Clinical biochemistry 2nd SCT

How long can store RBC concentrate?

a. 1 Year

B. 1 week

C. 5 week

D. 10 week

c

RED BLOOD CELL CONCENTRATE

+4 ̊C ± 2 ̊C

Expiry: 35 days

PLASMA (FFP)

Below -25 ̊C : expiry: 2 years

Between -25 ̊C and -18 ̊C : expiry: 3 months

PLATELET CONCENTRATE

+22 ̊C ± 2 ̊C

Expiry: 5 days (filtered, pooled: 6 hours!)

Order of vacutainer tube drawing?

A. Culture blood

B. EDTA containing tube

C. Citrate containing tube

D. Serum separation tube

a. A C B D

b. A B C D

c. A C D B

d. A B C D

Answer c

Order:

1) culture

2) citrate

3) separation

4) EDTA

Function of Duffy blood group?

a. Laminin receptor

b. Chemokine receptor

c. KIDD

d. Urea transporter

e. Receptor for Plasmodium vivax

b, e

Indirect antiglobulin test:

a. Detect antibodies bound to RBC surface

b. Detect free antibodies in serum

c. Is used in bedside ABO typing

d. Is used in antibody screening and identification

b, d

• Detects free antibodies in the serum

• The IAT test is performed during the antibody screen and antibody identification.

• Using known cells and patient's serum.

• If positive, DAT must be performed to investigate whether antibodies have covered RBCs in vivo.

Which of the following blood group shows associated with Helicobacter pylori?

a. Kidd

b. Duffy

c. Lutheran

d. Lewis

d

- Le-a & Le-b are synthesized in the GI tract (glandular epithelium) - carbohydrate antigens (fucose)

- Passive adsorption onto the RBC surface (transformable characteristic)

- Biological role: Le-b is a receptor for H. pylori and Norwalk virus

Which vacutainer tubes are used for hemostasis tests?

a. EDTA anticoagulated tubes

b. Sodium citrate anticoagulated tubes

c. Tubes without anticoagulant (native)

d. Sodium-fluoride containing tubes

b

Which vacutainer tubes are used for hematology analyzers?

a. EDTA anticoagulated tubes

b. Sodium citrate anticoagulated tubes

c. Tubes without anticoagulant (native)

d. Sodium-fluoride containing tubes

a

What is the largest leukocyte in the peripheral smear?

a. Neutrophil granulocyte

b. Eosinophil granulocyte

c. Basophil granulocyte

d. Monocyte

d

What does RDW mean?

a. Refers to the hemoglobin content of red blood cells

b. White cell distribution width

c. Red cell distribution width

d. Refers to the stain-binding capacity of white blood cells

c

Methods for the determination of hematocrit.

a. Calculation

b. Measurement of enzyme activity

c. Centrifugation

d. Measurement of the decrease of the freezing point

a, c

Centrifugation, measurement of impedance and calculation.

What does PAS stain?

a. Carbohydrates

b. Lipids

c. Esterases

d. Peroxidases

a

What is the recommended procedure for cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)

and blood glucose determination?

a. Blood sampling 2-4 hours after CSF collection

b. Blood sampling 2-4 hours before CSF collection

c. Blood sampling and CSF collection in the same time (in the same minute)

d. Blood sampling 2-4 days before CSF collection

b

Indications of CSF sampling:

a. Meningeal infection

b. Subarachnoidal hemorrhage

c. CNS malignancy

d. Hemorrhagic diabetes

a, b, c

1. meningeal infection

2. subarachnoid hemorrhage

3. CNS malignancy

4. demyelinating disease

Which of the following laboratory result can be considered as a normal, physiological change in elderly persons?

a. Cholesterol is elevated

b. Cholesterol is decreased

c. Triglyceride is elevated

d. Triglyceride is decreased

a, c

Increased by age:

- Cholesterol

- Triglyceride

- Glucose

- Uric acid

- AP

Decreased by age:

- Total protein

- Albumin

The DNA sequencing is:

a. A screening method

b. A cheap mutation detection method

c. Can detect all small-scale mutations

d. A method that characterizes every mutation

d (maybe c)

- A reference method!

- Expensive and time consuming!

