate:

Acoustic properties and image performance

6
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A decrease in depth of penetration over time most likely indicates:

Transducer degradation

7
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The dead zone is primarily caused by:

Transducer ringing and recovery time

8
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An increase in the dead zone would most impact:

Superficial structures

9
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Range accuracy refers to:

Depth measurement accuracy

10
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Which QA test evaluates Doppler velocity accuracy?

Doppler phantom

11
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Poor uniformity on an image may indicate:

Element dropout

12
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The ethical principle of autonomy refers to:

Respecting patient decisions

13
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Nonmaleficence means:

Do no harm

14
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Beneficence refers to:

Acting for patient benefit

15
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Justice in healthcare refers to:

Equal treatment and fairness

16
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A patient withdrawing consent requires the sonographer to:

Pause and notify the provider

17
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Sonographers should:

Follow institutional policies regarding results disclosure

18
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Universal precautions require:

Treating all patients as potentially infectious

19
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Bioeffects are:

Any biological response to ultrasound

20
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The two main categories of bioeffects are

Thermal and mechnical

21
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Heating in tissue occurs primarily due to:

Absorption

22
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Which tissue has the greatest heating potential?

Bone

23
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Increasing frequency generally:

Increases heating potential

24
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Mechanical bioeffects include:

Cavitation

25
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Stable cavitation refers to:

Bubble oscillation

26
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Inertial cavitation involves:

Violent bubble collapse

27
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Cavitation likelihood increases with:

Low frequency

28
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The thermal index (TI) indicates:

Potential for temperature rise

29
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The mechanical index (MI) is related to:

Cavitation potential

30
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If frequency increases while pressure is constant, MI:

Decreases

31
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Which mode typically has the highest exposure?

Spectral doppler

32
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The most important factor in reducing bioeffects is:

Reducing dwell time

33
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ALARA stands for:

As Low As Reasonably Achievable

34
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The best first steps to improve image quality safely is:

Increase gain

35
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Spectral Doppler should be used when:

Measuring velocities and waveform

36
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To reduce exposure during Doppler:

Minimize sampling time

37
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Objective measurements in ultrasound QA include which of the following?

Depth of penetration

38
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A tissue-equivalent phantom is primarily used to evaluate which parameters?

Depth of penetration, resolution, and distance accuracy

39
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Which parameter cannot be tested using a tissue-equivalent phantom?

Blood flow velocity

40
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A Doppler phantom is used to evaluate all of the following EXCEPT:

Axial resolution

41
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A slice thickness phantom is used to determine:

The thickness of the imaging plane

42
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In ultrasound QA, sensitivity refers to:

The ability to display weak echoes from deeper structures

43
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Which factor does NOT influence system sensitivity?

Patient breathing

44
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Normal sensitivity testing is performed:

With clinical imaging settings

45
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Maximum sensitivity testing is performed by:

Setting gain and output power to maximum

46
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The dead zone refers to:

The region near the transducer where echoes cannot be detected

47
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Registration accuracy refers to:

Correct placement of echoes on the display relative to their true location

48
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Range accuracy evaluates:

Accuracy of axial depth based on speed of sound and timing

49
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Horizontal calibration is used to evaluate:

Lateral distance across the image

50
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Distance measurement accuracy testing verifies:

Caliper measures known distance in axial and lateral direction

51
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Uniformity problems may be caused by:

All of the above

52
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Which principle of bioethics involves doing good for the patient?

Beneficence

53
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Which principle refers to respecting a patient’s right to make decisions?

Autonomy

54
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The primary goal of the Occupational Safety and Health Administration is to:

Protect workers from workplace hazards

55
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You are scanning a phantom containing multiple rows of identical 5 mm spherical fluid filled structures embedded in a tissue-mimicking material. What type of resolution is best evaluated with this phantom?

Elevational

56
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What is the primary purpose of using a standoff pad in diagnostic ultrasound?

Increase the distance between the transducer and a superficial structure so it lies within the focal zone

57
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Using a high MI setting in contrast imaging will:

Improve the signal to noise ratio, but increase exam time

58
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In adult imaging, what TI level allows imaging with no time limitations?

Below 1.5

59
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In adult imaging, imaging should NEVER be performed when TI is:

Above 6

60
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For adult patients, exam time limitations apply when TI is between:

1.5 and 6

61
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In fetal imaging, what TI level allows no time limits?

Below 0.7

62
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In fetal imaging, imaging should NEVER be performed when TI is:

Above 3

63
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For fetal patients, exam time limitations apply when TI is between:

0.7 and 3

64
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Imaging in adults should never be performed with a thermal index level at or above ___ and imaging a fetus should never be performed with a thermal index level at or above ___

6, 3

65
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Which of the following correctly describes the sensitivity of a testing technique?

The ability of a test to detect disease when it is present

66
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What is the proper method used to assess the size of the dead zone?

Measure from the top of the image to the depth that uniform tissue is identified

67
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How is the detail resolution limit documented on phantom testing?

Two separate pins are displayed as a single reflector on the image

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