Which are the consecutive steps of PCR?

a. Denaturation, hybridization, chain elongation

b. Hybridization, denaturation, chain elongation

c. Chain elongation, hybridization, denaturation

d. Chain elongation, denaturation, digestion

a

Antibodies against antigens of the ABO system:

a. Are always detectable in newborns only

b. Are detectable in patients only after incomplete transfusion

c. Are always detectable in one-year old babies

d. Are not exclusively detectable in patients after transfusion, the regular antibodies of this blood group system are so-called natural antibodies and follow the rule of Landsteiner

c, d

What is the reverse grouping test?

a. This test can be used to detect rare, irregular antibodies

b. The serological reaction with anti-B

c. The test to detect ABO antibodies in serum or plasma

d. The simple method for looking for maternal-infant blood group incompatibility

c

Anti-D antibodies in vivo:

a. Are IgM

b. Are IgG

c. Temperature optimum is 20°C

d. Temperature optimum is 37°C

b, d

Which one of the following allelic pairs does not belong to the Rh blood group system?

a. D/d

b. E/e

c. I/i

d. C/c

c

Five important antigens D(d), Cc & Ee

Which of the following blood groups is absorbed on red blood cell by passive diffusion?

a. Kidd

b. Duffy

c. Lutheran

d. Lewis

d

What is the last step of compatibility testing?

a. ABO grouping

b. Cross-match of donor RBC with recipient plasma

c. Rh typing

d. Antibody screening

b

I. ABO and Rh grouping of the patient

II. Antibody screening of the patient Antibody identification

III. Check of records to compare current and historical findings. (I-III: „type and screen")

IV. Donor red cell selection and crossmatch

Which is the blood group where the greatest amount of H-antigen is found on red blood cells?

a. AB blood group

b. B blood group

c. A blood group

d. O blood group

d

CSF in a healthy patient is:

a. Xanthocrome (yellow/orange)

b. Bloody

c. Colorless

d. Opalescent (turbid)

c

EDTA inhibits blood clotting by:

a. Inhibiting glycolysis

b. Binding calcium

c. Inactivating thrombin

d. It does not inhibit blood clotting

b

Which sample is used for hemostasis tests:

a. Native blood (without anticoagulant)

b. Blood anticoagulated with heparin

c. Blood anticoagulated with EDTA

d. Blood anticoagulated with Na-Citrate

d

Materials for determination of hematocrit using centrifugation:

a. Spectrophotometer

b. Wax

c. Glass capillary

d. Micro-hematocrit centrifuge

b, c, d

Natural antibodies are:

a. Belong to IgM class

b. Belong to IgG class

c. Are developed by first year of life

d. Are developed in intrauterine life

a, c

Natural antibodies in the ABO system are regularly found in the serum one year after birth.

They are produced after the 4th month. IgM. Cold (active at room temperature).

They do not cross the placenta.

ABO system:

a. Antibodies are "warm"

b. Antigens are proteins.

c. Antigens are carbohydrates

d. Antibodies belong to IgG class

c

Hemolytic disease of the newborn can be caused by the following antibody:

a. Anti-A

b. Anti-K

c. Anti-B

d. Anti-D

b, d

HDN is caused by:

- Anti-D

- Anti-K

- Anti-Diego

- P & MNS blood groups

Which vitamins are involved in catabolism of homocysteine:

a. Vitamin E

b. Vit B12

c. Folic acid

d. Vit K

b, c

DIC occurs in the following:

a. Diabetes melitius

b. Dead-fetus syndrome

c. Gram negative sepsis

d. Tumors

b, c, d

Which statement(s) is (are) true?

a. Purity of the isolate DNA: A260nm/A280nm

b. Purity of the isolate DNA: A280nm/A260nm

c. Ratio < 1.7 indicates protein contamination

d. Ratio > 1.7 indicates protein contamination

a, c

Tubes with sodium-flouride content (gray stopper) are used for:

a. Hemostasis tests

b. Hematology tests

c. Blood culture tests

d. Glucose determination

d

Glucose determination in stored, non-centrifuged samples.

Which cells might be present in a healthy individual's peripheral blood?

a. Basophil granulocyte

b. Myeloblast

c. Monocyte

d. Red blood cell

a, c, d

Principle of cell counting and sizing in hematology analyzes

a. Is based on the different heat stability of cells

b. Is based on the detection of changes impedance

c. Is based on the detection of the autofluorescence of cells

d. Is based on the detection of scattered light from cells passing one by one in front of a laser beam

b, d

(book p.37)

What is detected by brilliant-cresyl-blue in the reticulocyte? Remnants of:

a. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

b. DNA

c. Nucleus

d. Residual RNA

d

Which statement(s) is (are) true?

a. An A group person has got anti-A antibodies in his serum

b. An A group person has got anti-B antibodies in his serum

c. An A group person has got anti-A and anti-B antibodies in his serum

d. An A group person has got no antibodies in his serum

b

What can be the explanation if a Rh(D) negative mother and a Rh(D) positive father have got a Rh(D) negative child?

a. It is impossible

b. The baby's Rh phenotype can not be determined

c. Father is heterozygous for D (D/d)

d. Both parents are homozygous for D (D/D)

c

In the bed-side test agglutination occurs with anti-A and anti-AB antibodies, while with anti-B and in the autocontrol no agglutination develops. What is the blood type of the patient?

a. B

b. AB

c. A

d. O

c

Which statement(s) is (are) true?

a. Galactose can be found on the red blood cells of an A type person

b. Galactose can be found on the red blood cells of a B type person

c. Galactose can be found on the red blood cells of an AB person

d. Galactose can be found on the red blood cells of an O type person

b, c

A antigen - N-acetyl-galactosamine (GalNAc)

B antigen - Galactose (Gal)

AB - both

Which of the following laboratory abnormality can be seen frequently in newborns?

a. Hypermagnesaemia

b. Hyperbilirubinaemia

c. Hypercalcaemia

d. Hypoglycaemia

b, d

Also:

- hypomagnesaemia (opposite of a)

- hypocalcemia (opposite of c)

What is the principle of immunophenotyping?

a. To detect cell surface and intracytoplasmic antigens with help of fluorescent labeled monoclonal antibodies

b. Antigen analysis by flow cytometry after the lysis of white blood cells

c. To stain cell surface antigens directly with fluorescent dyes

d. To detect P glycoprotein

a

What is the expected shelf-life of a CPDA1 anticoagulated whole blood?

a. 15 days

b. 25 days

c. 35 days

d. None

c

what is the maximum frequency if one donate whole blood?

a. once a year

b. 2 times a year

c. 4 times a year

d. 6 times a year

c?

(men 5, women 3 times a year)

(56 days must pass between two donation events)

the following changes occur when whole blood is stored for one month:

a. Na is elevated

b. K is elevated

c. pH decreases

d. pH increases

b, c

blood group antigens:

a. belong to IgM class

b. belong to IgG class

c. are developed by the time of birth

d. are developed only after birth

c

ANTIGENS!

Rh system:

a. antibodies are "cold"

b. antigens are proteins

c. antigens are carbohydrates

d. antibodies can cross the placenta

b, d

• IgG class

• IgG is too small to make bridge between RBCs, macromolecular environment is required for RBC agglutination during typing

• Do not bind significant amount of complement

• Temperature: „warm"

• Crosses the placenta

An A Rh+ mother and an AB Rh+ father can have a baby with:

a. O Rh+

b. B Rh-

c. AB Rh-

d. O Rh-

b, c

A child with O (not Bombay) Rh+ can have parents with:

a. A Rh+ / B Rh+

b. A Rh- / B Rh-

c. AB Rh+ / AB Rh-

d. AB Rh- / O Rh-

a

Kidd blood group antigens:

a. have no function

b. are ion transporters

c. are urea transporters

d. are laminin receptors

c

what kind of inclusions can be found in the mature red blood cell?

a. basophil stippling

b. Howell-Jolly bodies

c. Malaria parasites

d. nucleus

a, b, c

Basophil stippling - denatured RNA

Howell-Jolly bodies - residual chromatin

(book p.32)

In the bed-side test agglutination occurs with anti-B and anti-AB antibodies, while with anti-A and in the autocontrol no agglutination develops. What is the blood type of the patient?

a. B

b. AB

c. A

d. O

a

Which anticoagulant is used for the storage of blood products?

a. Heparin

b. Citrate

c. CPDA

d. EDTA

b, c

Antibodies against antigens of the ABO system:

a. Are detectable in newborns only

b. Are detectable in patients only after incompatible infusion

c. Are always detectable with enzymated cells only

d. Are not exclusively detectable in patient after transfusion, the regular antibodies of this blood group system are so called natural antibodies and follow the rule of Landsteiner

d

Autocontrol can be positive in the ABO determination in the following cases:

a. Cold antibodies

b. Transfusion of RH(D) blood to a Rh(D) negative male if the transfusion history was negative

c. Antibody against Rh(D) antigen

d. Antibody against platelets

a

(book p. 62)

Auto-control can be positive:

- If cells are covered by autoantibodies

- If cells are covered by alloantibodies (after incompatible transfusion)

- Formation of sympexis

- If cells are covered by antibodies against drugs

If the mother is group B (genotype BO) and the father is group A (genotype AO) what are the possible ABO genotypes of their children?

a. Only AB

b. Only BO

c. Only AO

d. AB, AO, BO or OO

d

Which erythroids are normally present in the peripheral blood?

a. proerythroblast

b. Mature RBC

c. Reticulocyte

d. Normoblast

b, c

Which lab parameters rise significantly during storage of whole blood:

a. glucose

b. RBC hemoglobin

c. potassium

d. LDH

c, d

PLASMA Hb increases! NOT RBC Hb!

What is the reverse grouping test ?

a. The test is used to detect rare , irregular antbodies

b. The serological reaction with anti-B

c. The test to detect ABO antibodies in serum or plasma

d. the simple test for looking for maternal-infant blood group incompatibility

c

Explore recipient's antibodies in plasma (ABO)

What does weak D mean ?

a. A new blood group system

b. Anti-D antibodies

c. The normal D antigen bears several epitopes and the patient D antigen does not contain all of the epitopes

d. All epitopes are present on RBC, however, the number of D antigen is reduced, and for this reason erythrocytes react less strongly than RBCs with normal number of antigens

d

D gene encodes all epitopes of D antigen but the antigen number on red cells is less than the normal quantity.

Evaluation of the reticulocyte count in the smear -

a. We count 100 RBCs and give the reticulocyte count as % of RBCs

b. We count 1000 RBCs and give the reticulocyte count as % of RBCs

c. Reticulocyte is the cell that contains at least 4 or more particles or filaments stained with the blue dye

d. Reticulocyte is the cell that contains at least 2 or more particles or filaments stained with the blue dye

b, d

A child with O Rh+ can have parents with:

a. A Rh+ and B Rh+

b. A Rh- and B Rh-

c. AB Rh+ and AB Rh-

d. AB Rh- and O Rh-

a

Can't be B since the parents must both be homozygous for Rh-.

Anti-D antibodies -

a. are present in all Rh positive individuals

b. are present in all Rh negative individuals

c. temperature optimum is 20 Celcius

d. temperature optimum is 37 Celcius

d

Which of the following can result in acute DIC?

a. Dead fetus syndrome

b. Sepsis

c. Malignancy

d. Chronic starvation

a, b, c

How long can the whole blood be stored ?

a. 1 week

b. 5 week

c. 10 weeks

d. 1 year

b

Using CPDA-1

What can be concluded from the appearance of an RhD antibody in the serum of an Rh- woman during her second pregnancy ?

a. The fathers Rh phenotype is ccddee

b. The mother Rh phenotype is the same as fathers

c. Alloimmunization of pregnancy and hemolytic disease of newborn are confined to the Rh blood group system

d. The mother , lacking D antigen , is immunized by fetal cells that carry the D antigen inherited from father

d

Is the Rh antigen well or poorly developed in fetal life?

a. Poorly developed

b. Anti-D antibody will react with cord and newborn baby red blood cells

c. It is necessary to carry out reverse grouping test by testing the serum against known D positive cells

d. The RhD antigen is well-developed in fetal life, cord and newborn baby's red cells will type as strongly as normal adult blood

d

Serum electrophoresis is characterized by:

a. serum without hemolysis and plasma are not acceptable

b. it is used to diagnose monoclonal gammopathy

c. the migration rate of the protein is influenced only by the net negative charge of the protein and the gel structure has no effect

d. the migration rate of the proteins is influenced by the molecular weight and net negative charge of the protein and the pore size of the gel

b, d

A patient shows anti-Kell antibodies in his or her serum.What blood can he be transfused with?

a. Only ABO and RhD compatible blood

b. Any type of blood , as long as Kell negative

c. O Rh- blood

d. ABO and Rh blood group (that belongs to the patient) that is negative for Kell antigens

d

Test for diagnosis of acute DIC:

a. TT

b. Fibrin monomer test

c. D-dimer test

d. Protein-S determination

a, b, c

Which enzyme is deficient in alkaptonuria?

a. Phenylananine hydroxylase

b. Methylene reductase

c. Arginosuccinate lyase

d. Hemogentisic acid oxidase

d

Which is cerebroside storage disease?

a. Von Gierke disease

b. Gaucher disease

c. Pompe disease

d. Tay-Sachs disease

b

Which clinical symptoms are characteristics to glycogen storage disease?

a. Hyperglycemia

b. Hepatomegaly

c. Renal failure

d. Hypoglycemia

b, d

Which statement(s) is/are true for cystic fibrosis?

a. The allele-specific PCR method is not useful for carrier

b. CF can be diagnosed from chorionic villi sample by DNA analysis

c. The disease is usually caused by insertion

d. Life expectancy is about 30-40 yrs

b, d

Locate answers

CFTR protein is a

a. Cl- channel

b. Na+ channel

c. K+ channel

d. Ca2+ channel

a

The cause of the disorder in the oxidation of very long chain fatty acids

a. Defect of fatty acid oxidiation in the mitochondria

b. Abscence of lysosomal enzymes

c. Peroxisomal disorder

d. abscence of a cytoplasmic fatty acid odidase

c

The most important enzymes responsible for the development of PKU

a. Dihydropteridine reductase

b. Tyrosine aminotransferase

c. Phenylalanine aminotransferase

d. Phenylalanine hydroxylase

d

Phenylalanine hydroxylase - Classical PKU

Dihydropteridine reductase - PKU variant

which statement(s) is/are FALSE from the following:

a. Each enzyme deficiency in B-oxidation of fatty acids results in carnitine cycle disorder

b. The peroxisomes are subcellular membrane organelles, which are the storage places of about 40 enzymes of lipid, AA and H2O2 metabolism

c. The disorders of peroxisome can be named as disorders of very long chain FA

d. The disorders of match oxidation are inherited in dominant way

a, b, d

Peroxisomes have about 80 enzymes!

AR inheritance!

The most important screening tests for metabolic disorders

a. GC/MS

b. HPLC

c. Thin layer chromatography (TLC)

d. Guthrie microbiological test

c, d

1. Screening tests:

- Thin layer chromatography

- Guthrie microbiological test

2. Quantitative tests (monitoring of therapy, confirming of initial diagnosis):

- Ion-exchange chromatography

- HPLC

3. Exact identification and quantification of almost all amino acids and metabolites:

- GC/MS (identification, confirmation, NOT screening)

- MS/MS (nowadays it is a widely used screening method)

The cause/s of hyperphenylalaninemia can be

a. Phenylalanine hydroxylase deficiency

b. Phenylpyruvate dehydrogenase deficiency

c. Dihydropteridine reductase deficiency

d. Dihydrofolate reductase deficiency

a, c, d

Phenylalanine hydroxylase - classical PKU

Dihydropterin reductase - PKU variant

Dihydrofolate reductase - PKU variant

Which definition is true in PKU.

a. Inheritance : autosomal recessive

b. Diagnosis is based on determination of plasma phenylalanine and tyrosine concentration

c. The disorder had good prognosis even is the diagnosis was established in young adulthood

d. The symptoms of disorder are mild, adequate drug treatment is availble

a, b

NOT valid in the case of cystinuria

a. One of the most rare type of aminoaciduria

b. The cause of disorder is the defect in the renal transport system of cysteine, lysine, ornithine and arginine

c. The elevation of plasma level of cysteine results in serious mental retardation

d. The prevalence of cystinuria is higher than the prevalence of classical form of PKU.

e. The elevation of plasma level of cysteine is caused by liver disease

f. The incidence of cystinuria is higher then the incidence of classical form of PKU

a, c, e

The most common inborn error of aa transport, AR; 1/7.000

Cause: defect of renal reabsorption of Cys, Lys, Orn, Arg

Symptoms: renal stone (recurrent), rotten egg-like smell of the urine, renal failure, failure to thrive.

which answer(s) is/are true

a. The most serious form of the disorders of galactose metabolism is galactokinase deficiency

b. The symptoms of galactose-1-P uridylyl transferase deficiency are present on breast fed neonates because the lactose is a disaccharide composed of glucose and galactose

c. The deficiency of UDP galactose-4-epimerase wont result in clinical symptoms

d. The deficiency of galactose-1-P-uridil transferase results in elevation of serum galactose and galactose -1-P.

b, d

Most serious disorder is galactose-1-P uridylyl transferase deficiency.

UDP-galactose-4-epimerase (GALE) deficiency can be benign or severe.

Hereditary fructose intolerance (fructose-1-P-aldolase deficiency)

a. Fructose consumption causes hypoglycemia

b. Fructose consumption causes hyperglycemia

c. There are no clinical symptoms, it causes only fructosuria

d. Glucose consumption is not recommended

a

In which type of glycogen storage disorder is diagnostic the galactose administration test

a. In galactokinase deficiency

b. In Von Gierke disease, which is caused by glucose-6-phosphatase deficiency, there is a failure of blood glucose to increase in response to galactose administration

c. In amylo-1,6-glucosidase deficiency, where hyperglycemic response to galactose can be detected

d. In type III glycogen storage disorder

b, c, d

Sign the correct answer

a. The homocystinuria can develop only in inherited form

b. The hyperhomocysteinaemia is toxic to the vascular endothelium

c. The most prevalent form of inherited homocystinuria is caused by the deficiency of cystathionine b synthase

d. The deficiency of methyl tetrahydrofolate reductase and transferase can not result in hyperhomocysteinaemia

b, c

which statement(s) is/are true

a. Lysosomal lipid storage disorders, which are caused by the deficiency of a specific hydrolase

b. The main clinical symptom of the Gaucher disease is the mental retardation, because of the abnormal sphingolipid is stored in the CNS

c. The main clinical symptoms of Tay-Sachs disease is the mental retardation because the abnormal

glycosphingolipid is stored in the CNS

d. In Niemann-Pick disease the abnormal metabolite is stored in the CNS and in peripheral tissues (liver, spleen)

a, c, d

which metabolic disorder causes severe clinical symptoms

a. Galactokinase deficiency

b. Galactose-1-P-uridyl transferase deficiency

c. Fructokinase deficiency

d. Fructose-1-P-aldolase deficiency

b, d

Which statement(s) is/are true for Delta F508 mutation?

a. The mutant protein reaches the cytoplasmic membrane but defective in conduction

b. The mutation is the most common pathogenic alteration in CFTR gene among Caucasians

c. The mutation occurred once in human evolution

d. The mutant protein is degraded from the Golgi

a, b, c

which is glycogen storage disease?

a. Von Gierke disease

b. Gaucher disease

c. Pompe disease

d. Tay-Sachs disease.

a, c

Correct order of increasing amino acid concentration

a. CSF < cells < plasma

b. cells < CSF < plasma

c. Plasma < CSF < cells

d. CSF < plasma < cells

d

What inluences the quality of a peripheral blood smear ?

a. saturaion of the dye

b. staining ime

c. pH

d. time of the day

a, b, c

Advantages of the hemoglobin-cyanide method for the determinaion of Hb

a. hemoglobin and methemoglobin are measured

b. sulhemoglobin is measured

c. cyanide-containing reagents and waste

d. easy to perform, accurate and reproducible

a, d

A blood sample from a heavy smoker is measured by the hemoglobin-cyanide method. We measure the absorbance at 540 nm after the 5th minute. What kind of deviation do we get using this method ?

a. We get lower value than real hemoglobin concentration

b. We get higher value than real hemoglobin concentration

c. Smoking does not influence the result

d. Smoking gives us both lower and higher value results

b

Overestimated by 6%

Which blood product is used in case of prolonged PT and APTT ?

a. platelet

b. RBC mass

c. FFP

d. none

c

Filtered blood products contain no:

a. WBC

b. RBC

c. Platelets

d. Proteins

a

what can be the metabolic consequences of an enzyme defect in primary aminoaciduria?

a. elevation of the conc. of the product past the deficient enzyme

b. elevation of the substrate(s) conc. behind the deficient enzyme

c. elevation of the level of products generated by alternative metabolic pathways

d. appearance of a substrate in the urine

b, c, d

Examination of the auto control in blood group serology is:

a. the first step

b. the last step

c. not essential, because it is always negative

d. not necessary

b

(book p.61)

8. What kind of laboratory method is used in the newborn screening program of aminoaciduria?

a. ELISA

b. Immunoassay

c. Mass spectrometry

d. Molecular genetic testing

c